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Flashcards in Leading Firefighter Deck (206)
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1
Q
  1. you respond to an incident at a correctional facility what are the most correct procedures
A

▪report to the DCS IC

▪protect in place strategy

2
Q
  1. what is used to extinguish Magnesium Fires
A

Sand

3
Q
  1. when are Personnel Accountability Reports (PARs) requested
A

▪ Regularly requested personnel accountability reports (PARs)
▪ request additional PARs following the ▪completion of a specific objective or task
if the risk management strategy changes

4
Q
  1. what are the three types of water mains
A

▪trunk mains
▪dis-tributary mains
▪reticulation mains

5
Q
  1. what does the Orion four-head gas detector detect
A

▪LEL - Lower Explosive Limit
▪O2 - Oxygen Levels
▪CO - Carbon monoxide
▪H2S - Hydrogen Sulfide

6
Q
  1. under what conditions must a CFU not activate
A

▪If a minimum of 4 operational members are not present in the area of activity and in CFU uniform or appropriate PPE
▪In areas where the FDR is Catastrophic

7
Q
  1. what are the CFU powers and functions
A

▪CFUs cant operate on days of catastrophic FDR, also deactivates if crewing drops below 4 members
▪If the FDR is Extreme, CFU members should only activate if their houses are specifically designed constructed for bushfires
▪work inside their are of activity, this does not include bushland bordering residential properties
▪Can enter neighbors gardens for mop-up when the owner is absent
▪Can enter buildings for inspection with permission of the owner but not for structural \firefighting purposes
▪Not to engage in a direct fire fighting attack
▪prior to the arrival of the fire front - prepare their properties and extinguish spot fires in their area of activity
▪As the fire front approaches , take shelter until the fire front has passed
▪Not to undertake internal fire fighting or major external fire fighting
▪Once the fire front has passed, assist with mop - up and recovery in their area of activity
▪CFU members have no authority / role in FRNSW Bushfire Ops, IC & FFs to treat members the same as the public & must act in accordance with the FDR

8
Q
  1. what PPE is required when hot refiling a Helicopter
A

▪Full Structural Fire Fighting ensemble including helmet and gloves
▪Flash hood
▪SCBA
▪Ear plugs - ear muffs are not recommended as they interfere with wearing helmets

9
Q
  1. A gaseous Suppression System “fill in the missing “
A

A warning sounds during this time for “between 30 seconds and 2 minute”, depending upon the size of the compartment, the nature of the “occupants” and the “number and proximity of exits”

10
Q
  1. how many sides are there to a fire
A

Seven - A, B, C, D, Top, Bottom and internal

11
Q
  1. what are the 7 radio codes
A
Code 1 - responding to an incident
Code 2 - call off by Comms
Code 3 - On scene at incident 
Code 4 - Available to respond
Code 5 - Return to station
Code 6 - Incident in RFS area
Code 7 - Unavailable to respond
12
Q
  1. The potential seriousness of a bushfire is determined by what 3 things
A

▪Classification - resources commited
▪Size - in hectares
▪Status - the extent to which it is under control and the degree of threat to life and property

13
Q
  1. what are the three levels of bushfires
A
▪class 1 - A fire under the control of the responsible authority, whether or not incidental / low level assistance is provided by other agencies.
▪Class 2 - A fire which, by necessity, involves more than one agency, and where the Bush Fire Management Committee has appointed a person to take charge of fire fighting operations.
▪Class 3 - A major bushfire or fires when an appointment is made or is imminent under the provisions of Section 44 or the rural fires Act, 1997
14
Q
  1. You respond to a bushfire with 4 x FRNSW pumps, 2 x RFS tankers and FRNSW Inspector is managing the fire , in a Fire district. Is this a Class 1 or Class 2 fire.
A

Class 1, Inspector not appointed by the BME, ( Usually a Superintendent is appointed)

15
Q
  1. what are the three types of radiation
A
  1. Gamma Radiation - long range, high penetrating
  2. Beta Radiation - Shorter range less penetrating
  3. Alpha Radiation - Extremely short range, low penetrating
16
Q
  1. what are the three main factors involved in the protection against the effects of external radiation
A
  1. Time
  2. Distance
  3. Shielding
17
Q
  1. what is STEL
A

this concentration is safe for a 15 minute exposure period ( 4 such exposures are permitted per day if they are separated by 1 hr intervals, and overall TWA exposure is not exceeded for that day)

18
Q
  1. What is TWA
A

The safe level of exposure for the 8 hour day, 40 hour week

19
Q
  1. what gases are produced by a celluloid fire and what is the best extinguishing medium
A

Carbon dioxide
Carbon monoxide
Hydrogen cyanide
Nitrous oxide

Extinguish with large quantities of water

20
Q
  1. what defines the colour of smoke
A

▪Type of fuel being burned
▪Amount of O2 present
▪Amount of carbon particles present

21
Q
  1. will the gas detector detect ammonia
A

No, it does not detect refrigerated gases

22
Q
  1. how does the first arriving Station Commander assume command on arrival at a structure fire
A

▪Name of IC - SO 001
▪Name Command - COS control
▪operate in fast attack or at stationary command point - operating in Stationary command

23
Q
  1. How do you identify the size of a structure fire in your initial radio report
A

▪Small - one hose lay can cover entire structure
▪Medium - One hose lay can cover 75% of the structure
▪Large - one hose lay will cover 50% of the structure
▪Very Large - one hose lay will cover 25% of the structure
▪Mega - one hose lay will cover 10% of the structure
▪hose lay is considered to be 50 metres

24
Q
  1. when does the Incident Commander review and revise the Incident Action (IAP)
A

▪ASAP after transferring to Stationary Command
▪At regular intervals thereafter
▪When the incident phase changes and the amount of risk accepted has changed- i.e. life at risk phase to expanding phase.
▪The Strategic level of the incident has been escalated
▪After the operations Section has been established.
▪Fast Attack IC should attempt to review & revise

25
Q
  1. when does the Incident Commander review and revise the Incident Management Functions
A

Principles-
the IC must conduct a review of the incident management functions. If there are deficiencies, the functions must be reviewed and corrective action put in place.
The IC may delegate review and revision to another officer.
Stationary Command IC-
A stationary command IC must review and revise:-
as soon as possible after transferring to stationary command position.
At regular intervals thereafter.
When incident phase changes - ie after life at risk or expanding phase.
Fast Attack IC-
A fast attack IC has reduced capacity to review and revise but should still attempt to do so.
Escalation-
If incident is escalated, IC must review and revise as soon as possible after Operations Section is established.

26
Q
  1. what are the objectives that the IAP must address for all incidents
A

▪To save and protect lives
▪To prevent the incident from expanding beyond a deliberately chosen boundary
▪To minimise further consequences of the incident on the community

27
Q
  1. when does a side become a sector
A

When a sector commander is appointed

28
Q
  1. what are the three phase at an incident that the IC should consider and the amount of risk that should be considered
A
  1. Life at Risk Phase- where there are save able human lives
  2. Expanding Phase - where the incident is likely to expand beyond accepted limits
  3. Contained Phase - where there are sufficient resources to contain the incident within a defined area
29
Q
  1. You are at a 2 Level house fire, the crew rescues 1 person, FA continues and fire has possibly spread into the roof void. What phase has the fire moved into
A

Life at risk to expanding phase

30
Q
  1. what are 7 ways of achieving accountability at incidents
A
  1. the IC has overall responsibility for accountability - ie knowing the location and function of each resource
  2. Accountability can be delegated by the IC as per the incident structure
  3. Every person at the incident must know who they are accountable to and , if relevant, who they are accountable for
  4. All resources must move through a standard accountability cycle as they move into, through, and out of the incident
  5. Every officer and commander at the incident must be able to provide a personnel accountability report (PAR) for those they are directly supervising at all times.
  6. As far as possible, crews should remain intact. Where a commander with a crew is assigned a role not requiring a crew, the incident structure must continue to account for that crew- e.g. by re-assigning the crew to another officer or appointing a crew member as commander
  7. Every person at the incident must behave in a manner that ensures that they can be accounted for at all times. They must never freelance.
31
Q
  1. what actions are required to De-escalate an incident
A

▪Strategic & tactical levels scaled back, delegated functions handed back to the IC.
▪Only the IC can release resources.
▪Rehab resources before departure.
▪Before a crew leaves the hazard zone, crew commanders should conduct a short ‘hot’ debrief.
▪When FRNSW duties complete, IC to handover the site to another agency or owner.
▪When FRNSW involvement at the incident ends, IC must inform FireCom.
▪Command is only terminated when the last resource leaves the incident.

32
Q
  1. when developing objectives, strategies and tactics at a structure fires what are your considerations.
A

▪The response time for requested support
▪The requirements for relief crews and refreshments
▪Whether a change of shift might be necessary

33
Q
  1. what is level 1,2,3,4 PPE
A

A - Fully encapsulated suit with SCBA
B - SCBA + chemical protective suit or charcoal suit
C1 - Powered air purifying respirator and chemical protective suit
C2 - Air purifying respirator and chemical suit
D - Work clothes ( uniform or overalls)

Level 1-
The level 1 PPE ensemble consists of the firefighting helmet, protective hood, firefighting boots and socks, structural firefighting coat, structural firefighting trousers, SCBA, and firefighting gloves

Level 2-
The level 2 PPE ensemble consists of the multipurpose coat, duty wear trousers and belt, multipurpose helmet, firefighting boots and socks, firefighting gloves, goggles, protective hood, and respiratory protection.

34
Q
  1. what are the hazards associated with ISP
A

▪EPS melts and flows like a liquid. It is highly flammable, inducing rapid fire spread, which is undetectable with thermal imaging cameras and can spread to areas remote from the fire origin.
▪Panel delamination, where the hot metal panel skins bow and open up, rapidly increases the rate of fire spread, which heats the ceiling void, creates secondary pool fires from melted EPS, and causes panels to collapse
▪There is an increased risk of flashover and backdraught.
▪Large volumes of toxic, thick, black, acrid smoke are produced.
▪Sudden, loss of structural integrity may cause substantial building collapse.

35
Q
  1. what are the two types of ISP
A
  1. Frame-supported - the ISP is part of the external wall and/or roof, attached directly to a steel frame and often protected by tilt slabs, bricks or iron sheeting, disguised the presences of ISPs
  2. Freestanding - the ISPs are assembled into a standalone structure inside a larger building, often creating a large void above. The structure may be supported by mechanical fastenings to the building’s ceiling, e.g. a small cold store in a supermarket.
36
Q
  1. hazards associated with ISP’s
A

▪ISP’s can delaminate and ignite gasses below the panels
▪Fire can drop behind firefighters from delaminated ISPs
▪ISPs can conceal ceiling fire from TIC
▪Lateral fire spread within ceiling space
▪Fire may appear to be confined to room/s of origin

37
Q
  1. what are signs of structural collapse
A
▪Cracks or bulges in a building's walls
▪Sagging floors and pulling out of walls
▪Columns buckling
▪Displaced columns
▪Dropped arches
38
Q
  1. what are the correct actions to be taken in the disposal of sharps
A

▪Do not touch the syringe before obtaining the designated equipment
▪Do not attempt to handle the syringe with bare hands
▪Obtain the designated equipment and PPE, which should include firefighting boots or other appropriate closed footwear, disposable gloves under firefighting gloves, a sealable, puncture-resistant container or approved clinical waste container
▪Take the sharps container to the syringe
▪Open the container and place on a stable, level surface. Do not hold the container because a misdirected needle may contact the hand or forearm and result in a needle stick injury
▪Using a gloved hand, pick up the syringe, at the opposite end of the needle.
▪Carefully place the syringe into the container, needle first. Obtain a larger or new container if the syringe does not fit
▪Seal the container.
▪Dispose of the syringe container should be made at the local hospital or ambulance stations.

39
Q
  1. What is the correct procedure when dealing with PPC treated with Proban
A

▪Whenever possible store PPC treated with Proban in a well ventilated area
▪When removing PPC treated with Proban from a confined space such as a plastic bag, open in a well ventilated area, then wait a short time to allow for accumulated gases to dissipate.
Laundry-
▪Laundered before and after use in accordance with In Orders 2009/13
▪If treated with Proban wash separately from other clothing
▪Do not shake prior to laundering

40
Q
  1. What is the alarm protocol for a 4th & 5th Alarm Structure Fire
A
4th Alarm
8 Pumps
1 pumper for RIT
1 rescue
2 Aerials
2 Hazmats
CV
LSV3 Duty Commanders
2 Superintendents
5th Alarm
10 Pumps
1 Pumper for RIT
2 Rescue
3 Aerials
2 Hazmats
CV
LSV
3 Duty Commanders
2 Superintendents
1 Chief Superintendant
1 Hazmat Commander
41
Q
  1. What type and alarm level is USAR1 turned out
A

Rescue Incident 5th Alarm

42
Q
  1. How do you extinguish the following classes of fire
A

A Class - Cooling
B Class - Smothering or Interrupting the flame chain reaction cooling
C Class - Interrupting the flame chain reaction, or smothering
D Class - Smothering or Starvation
E Class - Not considered a class
F Class - Smothering or interrupting the flame chain reaction

43
Q
  1. What factors should be considered in an effective size-up BELEA
A
▪Building
▪Exposures
▪Location of the fire
▪Extinguishment
▪Assistance Required
44
Q
  1. What are the tactical Priorities at a Structure Fire RECEOSV
A

▪Rescue - Save and protect peoples live
▪Exposures - Confine the fire to the building/compartment of origin
▪Containment - Stop the spread of fire
▪Extinguishment - Extinguish the fire
▪Overhaul - Ensure that all pockets of fire are totally extinguished
▪Salvage - Commence damage control operations as soon as possible during fire attack
▪Ventilation -

45
Q
  1. What is the definition of a hazardous Materials
A

Hazardous materials means anything that, when produced, stored, moved, used or otherwise dealt with without adequate safeguards to prevent it from escaping, may cause injury or death or damage to property.

46
Q
  1. What are the guidelines for a hazardous materials incident SISIACM
A
▪Safe Approach
▪Incident Control
▪Scene Security
▪Identify hazardous materials
▪Assess potential harm and minimise environmental contaimination
▪Call in resources
▪Monitor information
▪Render safe and decontaminate
47
Q
  1. Name the 5 members of the decontamination team
A
  1. Decontamination Officer
  2. Pump Operator
  3. Wash Operator
  4. Wash Assistant
  5. Disrobe Assistant
48
Q
  1. What are your actions at a radiation incident
A

▪30 metres hot zone
▪Wear splash suit & BA, wear dosimeters and minimise the time spent in the hot zone
▪Avoid contact with damaged or leaking packages
▪Where packages must be moved, mechanical aids e.g. shovels are to be used
▪Shut- off the leak at the source, or control the spill and dyke the area using absorbent material
▪Control escape and dyke the area
▪Delay clean up until arrival of expert advice.

49
Q
  1. When can the process of ventilation begin
A

▪The seat of the fire has been located
▪Crews are ready to enter with charged hose lines
▪Backup crews are ready to enter
▪communications have been established amongst all crews.

50
Q
  1. Where are the most suitable places to use horizontal ventilitation
A

▪Homes where the roof is not involved in the fire
▪Buildings where the windows are closed under the eaves
▪High rise buildings where each involved floor has operable windows
▪Warehouses with large under-roof spaces that may have been weakened by fire

51
Q
  1. You are the IC at a single level house fire with crews internal stating they have zero visibility, fire in the roof, fire in the kitchen and the second station hasn’t arrived.
    what are the critical factors that you need to immediately consider . only need 2
A

▪Fire extension in the roof
▪zero visibility
▪fire in kitchen
▪second station delay

52
Q
  1. What are the 4 areas on an incident Action Plan
A
  1. Objectives - rescue protect exposures
  2. Strategies - offensive / defensive
  3. Tactics - deployment of crews and appliances
  4. Tasks - assignments given to individual crews
53
Q
  1. What are the three discrete levels of incident management
A
  1. Strategic
  2. Tactical
  3. Task
54
Q
  1. what are the key principles of AIIMS
A
  1. Flexibility
  2. Management by objectives
  3. Functional management
  4. unity of command
  5. Span of control

FMFUS - Acronym

55
Q
  1. What are the procedures if you get blood on the first aid kit
A

▪Wear appropriate personal protective equipment
▪Where possible remove or absorb most of the contaminant e.g. with paper towel
▪Clean with soap and water
▪Then clean with BA disinfectant, leave on for 10 mins then rinse with water
▪Ensure the area is left clean and dry
▪Dispose of waste contaminated with blood or bodily fluids in appropriate container/bag

56
Q
  1. If the EMT pack becomes contaminated by blood, state the actions for decon of the pack
A

▪Clean it by removing as much soiling as possible
▪Decontaminate by spraying it with BA disinfectant for 10 mins
▪After 10 mins, rinse with water

57
Q
  1. What is 3 deep deployment
A

▪Have enough crews available to complete assigned tasks
▪Have an unassigned on-deck crew, available for rapid intervention if needed.
▪Have uncommitted crews available in Staging.

58
Q
  1. Which of the following 2 options are correct with 3 deep deployment with 4 pumps
A
  1. 2 hazard zones, 1 recycle and 1 staging
  2. 2 hazard zone, 1 recycle and 1 RIT
  3. 1 hazard zone, 1 recycle, 1 RIT and 1 staging
  4. 2 Hazard zone, 1 RIT and 1 staging

3 deep deployment must have RIT & must have Staging
answer is 3 and 4

59
Q
  1. Label the BA Tally Key
A
▪Station Number
▪Rank
▪Name
▪Cylinder Pressure
▪Time In
60
Q
  1. If you are called to a house fire persons reported and all crew’s ICMS tags aren’t on the appliance tag, your actions
A

An appliance must not respond until the passports attached to the appliance tag match the firefighters on the appliance. If this is going to cause significant delay, notify your Communication Centre immediately.

61
Q
  1. You are at a bushfire and trying to get into contact with the RFS OIC. you tried radio channels 1301 and 1302, what do you do next
A

▪Use Mobile phone
▪Channel 1201
▪Comms repeater
▪One other response

62
Q
  1. What are the responsibilities of the Safety Officer
A

▪Identify unsafe conditions or operations and report these to the IC
▪Correct unsafe work practices through the appropriate commander. If this affects strategy and tactics, inform the IC so that the incident action plan can be reviewed.
▪Communicate with commanders, to identify safety concerns and the control measures implemented.
▪Identify hazards likely to affect the safety, health, or welfare of personnel. Through the appropriate commander, ensure all those at the incident are properly briefed on these hazards, including measures to eliminate, prevent, or mitigate risks.
▪Assist the IC to complete the operational risk assessment and the risk assessment worksheet. Alternatively, conduct the operational risk assessment for the IC and communicate the assessment to the IC.
▪Confirm that all health and safety systems are in place- eg breathing apparatus control, rehabilitation, health monitoring.
▪Confirm that all utilities are identified and rendered safe.
▪Confirm that all those at the incident are aware of the location of the hazard zone, any exclusion zones, and any other designated areas.
▪Request the appointment of additional safety Officers if needed.
▪Maintain awareness of the incident communications plan and incident action plan.

63
Q
  1. What are the responsibilities of the Operations Officer
A

Operations implements actions to resolve the incident, consistent with the objectives defined by the Incident Commander.
The Operations officers role is to :-
▪Establish an operational structure, and allocate resources to enable safe work practices to be implemented by personnel on the incident ground.
▪Implement procedures for the Welfare of Operations personnel.
▪Contribute to the development of the Incident Action Plan.
▪Establish effective liaison arrangements and cooperation with all relevant persons.
▪Implement the Incident Action Plan at the incident effectively and efficiently.
▪Implement a process for briefing personnel prior to deployment at the incident.
▪Ensure personnel are properly equipped for the task given to them.
▪Ensure personnel are tasked to undertake only the activities for which they are qualified.
▪Keep personnel informed of the situation at the incident, in particular in relation to any key issues that could affect their safety or welfare.
▪Implement the process for debriefing of personnel before being released from the incident or shift concerned.
▪Provide regular progress reports to the Incident Commander.
▪Identify new and emerging risks at the incident including public safety or environmental risks and ensure these are either managed effectively, or communicated to the Incident Commander and Incident Management team, as appropriate.

64
Q
  1. What is the responsibilities of the Incident Commander.
A

The Incident Commanders role is to:-
▪Take charge and exercise leadership of the response, including the establishment of a management structure.
▪Set objectives for the response to the incident, considering the safety of affected communities as a priority.
▪Develop and approve plans and strategies to control the incident.
▪Implement the Incident Action Plan developed to resolve the incident, and monitor its progress.
▪Provide information and warnings to others so they can make informed decisions.
▪Establish effective liaison and cooperation with all relevant persons, including support agencies, affected communities, and those working beyond the incident Management Team.
▪Obtain and maintain human and physical resources, facilities, services and materials.
▪Apply a risk management approach, and establish systems and procedures for the safety and welfare of all persons working at the incident.
▪Ensure relief and recovery considerations are addressed, and that services are provided to the persons and communities impacted by the incident.
▪Ensure collaboration between response and recovery agencies.

65
Q
  1. What three factors define the colour of smoke.
A
  1. Type of fuel
  2. Amount of O2 present
  3. Amount of carbon particles present.
66
Q
  1. What must a driver of a Scania 320 Pumper do if they continually activate the Electronic Stability Program (ESP) if they are travelling too fast for the road conditions.
A

Alter their driving behaviour to match road conditions.

67
Q
  1. When should you transfer from fast attack to a stationary attack.
A

▪When an incident is becoming too complex for a fast attack IC.
▪Where the incident is likely to be extended in duration.

68
Q
  1. What is a Mayday message for
A

A mayday message is used to draw attention to a life-threatening situation to a fire fighter.
I may be used when:-
▪A fire fighter is trapped, injured, missing or overdue
▪A firefighter cannot be accounted for
▪A previously unknown life or safety hazard is discovered
▪A SCBA warning whistle, Distress Signalling Unit, or call for assistance is heard.

69
Q
  1. What are the 4 levels of mental health
A
  1. Prevention
  2. Awareness
  3. Response
  4. Support
70
Q
  1. What are the distances required for LPG Leaks
A

Minor Leaks
▪100 m in all directions around tanks and cylinders
▪10 m around motor vehicles

Major Leaks
▪300 m from sides and 900 m from ends of tanks
▪900 m in all directions around rail cars

71
Q
  1. What are the considerations for a LPG leak
A

▪Approach all LPG tanks and cylinders from upwind only.
▪Immediately remove all persons in the vicinity of a gas vapour cloud.
▪Establish a hot zone.
▪Wear fire fighting uniform and BA whilst making an approach to, or working in areas suspected of containing gas.
▪Avoid entering the gas vapour cloud, and only do so under the protection of water sprays.
▪Do not approach a tank or cylinder in a direct line to the pressure relief valve.
▪Where a major leak is present, position two charged lines of 70 mm hose in a protected area, ready for fire protection.
▪Position a back up crew , with a charged spray branch, to provide fire protection for the forward crew.
▪A crew utilising two spray branches, to disperse any leaking gas, is to approach the tank and access the leak. Where safe to do so, the crew is to shut off the leak by an appropriate means.
▪Ice formed by leaking liquid LPG and creating a temporary seal is not to be hosed.
▪If unable to stop the leak, direct water sprays across the path of the vapour cloud and disperse gas toward a safe location, paying attention to low lying areas where gas may accumulate.
▪Prevent gas or liquid LPG from entering drains, basements, etc, by whatever means are available.
▪Liquid contact with skin will result in freeze burns or frostbite. Use thermal gloves if it is necessary to operate valves or touch metal components.

72
Q
  1. What are the distances required for an LPG fire
A

Carry out an initial evacuation for 300 m from the sides and 900 m from the ends of involved tank(s). Assess the need to increase the evacuation distance to 1 Km, in all directions, depending on the severity of the fire.

73
Q
  1. what are the considerations for an LPG fire
A

The priorities are to:-
▪Evacuate unnecessary persons
▪Cool flame impinged on heated tanks and cylinders
▪Control leaks by closing appropriate valves
▪Extinguish fires external to the tank causing flame impingement or heating.

When approaching a vessel:-
▪Approach from the sides of the tank or cylinder only wear BA whilst doing so
▪Approach behind the protection of water sprays
▪Do not approach in a direct line to the pressure relief valve.

74
Q
  1. What are the considerations for a LPG Motor Vehicle leaks and fires
A

▪Fully assess the situation before taking any action
▪Wear BA in addition to the fire fighting uniform
▪Determine, and avoid the relief valve discharge point. Use caution where the relief valve discharge point is not evident.

75
Q
  1. What precautions you should take as you approach a vehicle that may have had LPG installed and that may have a leak or rupture
A

▪Approach the vehicle from up-wind where practical
▪Eliminate all ignition sources
▪Evacuate all persons from the surrounding area as necessary and up to a distance as directed by the OIC
▪Allow no one to come within the area of the vapour cloud.
▪Attempt to break up any vapour cloud by high pressure water sprays.
▪Locate the source of the leak and stop it.
NON - FIRE SITUATIONS
▪Disperse vapour clouds with water fog lines.
▪For leaks originating in the engine compartment, attempt to turn off the vehicle ignition to control the leak of LPG.
▪Close the cylinder service valve. Where this cannot be done, continue to disperse the leaking gas with water fog.
FIRE SITUATIONS - VEHICLES
▪Establish a combat area for 75 m around the vehicle.
▪Cool the vehicle fire and then, under the protection of water sprays, gain access to the LPG cylinder and close the service valve.
LPG VEHICLE THAT MAY HAVE A LEAK OR A RUPTURE
▪Approach the vehicle from up-wind where practical.
▪Eliminate all ignition sources.
▪Evacuate all persons from the surrounding area as necessary and up to a distance as directed by the OIC.
▪Allow no one to come within the area of the vapour cloud.
▪Attempt to break up any vapour cloud by high pressure water sprays.
▪Locate the source of the leak and stop it.

76
Q
  1. What are your initial actions at a LPG tanker rollover
A

▪Evacuate all persons from the immediate area with a radius of at least 200 m, especially those downwind of the escaping gas.
▪Instruct everyone in the area surrounding the incident to eliminate all sources of ignition.
▪Consult the driver to locate the valves to reduce or stop the flow.

77
Q
  1. What are 4 signs of an LPG Fuelled Vehicle
A

▪Secondary Fill point
▪25 mm reflective red square fixed to both front and rear license plates
▪LPG change-over switch.
▪Safety valve discharge outlet and vent pipes

78
Q
  1. What are the two common forms of LPG
A

▪Pentane
▪Butane
LPG explosive range 2% - 10%

79
Q

If a firefighter is exposed to Fumigation chemicals at an AFA, on return to station, what must be undertaken

A

▪Firefighters must shower and dress in clean clothes.
▪Send the clothes for decontamination.
▪Record the details of the exposure in the Occurrence Book.
▪Complete a NIIEMs form.

80
Q
  1. What are the 4 types of ventilation
A
  1. Vertical Ventilation
  2. Trench Ventilation
  3. Horizontal Ventilation
  4. Pressurised Ventilation
81
Q
  1. what are the by-products of mattress fires - Plastic/Polyurethane
A

▪CO - Carbon Monoxide
▪CO2 - Carbon Dioxide
▪Hydrogen Cyanide

82
Q
  1. What are the 8 functional areas of Incident Command
A
  1. Deployment
  2. Command
  3. Situational Evaluation
  4. Incident Action Plan
  5. Incident Communication
  6. Incident Structure
  7. Review and revise
  8. Escalation and De-Escalation
83
Q
  1. what are some examples of critical factors
A

▪Size of the Fire
▪Location and extent of a fire
▪Weather
▪Building size and layout
▪The type of occupancy
▪Time of day
▪Electricity or other utilities still connected
▪Persons trapped
▪Fire in roof voids
▪Zero visibility
▪Information from crews that high heat is encountered
▪A report that ‘we can’t find the fire’
▪A wind driven fire
▪Possible chemicals in storage shed that is in or near the fire
Possible clandestine drug laboratory encountered in a structure.

84
Q
  1. what are the two types of Critical Factors
A
  1. Variable

2. Fixed

85
Q
  1. what are three examples of critical factors at a house fire
A
  1. Fire in the roof
  2. High heat is encountered by fire fighters
  3. Zero visibility
86
Q
  1. What is Level 1 and Level 2 incident ground rehabilitation
A

LEVEL 1
▪Recommended for small incidents not requiring the response of a specialist incident ground rehabilitation capability. Level 1 Rehab uses equipment carried on front line firefighting appliances.
LEVEL 2
▪Long duration incidents
▪In circumstances where crew rotation is limited
▪Hot and dry, or cold and wet, conditions where working conditions are arduous
▪Where breathing apparatus usage and rotation is high
▪Where conditions are such that specialist incident ground rehabilitation capabilities are required.

87
Q
  1. What is the difference between a fire control room and a fire control centre.
A

FIRE CONTROL CENTRE - is a lobby area or alcove in a building, usually located in buildings 25 - 50 metres high or with a large floor area.
A FIRE CONTROL CENTRE is at or near ground level, and can house the :-
▪Fire control panel
▪Fire fan control panel
▪Master emergency control panel
▪Security alarm and control panels

FIRE CONTROL ROOM - is a specific fire fire isolated room for FRNSW use usually located in buildings higher than 50 metres or with large floor areas.
A FIRE CONTROL ROOM is usually at or below ground level. Features include:-
▪A fire isolated room with a 2-hour fire rating and separate ventilation.
▪Two exit points, to the front of the building and directly into a fire exit.
▪Fire indicator panel.
▪Fire fan control panel.
▪Master emergency control panel.
▪Controls for fire pumps
▪Security alarm and control panels
▪Telephone
▪Whiteboard, cork board and plan table.
▪Tactical fire plans.

88
Q
  1. During fie operations, why does the Incident Controller go to the Fire Control Centre/Fire Control Room
A

▪Receive a handover from the Emergency Control Organisation or Security staff.
▪Monitor and operate the control panels as required.
▪Establish strategic and task communications links as required through the Warden Intercommunication Point phone/hand held transceivers/phones.
▪Manage the incident.
▪Monitor the safety of the location regularly.

89
Q
  1. When using a ladder, what is the ratio of distance from the wall to the height
A

1:4

8 metre high wall, the foot of the ladder must be at least 2 metres minimum from the wall

90
Q
  1. What is the height of a collapse zone
A

▪1.5 times the height of the building

91
Q
  1. FRNSW has produced a manual on Dynamic Risk Assessment for Operations. As stated in the standing Orders, what are the purposes of this manual
A

▪To introduce the safe person concept to FRNSW.
▪To educate firefighters on the risks that they face.
▪To improve Firefighter safety.

92
Q
  1. when responding to an incident in a tunnel, where should the first arriving appliance go - Tunnel Control Centre
A

▪Where there is staffed TCC, the first arriving station should report to this centre and the station commander becomes the IC and directs other appliances.
▪Where there are no TCC or operators, the first arriving station should report to the tunnel portal nearest to the incident.

93
Q
  1. When can you directly enter a road tunnel for a minor incident
A

▪When good visibility is present
▪With the flow of traffic
▪When SCBA is not required.

94
Q
  1. Four conditions are required for a dust explosion to occur
A

▪Combustible solid in the form of a dust.
▪Within explosive range.
▪Ignition source present.
▪Explosive chemical chain reaction in a confined space.

95
Q
  1. What factors contribute to a fire in a building spreading upwards
A

▪Weather
▪Height
▪Fuel Load
▪Fuel Type

96
Q
  1. What are the 5 types of chemical warfare agents
A
  1. Nerve
  2. Choking
  3. Blister
  4. Blood
  5. Riot
97
Q
  1. What are the 3 types of Decontamination
A
  1. Standard
  2. Emergency
  3. Mass
98
Q
  1. What are the 2 types of decontamination methods
A
  1. Wet

2. Dry

99
Q
  1. What are the 3 types of decontamination zones
A
  1. initial
  2. Emergency
  3. Firefighter
100
Q
  1. You are the first arriving appliance at an Armed Offender, what are your actions. Operations Bulletin 2005 - 03
A

In the event an active offender incident develops while FRNSW is attending an incident, immediately notify Police and withdraw to a safe area.
When responding to or while in attendance at a Police operation that may involve an active armed offender:-
Request information from FireCom regarding Police attendance and staging areas located away from danger areas prior to arrival onsite.
Respond under normal road conditions, unless otherwise directed.
Consider possible secondary explosive devices near obvious staging areas or incident access routes.
Establish contact with Police Site Controller on arrival.
Establish effective liaison with the police and other emergency services.
Ensure secure communications and be mindful of open communication channels in the public arena - ie minimise voice level and consider turning off appliance speakers.
Park in a position that allows for rapid withdrawal.
Ensure security of the appliance.
Be mindful of the need to preserve evidence.
Firefighter safety is always the first priority.
INCIDENT MANAGEMENT FOR ARMED OFFENDERS
The NSW Police force is the combat agency for active armed offender incidents and will take control of the site.
Police will establish a perimeter around an active armed offender incident. This Perimeter is the FRNSW equivalent to the hot zone.
Firefighters must not enter the hot zone until police confirm that it is safe to do so.
As far as possible clearly define FRNSW tasks. In the early stages this is likely to involve assisting with mass casualties, including life support.
FRNSW operations in the hot zone must be under the direction of police and supervision of FRNSW Commanders.
The number of firefighters in the hot zone must be minimised and operations must comply with FRNSW guidelines.
At multi-agency incidents, FRNSW Commanders should ensure that they are included in the incident management team (IMT).
There should be:-
One set of objectives with one consolidated incident action plan.
Clearly defined roles and responsibilitys for each agency.
Clearly defined reporting lines and communication plan.

101
Q
  1. What are 4 ways to identify the type of hazardous materials.
A
  1. Chemical Name
  2. UN Number
  3. Dangerous Goods Class
  4. Haz chem code
102
Q
  1. What are the three zones for a Hazmat Incident
A
  1. Hot Zone
  2. Warm Zone
  3. Cold Zone
103
Q
  1. What are the Two types of Rapid Intervention Teams (RIT)
A

An Initial RIT up to 4 pumpers

A Full RIT 5 pumpers of more

104
Q
  1. What do you do if an unauthorised person is found within a substation
A

Contact the ComCen to notify the electricity company.
Order the person to sit down and remain calm.
Do not attempt to rescue or remove the person.
Do not enter the substation.
Wait for the electricity company representative to arrive on site.

105
Q
  1. What voltage is present in an electrical pillar box
A

415v

106
Q
  1. What are your actions for a fire on electricity pole
A

Park clear of power lines, conduct a RA from 8 m away.
Use Volt Detector to determine if live.
Establish 8 m exclusion zone if suspected to be live.
Call FireCom for ETA - provide location & pole number.
Maintain exclusion zone until component or fixture isolated by onsite reps.
Extinguish with pulse spray from 8 m.

107
Q
  1. A Firefighter has to leave work for personal reasons, what actions are taken.
A
A note in occurrence book.
The fact of the absence.
The reason for the absence.
The name of the person giving permission to leave the fire station.
Notify S/O.
108
Q
  1. What are the size of the mains sizes and their flow rates.
A
MAIN SIZE - FLOW RATE
100 mm - 2200 L/min
150 mm - 4500 L/min
200 mm - 6720 L/min
250 mm - 11220 L/min
300 mm - 18000 L/min
109
Q
  1. What are the three types of hydrants
A
  1. Ball Valve
  2. Screw Valve
  3. Wheel valve pillar
110
Q
  1. The inspector calls for resources at a large incident, who do you report to
A

The staging officer as the inspector is freelancing.

111
Q
  1. At a large fire where Sectors are established, Sector Commander Brave calls for a crew report to Sector B to commence Ventilation. Two crews arrive for this task. What went wrong
A

One crew didn’t report to the staging area on arrival ( Freelancing)

112
Q
  1. You are at a 4th Alarm fire and the IC sends you to Sector Charlie, however your ICMS tags are in Sector Alpha, what do you do
A

Radio ICMS officer, ask for someone to collect appliance tags from Sector Alpha and take to Sector Charlie.

113
Q
  1. At a response to a high rise office block during business hours an occupant pressed the break glass alarm. There was a minor fire which was extinguished and there is an FIP that didn’t go into alarm but the EWIS is activating, the crew reports that people are still on the upper levels. what went wrong
A

You didn’t use the EWIS PA to evacuate the occupants.

114
Q
  1. You responded to a high rise office block during business hours, an occupant asks why the response took so long because they pressed the break glass alarm 10 minutes ago. There was a minor fire which was extinguished and there is an FIP that didn’t go into alarm but the EWIS is activating. What happened
A

A BGA doesn’t activate the FIP

No one rang 000 straight away

115
Q
  1. You are BACO Officer high rise two floors below fire ops, a crew hands you their BA Tallies and continues to the fire level, waits in the stair well for 10 minutes then enters, after 30 min, you notify the IC that crew needs to exit because of low air level, you are incorrect because why
A

BA crew filled tally wrong
BACO is in wrong position
BACO did not record details properly
Crew didn’t inform BACO when donned and on air

116
Q
  1. At a Hazmat Incident you have used HAG forms, Datachem, Dangerous Goods Manifest etc and they all give conflicting requirements for PPE. Which one do you use
A

FE Suit - always go highest level of protection if unsure.

117
Q
  1. Where are the most suitable places to use Horizontal ventilation.
A

Homes where the roof is not involved in the fire.
Buildings where the windows are close under the eaves.
High rise buildings where each involved floor has operable windows.
Warehouses with large under-roof spaces that may have been weakened by fire.

118
Q
  1. What is the purpose of Incident Ground Health Monitoring
A

To minimise the risk of Firefighter injury and illness on the incident ground, with a focus on management of heat stress and cardiovascular risk. Monitoring is undertaken to :-
ascertain job rotation and rest break sequencing.
Provide health information to Firefighters in order for them to manage their own safety and health.
Assist Incident Controllers to ensure Firefighters are fit to continue work that is likely to be arduous or prolonged.
Assist Incident Controllers to provide adequate rest, rehabilitation, rotation and re-tasking.

119
Q
  1. what is the role of the Rehabilitation Officer
A

select an appropriate site.
Manage the rehabilitation area.
Obtain resources required to staff and operate the area.
Report to the IC or Logistics Officer. Consult with the Safety Officer.
Release firefighters from the Rehabilitation area after they are rested and hydrated.
Continually assess the need for rehabilitation - obtain additional resources if the incident goes on for longer than estimated; scale back as the incident winds down ( with the IC’s approval ).
When the Rehabilitation Area is closed, account for equipment and consumables used - note for replacement on return to station.

120
Q
  1. Do cold store alarms detect refrigerant leaks
A

Leaks may not be monitored at small & older cold stores. Asphyxiant, toxic & flammable gases may be present.
NOTE:-
Orion gas detector has reduced effectiveness in cold atmospheres. Call for specialist detectors carried on Hazmat Appliances.

121
Q

What is the definition of the following

A

Flash Point - The lowest temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient flammable air to cause a flash when an ignition source is applied to the vapour.
Fire Point - The lowest temperature at which vapour in air will flash and continue to burn.
Spontaneous Ignition Temperature - The temperature at which a substance ignites spontaneously without ignition by an external spark or flame.
Flammable Range - This range defines the upper and lower limits of concentrations of vapour to air mixture that can be ignited.
Oil Slop Over - The minor overflow from an oil tank which sometimes occurs by the frothing of burning oil, when foam or water is applied to the surface.
Vapour Density - One danger of flammable liquids is that they give off vapours that have a density that is greater than the density of air. The vapours that are heavier than air sink in air, and they tend to accumulate near ground level. Thus, a large spill of flammable liquid can result in the formation of an extensive cloud of flammable vapour.
Boil Over - occurs when heat from the fire of burning oil in a tank unites with water t the bottom of the tank to form steam. This steam increases the volume of the oil, and the oil boils over.
Specific Gravity - If a liquid is not soluble in water, its specific gravity (SG) determines whether that liquid floats or sinks in water. Most flammable liquids have an SG of less than one. If a flammable liquid has an SG less than one, it floats on water eg petrol.
Ullage - is the space between the top of the liquid and the top of the tank. You can prevent slop-over by removing sufficient liquid from the tank to increase ullage.

122
Q
  1. What are the essential roles of FireCom
A

Establishing Communications and maintaining throughout the incident.
Assisting the IC with additional resources.
Providing incident details to the IC and other crews.
Compiling incident records.

123
Q
  1. What are the procedures for a rattle snake
A

The SOG states native reptiles are to be given to an approved reptile handler or Wildlife care organisation such as RSPCA or wires, If not possible - handover to NPWS or a veterinarian. If this isn’t possible - release as advised by NPWS.
Exotic snakes must not be released, they must be given to a approved reptile handler or vet.

124
Q
  1. what are the procedures for a red belly black snake
A

Handover to an approved reptile handler or wildlife care Org such as RSPCA or Wires. If not possible handover to NPWS or veterinarian. Release procedure as per SOG if required.

125
Q
  1. FRNSW personnel should not enter the RailCorp corridor without advising the RailCorp Rail Management Centre ( via the communication centre ) of their intention. What 4 things can the RailCorp Rail Management Centre arrange if necessary.
A

Trains to be stopped.
Overhead power to be removed, via rescue Power Outage, or 1500 v isolation procedure.
Appropriate RailCorp to the incident site.
suitable protection for personnel entering the RailCorp corridor.

126
Q
  1. What are the actions of the first 3 arriving appliances
A

The first Commander becomes the Sector Commander for the fire floor, establishes a forward control point and commences fire operations from the floor below the fire.
The first crew will take a High-rise (remote) access Pack.
The SECTOR COMMANDER Will:-
Identify the fire location from the fire indicator panel (FIP), Sub Indicator Panel (SIP) or occupants.
Brief the pump operator according to the situation. Actions may include:-
Monitor communications.
Establish BA control
Leave lift/fire control room/pump room keys for next arriving stations.
Send a sitrep message to the comcen as instructed by the Station Commander and provide a sitrep to next arriving officer.
Go to the reported fire floor with the crew using the emergency lift to the floor below the fire floor- if safe to use- or the fire stairs.
Familiarise the crew with floor layout.
Charge a line of 38 mm hose from the fire stairs or the fire floor below before entering the fire floor.
Use the fire stairs to the fire floor.
Conduct fire operations on the fire floor.
The Station Commander becomes the IC. The second crew assists the first crew on the fire floor.
The IC WILL:-
Establish a control point, receive an update and advise the transfer of control.
Send a firefighter to return lifts to the ground floor with the recall fire service switch.
Send a crew with the high-rise (remote) access pack and other required equipment to the fire floor sector commander.
Send a sitrep to the comcen.
Convey additional equipment to the fire floor.
Brief and task arriving personnel.
Allocate both pump operators to access the booster and set up in:-
Stand by mode - connect hose but do not charge it.
Activation mode - pressure the hydrant system.
The crew will proceed to the fire floor below the fire, and be tasked by the sector commander.
The Station Commander becomes Sector Commander on the floor above the fire floor and commences fire operations with their crews, unless tasked otherwise by the IC.
The STATION COMMANDER:-
Contacts the IC
Proceeds with crew to High-rise Staging with High-rise (Remote) access pack and hooligan tool.
The pump operator collects a BA Control board and BA tally cards for all crews, proceeds to High-rise Staging and relocates BA Control to High-rise Staging.
NOTE:-
High-rise staging will be two floors below the lowest fire floor, unless the IC decides otherwise.
SECTOR COMMANDER AND CREW WILL:-
Incident and commence fire operations.
Check the floor for signs of fire spread:-
Through service ducts around the building core and perimeter, eg garage chutes, toilet exhausts, electrical and plumbing.
Through gaps between the floor and external wall.
Up the building facade.
Through lift shafts.
The SECTOR COMMANDER sends a sitrep to the IC.

127
Q
  1. What are the four stages of USAR Task Force mobilisation.
A
  1. Alert Stage.
  2. Stand by Stage.
  3. Call out Stage.
  4. Stand Down Stage.
128
Q
  1. What does 3YE mean.
A

3 - Foam
Y - BA required / Contain
E - Consider Evacuation

129
Q
  1. What extinguishing medium is required for a Aircraft fire on Piston Engines.
A

CO2 extinguisher prevents excess engine damage.

130
Q
  1. AT a Hazmat incident, the site manager isn’t being helpful. What are you duties & powers.
A

Part 3 Div 1 S.s 16 Taking possession etc building and vessels during fire and hazardous material incidents.
Part 3 Div 1 S.s 19 General power to remove persons or obstacles.

131
Q
  1. What are the 4 common types of bulk storage tanks.
A

Type A - Non-pressure fixed roof with atmospheric vents.
Type B - Non- pressure fixed roof with internal floating decks.
Type C - Pressure - fixed roof.
Type D - Floating Roof

132
Q
  1. When should you use P2 particle masks and when not.
A

USE P2 MASKS TO PROTECT AGAINST:-
Known low concentrates of inert dust, such as those produced when cutting metal or wood.
Concrete, stone and masonry cutting operations where the work piece can be kept wet.
The particles, but not the gases such as CO, in bushfire smoke.
Contamination by body fluids.
DO NOT USE P2 MASKS TO PROTECT AGAINST:-
Gases
Mists
Elevated temperatures.
Vapours.
Atmospheres with less than 19.5% oxygen. Low oxygen levels can indicate the presence of other contaminates. Always investigate low oxygen levels.

133
Q
  1. when is incident ground health monitoring activated.
A

The communication centre will notify the Ambulance service of NSW to provide medical personnel for incident ground health monitoring for:-
Structure fire 3rd Alarm and above.
Hazmat incident 2nd Alarm and above.
Bushfire 4th Alarm and above.

134
Q
  1. What are the 4 types of Silos.
A

800 m exclusion zone around silo’s
SILO a bulk container that has all the following features:-
Where more than 4 tonnes or more than 4 cubic metres of a material is store.
Located in a fixed position.
Equipped with discharge outlets.
Capable of being emptied by gravity, mechanical or pneumatic means.
FLATBED STORAGE a single level building or other structure designed for the storage of solids in bulk of more than 40 tonnes.
VENTILATED CONTAINERS - open to the atmosphere, including silos with explosion vents that have activated.
SEALED - a container that has its openings sealed to prevent oxygen from entering the container-includes containers that are semi-sealed and oxygen-limited.

135
Q
135. What are the extinguishing methods for the following.
Silo
Flat Bed Storage
Ventilated Containers
Sealed Containers
A
SILO:- 
Water on spray
FLAT BED STORAGE:-
Unsure of Answer
VENTILATED CONTAINERS:- 
Inert gas or water on spray.
SEALED CONTAINERS:-
 Do not allow oxygen to enter
Do not use water or foam.
Hopefully with self extinguish
136
Q
  1. What are the components of a Silo
A
Auger
Vents
Discharge outlets
Belts
Chains
Electricity
137
Q
  1. What should you do if water flow to fire fighting branches is restricted by hose repair material caught inside the branch
A
  1. If you experience a loss of effective fire fighting stream during fire fighting operations and you suspect the branch has obstructed you should:-
    Set the branch to flush as this may clear small debris.
    Shut the hose line down, disconnect the branch and clear the debris. This may assist with clearing large pieces of debris.
  2. Additionally when conducting offensive fire fighting, run a second hose line as soon as practical as a precaution.
138
Q
  1. What is voltage gradient
A

Wires may fall and touch the ground, creating a voltage gradient and increasing the risk of electric shock through step and touch potential. The voltage gradient will depend on 3 things:-

  1. Composition of the ground - eg concrete, road surface, soil.
  2. Moisture content.
  3. Voltage of the electrical source.
139
Q
  1. At large incidents that require Specialist support, what are your considerations for call for support.
A

Think ahead in hours and give the Comcen as much notice as possible of the resources required.
Consider other agencies.

140
Q
  1. What does Clause 32 Security on fire duty and watch duty state.
A

A fire fighter on fire duty or watch duty at the site of a fire, Hazardous material incident or other emergency must:-
A. Ensure that:-
Any premises at the site are not entered.
Goods are not interfered with or removed from any such premises, otherwise than by persons who can establish their identity and authority to do so.
B. Report any breach of security to the officer in charge at the site.

141
Q
  1. What would you instruct a fire fighter that wants to smoke at a fire or drill, in any departmental premises or in any departmental vehicle, smoke in public place while in uniform.
A

Under Fire Brigade Regulations Part 3, Functions of a fire fighter, Clause 17 states that it is considered unacceptable behaviour.

142
Q
  1. What doe Part 3 Fighting and preventing fires and dealing with hazardous material incidents Clause 32 of the Fire Brigades Act state.
A

A. Wilfully cover up, enclose, conceal any fire hydrant so as to make it difficult to find.
B. Obliterate or remove any marking, sign or letter used to indicate the position of or distinguish a fire hydrant.

143
Q
  1. What is the definition of a medical emergency.
A

A medical access emergency is principally intended to assist ambulance officers to access a person who is considered by ASNSW or the Police Rescue Coordinator as being at risk of further serious injury or death if medical assistance is not provided quickly.

144
Q
  1. What are the 7 types of suppression systems in ships.
A
  1. Steam injections.
  2. Sprinklers.
  3. Carbon dioxide Flooding.
  4. Halon.
  5. Inert Gas Injection.
  6. Foam.
  7. Water Mains.
145
Q
  1. What should be included in a handover situation report.
A
The handover situation is provided by the IC to someone taking over command, by radio or face-to-face. It is meant to increase the new IC's situational awareness.
It should include:-
Critical Factors.
Additional Hazards.
Incident Phase.
Actions.
Resource position and function.
What needs to be done.
146
Q

Who to contact for a request for training

A

Community Safety Advisor

147
Q

Where to find MOU

A

Operational Capability / Specialised operation Site

148
Q

Definition of Bulk in Bulk Solid Storage Facilities

A

More than 4 Tonnes or more than 4 cubic metres of a substance

149
Q

Definition of Alpha Radiation

A

Extremely short range, low penetrating radiation.

Consist of heavy atomic particles

150
Q

Name the design features that can affect the decision to use horizontal ventilation

A

▪Exterior fire escapes
▪nearest exposures
▪number of floors
▪Number and size of any wall or roof openings

151
Q

Name 1 condition that occurs in a dust explosion but not a flash fire

A

The explosive chemical reaction must occur in a confined space

152
Q

Aircraft Piston engines which type presents the greatest fire risk

A

radial

153
Q

Warden and Colour Helmets

A

▪Chief - White
▪Floor - Yellow
▪Warden - Red
▪First Aid Officer - White Cross on Green background

154
Q

At a large incident according to SOG.

Who is the only person who can create, name resource, task and decommission sectors and groups.

A

Incident Commander

155
Q

You attend a fire at the top of an electrical pole as per SOG, what type of water stream should be used and what is the safe working distance.

A

A pulse spray from at least 8 metres away

156
Q

Characteristics of a AFFF stores Pressure Extinguisher

A

▪9 L
▪45 seconds
▪6 Metres

157
Q

The four key functions in managing and emergency incident.

A

▪Control
▪Operations
▪Planning
▪Logistics

158
Q

According to the Firefighter training manual, what conditions should be determined before carrying out ventilation.

A

▪Seat of the fire must be found
▪Back up crew ready to enter
▪Crews are ready to enter with charged hose lines.
▪Communications have been established.

159
Q

Vehicle Breakdowns.
When a Vehicle breaks down:
Define the ______ around the vehicle in accordance with section 8. If the vehicle is stationary in other than the kerbside lane, place the warning sign in the road lane ___ behind the vehicle.

A

Workspace

20 Metres

160
Q

Role of the Media officer

A

▪Consult with the IC to determine if the media will be given access.
▪Collate incident information
▪In consultation with the incident commander, issue information and media statements approved by the IC.
▪Keep and other stakeholders informed of media issues

161
Q

LPG cylinder fittings on a vehicle name 5

A
▪Service Valve
▪Safety Valve
▪Filler Valve
▪Contents Gauge
▪Fix Liquid Level gauge
162
Q

2 x initial RIT duties

A
  1. May be engaged in other activities outside the involved structure of hazardous area.
  2. Monitor the location and activities of the firefighters working in the hazardous area
163
Q

What are the 3 factors in firefighters assisting at incidents while off duty.

A
  1. The risk to the firefighter and other members of the team.
  2. The availability of protective clothing and equipment.
  3. The training and capability of the firefighter.
164
Q

Filling in the Blanks “BOMBS”

All FRNSW appliances should be positioned outside the _________ unless otherwise _________ by the NSW Police

A

Restricted Zone

Required

165
Q

What would you find in a fire control room features.

A
▪A fire isolated room with a 2 hour fire rating and separate Ventilation.
▪Fire Indicator Panel
▪Fire fan control panel
▪White Board
▪Tactical Plans
▪2 exit points
166
Q

Fill in the Blanks “Correctional facilities”
On arrival, the IC must advise the NSWFB ______.
If the crew is not met at the main gate, the IC must contact _______.

A

Comms

DCS Staff

167
Q

Characteristics of a Dry chemical Extinguisher

A

▪1.25 to 9 KGS
▪12 - 20 Seconds
▪2.5 & 4 metres

168
Q

What is Heat of Decomposition

A

the amount of heat to cause decomposition of a unit weight of the extinguishing medium.

169
Q

USAR deployed at the directions of who?

A

SEOCON

170
Q

On deck crew other duties?

A

Can be used to get PPE and Equipment ready to assist in a rescue.

171
Q

You are first arriving Station Commander at a fire to find smoke issuing from a single level residential house.
Which of the following actions would most assist in formally assuming Command.
1. review your incident action plan.
2. Select an Appropriate command position - Fast attack.
3. Deploy incoming resources and allocate tasks.
4. select an appropriate command position - stationary
5. name Command
6. confirm via initial radio report to Firecom that an IC is in Place.
7. Build and maintain situation awareness.

A

▪Select an appropriate command position - fast attack
▪Name Command
▪Confirm via initial radio report to Firecom that an incident commander is in place.

172
Q

3 following conditions within the main can contribute to an unsatisfactory running pressure

A

▪Encrustation
▪Tuberculation
▪Sedimentation

173
Q

You are relieving at a fire station that has numerous community fire units, due to the proximity of property along the urban interface.
You attend a drill with a community fire unit and during the drill you reinforce safety issues.

A

CFU’s are only permitted to undertake work inside their area of activity

174
Q

characteristics of B Class fires

A

Smothering or interrupting the flame chain reaction, but cooling plays a part.

175
Q

Risk Assessment before cutting any ISP’s

A

▪Is there sufficient time and resources
▪Are electrical wires of gas pipes behind the panels.
▪If multiple panels are cut, could it weaken the structure.
▪An increase in fire activity due to the introduction of air.

176
Q

Person in a vehicle with power lines on the vehicle.

most correct procedure.

A

If it is safe for them to do so , instruct the driver to drive the vehicle clear of the power lines.

177
Q

What are the 4 types of fuel tanks on aircraft.

A
  1. Rigid
  2. integral
  3. flexible
  4. Auxiliary
178
Q

the magnitude of a BLEVE depends on 3 factors.

A
  1. the size of the container
  2. the quantity of liquid which vapourises when the container fails.
  3. The weight of the pieces of the container
179
Q

According to the firefighters training manual, the main types of aircraft are.

A

▪Civil
▪Military
▪Helicopter

180
Q

Span of Control

A

1 : 5 - 7

181
Q

At a 4th alarm industrial unit fire the IC has assigned sector commanders, a safety officer with 4 pumps initially in staging.
The IC after requested an extra 6 firefighters and a staging commander from staging, but there was only 1 pump in staging.
Why was this error not identified?

A

The staging officer has failed to inform that the resources in staging were running low.

182
Q

Fighting Celloid fires dangerous fumes

A

▪They can explode if they collect in a confined space and then are exposed to air.
▪They can travel away from the fire and cause a remote explosion.
▪They are Flammable in themselves.
▪They are heavier than air.
▪They contain Carbon Monoxide, Nitrous Oxide and Hydrogen Cyanide.

183
Q

What Extinguishing medium is required for aircraft fire on piston engines.

A

CO2

184
Q

Incident Ground rehabilitation work / rest Cycles

A

▪Depletion of 2 BA cylinders

▪40 minutes of intense work without SCBA

185
Q

Purpose of Hydrant Inspections.

A

▪Ensure that hydrants work when needed
▪Notify water authorities of problems with hydrants
▪Familiarise crews with hydrants in their area.

186
Q

The Following actions to signal a train to make an emergency stop.

A

▪During daylight hours wave both arms or a coloured cloth vigorously.
▪During night hours wave a light vigorously.

187
Q

According to SOG the principles for developing an effective incident structure include.

A

▪The incident structure must be flexible and scalable.
▪When in a stationary command position, the IC should document the incident structure in the IAP.
▪For fast attack IC, The incident structure in unwritten.

188
Q

Who do you contact if you find a fault in a FIP.

A

Fire safety Division.

189
Q

A fire in a sealed silo potentially very dangerous to prevent explosions.

A

▪Do not allow oxygen to enter the silo.
▪do not use water or foam to fight the fire.
▪Do not open the top hatch to apply water or foam.
▪Do not close open hatches if there is smoke or steam coming from them.

190
Q

According to the SOG on arrival at a high rise structure fire, the Hazmat officer will become the BA commander what are his duties.

A

▪Manage contaminated water run off.
▪monitor Smoke plumes.
▪Provide reserve BA cylinders for servicing and regeneration EDBA and SCBA.

191
Q

CFU activities during bushfires.

A

▪Prior to the arrival of the fire front- Prepare their properties and extinguish spot fires in their area.
▪As the fire front approaches - take shelter until the fire front has safely passed.
▪Once the fire front has passed - assist with mop up and recovery in their area of activity.

192
Q

Safety Officer 2 X roles

A

▪Assist the IC to complete the operation risk assessment and the risk assessment worksheet.
▪maintain awareness of the incident communication plan and incident action plan.

193
Q

What are the disadvantages in using water on ship fires.

A
▪It is likely to damage cargo
▪It may react dangerously with cargo
▪It can affect a ships stability
▪It presents a danger of flooding
▪NSWFB equipment may not fit ship board connections.
194
Q

Characteristics of a wet chemical extinguisher

A

▪ 7 L
▪90 seconds
▪5 metres

195
Q

hand signal to increase water pressure.

A

A short repeated upward movement of the hand and arm with the palm of the hand facing upwards.

196
Q

Fill in the Blanks “ Flatbed Storage”

A ___ level building or other structure designed for the storage of ___ in bulk of more than ___ tonnes.

A

▪Single
▪Solid
▪40 Tonne

197
Q

Characteristics of a carbon dioxide extinguisher

A

▪ 3.5 to 5.5 kg
▪ 25 - 35 seconds
▪ 2.5 metres

198
Q

Uniforms may be worn by a firefighter in accordance with the?

A

Commissioners Orders

199
Q

Dry Riser Systems

A

If a dry riser is identified, notify the NSWFB safety division, to initiate a possible upgrade.

200
Q

What is Latent heat of Vaporisation

A

The amount of heat required to Vaporise a unit weight of the extinguishing medium

201
Q

Characteristics of a stored pressure water extinguisher

A

▪ 9 L
▪60 seconds
▪ 9 Metres

202
Q

Water is the most commonly used medium of fire extinguishment it is x 3

A

▪Abundant
▪Cheap
▪Effective

203
Q

Where not to direct a jet stream

A

▪ Straight over head
▪Onto loose matter such as hot ashes, slag or molten metal
▪On Flammable powders or areas with large concentrations of dust
▪Onto live electrical equipment

204
Q

The Priority
the First priority is —
The Second Priority is —–
The third priority is —–

A

▪The safety of firefighters
▪Protecting savable Lives
▪Protecting savable property

205
Q

At a response to a high rise office block during business hours an occupant pressed the break glass alarm.
There was a minor fire which was extinguished and there is an FIP that didn’t go into alarm.
But the EWIS is activating, the crew reports that people are still on the upper levels.
WHAT WENT WRONG?

A

You didn’t use the EWIS PA to evacuate the occupants

206
Q

Which of the following are principles of situation evaluation in incident management.
▪The incident commander can only deal with 4 - 8 critical factors at any one time.
▪The IAP must not change as the incident evolves
▪Critical factors must be communicated to FireCom
▪Critical factors need to be processed into the IAP

A

▪Critical factors must be communicated to FireCom

▪Critical factors need to be processed into the IAP