Leader Flashcards

(202 cards)

1
Q

What are the entry controller responsibilities?

A

Controlling authorized vehicle and pedestrian traffic entering/exiting the installation, processing authorized visitors onto the installation, provide information and assistance to visitors, enforce traffic laws, implement anti-robbery procedures, and conduct searches of persons and vehicles as required

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2
Q

When are visitor passes issued at installation check points?

A

Upon closing of the visitor center

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3
Q

How will SF members be armed at the gate, security unit, or patrol?

A

M9 with 45 rounds of hollow point ammunition and an M4 with 120 rounds of .556 mixed at a ball/tracer ratio of 4/1

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4
Q

What must on-coming SF entry controllers do prior to relieving off-going personnel?

A

Conduct proper change over, an inspection for cleanliness, damaged equipment, and trash

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5
Q

At what volume should commercial radios on post be set at?

A

A level that does not allow the radio to be heard when standing outside the gate shack or transmitting over the handheld radio

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6
Q

Who should all SF entry controllers report their post to?

A

All SF personnel E-7/O-6 and above in their chain of command

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7
Q

What are the telephones at the installation check points designated as?

A

For Official Use Only (FOUO)

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8
Q

What will be conducted on individuals attempting to enter the installation?

A

100% ID Check

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9
Q

On what list will individuals that do not require an escort or sponsor be located?

A

The approved unescorted entry authorization list (AF IMT 4327A)

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10
Q

What credentials on an approved EAL can escort personnel 18 yrs w/ a picture ID?

A

DOD Common Access Card, DD Form 2 (Armed Forces ID Card), DD Form 1173/1173-1 (Uniformed Services ID/Privilege Card), DOD Investigate Services (AFOSI/CID/NCIS) Credentials, AF Form 354 (DOD Civilian Retired Employee), and DD Form 2765 (DOD Uniformed Service ID & Privilege Card)

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11
Q

T/F: Personnel must have a picture ID to get a visitors pass?

A

True

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12
Q

What must visitors present to the entry controller to gain access to the installation?

A

A valid SFMIS generated AF Form 75 or a DBID’s pass

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13
Q

When will news media personnel be granted unescorted entry to the installation?

A

Never

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14
Q

Who must escort news media personnel at all times?

A

Public Affairs

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15
Q

Who must be notified if media personnel arrive unannounced?

A

BDOC

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16
Q

Where will commercial towing vehicles be directed to?

A

CP-9 unless authorized by the ECC

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17
Q

Who will towing companies seeking to repossess a vehicle be referred?

A

87 ABW SJA

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18
Q

Personnel requesting entry to the installation for special events will be located where?

A

An EAL coordinated through the welcome center

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19
Q

Who directs the inspection of motor vehicles entering/exiting the installation?

A

87th ABW Commander

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20
Q

What is the purpose of IEPCs?

A

Recover stolen or missing government property, detect & seize contraband, and prevent the introduction of illegal drugs, contraband, or weapons

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21
Q

What is the definition of an IEPC?

A

The examination of a vehicle without the foundation for a search

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22
Q

Who provides SF with a monthly schedule for IEPCs?

A

Installation Commander or Designated Representative

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23
Q

Why is it important for the randomness of an ISPC to be maintained?

A

Because the results may be used for judicial action

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24
Q

How long are IEPCs conducted?

A

A minimum of 30 minutes not to exceed an hour

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25
What areas of a vehicle are inspected during an IEPC?
Trunk, hood, glove compartment, ashtrays, under front seats, cargo area, and rear doors of vans
26
During an IEPC, when does the vehicle count begin and stop?
The count stops when a vehicle is being checked and resumes once the check is completed
27
What else can be utilized when conducting inbound checks?
MWD Team
28
What will the SF member do if a civilian driver refuses an inbound check?
Advise the driver he/she cannot enter the base unless he authorizes the inspection, and that refusal may result in the loss of base driving privileges, the revocation of base registration, and/or barment
29
What will The SF member do if a civilian driver refuses an outbound check?
Identify the vehicle for subsequent barment, conduct a walk around for evidence that can be used as a foundation to search, and release the vehicle if no evidence is found
30
What will the SF member do if a military driver refuses a vehicle check?
Advise the driver that refusal may result in the loss of base driving privileges and revocation of base registration. If the driver still refuses contact the SJA to request search authorization
31
What must be completed each time a driver refuses permission for an examination?
An incident report (AF Form 3545)
32
What are the codes used during an IEPC?
Code 1-5 increasing in implements of 5
33
During a vehicle inspection, when would you confiscate items identified as government property?
When a purchase receipt or document authorizing possession is not present
34
During a vehicle inspection, who can the inspection team contact for further guidance?
Flight Leadership, S-2I, OSI, and SJA
35
What are some common items subject to confiscation?
Items designed for inflicting bodily harm, narcotics, and civilian/military/homemade firearms
36
What happens if contraband, drugs, or stolen property is found during a vehicle exam?
The person involved must be immediately detained or apprehended
37
How are military members advised or their rights? Civilians?
Military is advised IAW with Article 31 of the UCMJ, civilians are advised IAW the 5th amendment of the constitution
38
Permission to search will be obtained on what form?
AF Form 1364 (Consent for Search and Seizure)
39
What is an SFS Form 18?
IEPC Log
40
What document will contraband seized during a vehicle inspection be annotated on?
AF Form 52 (Evidence Tag)
41
What pass-on information should Flightline patrols receive from their off-going?
Locations of PL resources such as Transient aircraft, status of all restricted are boundaries/barriers, ropes and stanchions, painted red lines, warning signs, fences, and facilities
42
How many random ECP and RAB checks should be conducted per shift and for how long?
4 each for 15 minutes
43
What information should be given to BDOC in regards to ECP and RAB Checks?
Initiation and termination time, ECP location, and number of badges checked
44
How many physical security checks should be conducted per shift and what does it consist of?
1 physical security check per shift consisting of lighting checks, restricted/controlled area signs, fence line condition, vegetation, and structures
45
What should be conducted once per shift by mid shift flight line patrols?
A perimeter, area, and special purpose lighting check
46
How many hangar checks for aircraft should be conducted per shift?
2
47
What should flightline patrols ensure is accomplished if aircraft are present?
Aircraft are roped off, the facility is marked as a restricted area with proper signs, and all personnel are displaying their RAB correctly
48
What form is the Restricted Area Badge?
AF Form 1199C
49
How far apart should restricted area signs be placed?
No more than 100 feet outside and 25 feet within
50
What authority does SF have under exclusive jurisdiction?
SF can cite or charge military and civilians with local, state, and federal statutes
51
What authority does SF have under proprietary jurisdiction?
SF are limited to offenses involving military members, incidents involving civilians will be revered to local/state agencies
52
What authority does SF have under concurrent jurisdiction?
Jurisdiction is shared, however incidents involving civilians should be referred to local authorities
53
What AFI governs hijackings?
AFI 13-207 Preventing and Resisting Aircraft Piracy
54
What are the most vulnerable periods for aircraft theft?
At nights, weekends, and holidays when aircrew are on board and aircraft is ready for flight
55
What are the limiting factors surrounding anti-hijackings?
Availability of trained negotiators, response time of federal agencies, hijacker’s mental state or belief in a particular cause
56
Who is responsible for hijacked aircraft?
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) during flight, FBI on the ground
57
Who will attempt to negotiate with the hijackers?
A trained negotiator
58
Under what circumstances will a hijacked aircraft not be allowed to take off?
When there are nuclear resources or critical components on board
59
Vehicles used to block hijacked aircraft will be parked how many feet away?
No closer than 15 feet and no farther than 25 feet
60
What will happen if a suspect of the opposite sex had to be searched?
A patrolman or individual from another organization of the same gender will be contacted to assist
61
How do you transport a suspect of the opposite gender?
With a patrolman of the same gender or with 2 SF members present in the vehicle
62
What must be conducted prior to transporting a suspect?
A search
63
Who has the authority to establish temporary restricted areas?
The Installation Commander
64
Who will preannounce all aircraft movements to BDOC?
Maintenance Operations Control (MOC)
65
Who has the ability to establish free zones within the restricted areas?
The Installation Commander
66
Where will aircraft containing PL-1/2 resources be located?
The Hazardous Cargo Loading Area (HCLA)
67
What aircraft are assigned to the AMC Mass Parking Area?
All C-17 and KC-10 aircraft
68
How will the AF Form 1199C be work?
Picture side exposed on the outermost garment above the waist
69
What is open area 1?
87th ABW CP
70
What is open area 2?
108th WG CP
71
What is open area 3?
108th WG Aircraft Parking Area during OPLAN 8010
72
What is open area 4?
AMC Mass Parking Area and the 108th Parking Area
73
What is open area 11?
87th ABW/CP Emergency Action Cell
74
What is open area 12?
108th WG/CP Emergency Action Cell
75
What are the 4 supporting techniques used to authenticate the AF Form 1199C?
Personal recognition, EAL, signature/credential check, and telephone/radio verification
76
What will be used to facilitate emergency entry into restricted areas?
Sign/countersign or distance recognition code
77
How will personnel TDY be granted entry to restricted areas?
By their home station RAB, a supporting EAL, or crew orders
78
Photography within how many feet is unauthorized on the flight line without written permission?
300 feet
79
Unofficial photography for the flighline must be approved by who?
Airfield Managment and Public Affairs
80
What information is found on the Airfield photography approval letter?
Names of the personnel approved, specific dates, and specific locations
81
Who will escort news media personnel at all times?
Public Affairs
82
How do you authenticate your status?
First letter of your last name and any number from 1-50
83
Who devises duress words and when are the changes?
S3-O and semi-annually or when compromised
84
How are duress words used?
I a normal sentence
85
What will the SF ECC Controller do if the primary duress word is compromised?
Implement the alternate immediately
86
What are the 2 types of duress?
Passive and Active
87
When will SF conduct a funds escort?
When funds total more than $25,000
88
When escorting funds on foot, how will SF position themselves?
Behind the individual or to the side
89
T/F. SF can utilize their vehicle to transport funds.
False
90
How many patrols will be dispatched to an alarm activation?
2 at a minimum
91
Who will direct patrols upon their arrival on scene?
The on scene commander
92
Why do patrols set up on opposite sides of a building?
Because it allows a 360 degree view of the facility
93
What code do patrols respond to an alarm activation?
2
94
T/F. The on-scene commander will enter the facility to conduct an interior sweep?
False
95
Who must be notified of all incidents involving domestic violence?
The sponsors unit commander, first sergeant, and family advocacy
96
Who is responsible for investigating major offenses?
AFOSI
97
Who must be notified for all child abuse cases?
AFOSI
98
How should SF park their vehicle when responding to a house?
One house away to not escalate any ongoing situation
99
How long should SF listen at the door before knocking?
15-30 seconds to obtain information on the incident
100
Why should SF be alert for sudden movements or glances at closed doors?
It may indicate the individuals hiding a weapon, family member, or evidence
101
what type of demeanor should SF interacting with the public use?
Calm, positive, and helpful
102
What is the purpose of the VWAP?
To provide guidance to victims and witnesses of a crime
103
What form is the VWAP?
DD Form 2701
104
What is the code word for a defector seeking political asylum?
Seven Bridges
105
What are the actions the patrol/entry controller takes when making contact with the defector?
Notify the ECC via telephone of a seven bridges and remove the individual out of public view, conduct a simple frisk of the individual and possessions, and separate if there is more than 1 person
106
What do you tell the individual seeking political asylum they will be interviewed by?
A representative of the US government
107
What information will not be given over the radio about the defector?
The persons name, function, and nationality
108
What information are you authorized to put over the radio if the defector decides to leave?
Direction of travel
109
Where are the secondary controls for the barrier system at McGuire Gate located?
At the overwatch
110
The barrier system is deplorable within how many seconds?
1-3
111
Where are the master controls for the barrier system located at for the commercial gate?
The administration office
112
When are barrier tests conducted?
2200-0400
113
What are the types of recalls?
Telephone, Wing/pyramid, and com-out
114
What will happen to the 108 WG Aircraft Parking Area upon notification of OPLAN 8010?
It will be upgraded to a PL-2 area as well as the 108th CP
115
T/F. 87th Personnel are responsible for supporting OPLAN 8010 operations.
True
116
What PL classification are cocked on aircraft designated?
2
117
Aircraft in the generation area are considered PL-3 resources until what?
They are cocked on
118
T/F. Cocked on aircraft will be separated from aircraft that aren’t.
False
119
What does the generation area become when all aircraft are cocked on?
Follow on alert area
120
Unescorted entry into the aircraft generation area requires what open area on the RAB?
3
121
Who can authenticate EALs for the aircraft generation area?
SF E-6/GS-7 or above and the 108th CC
122
How will inspection teams be authorized into a restricted area?
Via EAL
123
Who will visitors to the generation area contact to arrange an escort?
The unit or agency responsible for the visit
124
Who will designate personnel authorized to act as escort officials in the generation area?
Unit commanders
125
Escort officials will have what on their restricted area badge?
Open area 3 with an E next to it
126
Prior to entry, how many feet behind the escort official will escorted personnel remain?
10 feet
127
T/F. All vehicles entering the generation area will be searched prior to entry.
True
128
What personnel will search their own vehicle and equipment prior to entering the generation area?
Personnel granted unescorted entry
129
Who is responsible for searching vehicles and equipment brought in by escorted personnel?
The escort official
130
When are POVs authorized in the generation area?
When in use by the inspection teams
131
Who will notify the 108th CP when aircraft are cocked on or uncocked? Who will notify BDOC?
Aircraft commanders will notify 108th CP. 108th CP will notify BDOC
132
Aircrews and crew chiefs authorized to be on alert status will be located on what form?
AF IMT 4327A
133
How will preannounced personnel not listed on the AF IMT 4327A gain access to alert aircraft?
They must have aircrew escort
134
Who will receive copies of the authenticated AF IMT 4327A?
ECPs, ISRTs, and the area supervisor
135
Who will notify BDOC of emergency entry or emergency fast response?
108th WG/CP
136
What will happen if the Red Ball crew passes the wrong DRC once? Twice?
The SF member will stop the crew and pass the DRC verbally. If it happens a second time the SF member will contact the Aircraft commander to authenticate via AF IMT 4327A
137
What is a Safe haven?
A term utilized when a driver and cargo are under threat of seizure or compromise
138
Where do you store a driver and cargo during a Safe haven?
Ammo bunker compound-Lakehurst Munitions storage area-McGuire Ammo supply point-Dix Hazardous cargo loading area-in emergency situations
139
What form should be obtained from the store detective or witness of a shoplifting?
AF Form 1168
140
When are SF members authorized to collect merchandise from a shoplifting?
When the merchandise leaves the store
141
What form will evidence be collected on from a shoplifting?
AF Form 52
142
What will military members be charged with for shoplifting?
Article 121-Larceny/wrongful appropriation
143
What happens to civilian shoplifters in possession of an AACRS/Commissary Privilege Card?
Card will be confiscated via 52 and will be issued a suspension of AAFES privileges letter
144
What will happen to civilian shoplifters without an AAFES/Commissary privilege card?
Issued an order to leave via CVB accomplished by flight leadership
145
T/F. Juveniles age 17 and under MUST be advised of their rights in the presence of their legal guardian.
False. If a legal guardian cannot be present, 2 SF members must be present
146
What type of information should be included in selective traffic enforcement?
Location, RADAR/LIDAR unit #, and how many/types of citations used/issued
147
When are pursuits warranted on JBMDL?
Only in response to hostile acts and serious offenses
148
When should SF discontinue a pursuit?
When endangering the public
149
What type of report is conducted for a major vehicle accident? Minor?
AF Form 3545 (Incident Report)and AF Form 1315 (Accident Report). SFFL 28 (Motor Vehicle Accident Worksheet)
150
What constitutes a Major Vehicle Accident?
Fatalities or personal injuries, damage assessed at $25,000 or more, or when the vehicle is disabled
151
When available, who will be dispatched to all major vehicle accidents?
A certified traffic accident investigator
152
PL-1
Resource for which the loss, theft, distraction, compromise, or misuse would result in GREAT HARM to the STRATEGIC CAPABILITY of the US
153
PL-2
Resource for which the loss, theft, distraction, compromise, or misuse would cause SIGNIFICANT HARM to the WAR FIGHTING CAPABILITY of the US
154
PL-3
Resource for which the loss, theft, distraction, compromise, or misuse WOULD DAMAGE US WAR FIGHTING CAPABILITY
155
PL-4
Resource for which the loss, theft, distraction, compromise, or misuse would ADVERSELY AFFECT the OPERATIONAL CAPABILITY OF THE AIR FORCE
156
What are the phases of DWI/DD detection?
Vehicle in motion, personal contact, and pre-apprehension/arrest screening
157
What should SF members request from the driver before field sobriety tests are conducted?
The vehicle keys
158
When does the pre-apprehension arrest screening begin?
When the driver exits the vehicle
159
What do Standardized Field Sobriety Tests consist of?
Horizontal Gaze Nystagmus (HGN), walk and turn, and the one leg stand
160
T/F. Any SF member can administer the HGN?
False, only personnel certified through the National Highway Safety Administration or an accredited NJ agency
161
On what form will SFST/FSTs be recorded?
DD From 1920 (Alcohol Incident Report)
162
In what order will SFST/FSTs be administered? Why?
HGN, walk and turn, and one leg stand. Because of accuracy
163
Before administering SFST/FSTs, what information should you obtain from the suspect?
Physical injuries, inner ear disorders, or medications that would affect their ability to do any portion of the tests
164
If a SFST/FST cannot be conducted or the suspect refuses what will the SF member do?
Detain based of previous observations
165
T/F. Miranda rights are required before conducting SFST/FSTs.
False
166
What are the phases of the walk and turn test?
Instruction phase and walking phase
167
What types of individuals should not be administered the walk and turn?
65 years or older, one eye, 50lbs overweight, or physical impairment that would affect their balance
168
When observing a one leg stand how far away should you position yourself?
3 feet away
169
What are the phases for the one leg stand?
Instruction phase and balance/counting phase
170
Who generates the RAM schedule?
S3O
171
What do you look for during a RAM?
Suspicious individuals, packages, and vehicles
172
What must the SF member do prior to conducting a check of the CDC during duty hours?
Inform the personnel at the front desk that an exterior check will be conducted
173
FPCON Normal
A general global threat of possible terrorist activity exists and warrants a routine security posture
174
FPCON Alpha
A general threat of terrorist activity exists, the nature and extent of which are unpredictable
175
FPCON Bravo
An increased or more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists
176
FPCON Charlie
An incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating terrorist action or targeting against personnel or facilities is likely
177
FPCON Delta
A terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence has been received that terrorist action against a specific location or person is imminent
178
Code 1
Routine
179
Code 2
Urgent
180
Code 3
Emergency
181
Code 4
Wants/Warrants
182
Code 5
Traffic Stop
183
Code 6
Comfort Break
184
Code 7
Meal Break
185
Code 8
Suspect in Custody
186
Code 8A
Suspect in Custody of opposite gender
187
Code 9
Change radio frequency
188
Code 10
All Secure
189
Code 11
Funds Escort
190
Code 12
DWI
191
Code 13
Immediate Assistance Required
192
Code 14
Duress
193
Code 14A
Duress at Armory
194
Code 14C
Duress at Alt. BDOC (6049)
195
Code 14L
Duress at LE Desk
196
Code 14W
Duress at 87th Wing Command Post
197
Code 15
Bomb Threat
198
Code 15A
Positive MWD Alert
199
Code 15B
Suspicious package
200
Code 15C
Package confirmed by EOD
201
Code 15D
Detonation of Device
202
What are the SF Patrol Responsibilities
Responding to incidents and complaints, restoring or maintaining order at a scene, and reporting as necessary to the ECC. Notify the ECC anytime they dismount their vehicle and advise of their location. Parking properly unless on an emergency call. Conducting initial investigations of criminal incidents, complaints, traffic accidents, and providing follow on assistance to investigators. Preparing and submitting reports. Responding to alarm activations. Conducting funds escorts. Conducting building checks. Patrolling and controlling entry to an accident, incident, and disaster scenes. Enforcing traffic laws. Employing speed measuring devices.