learning from mistakes Flashcards

1
Q

Interaction with Allopurinol

can allopurinol be used in renal imapirment?

A

azathioprine(increased effect of azathioprine)

Yes!

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2
Q

AID- risk of pneumonia- what med is used for prophylaxis

A

Co-trimoxazole

Atovaquone is C/I

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3
Q

fludrocortisone electrolyte disctubance

what to avoid with

A

hypokalaemia

methadone- risk of QT/Torsades de pointes

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4
Q

colestyramine timins with food

A

1 hour before 4 hour after

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5
Q

GTN tabs - how long do they provide symptomatic relief?

A

30 min

NO COTTON WOOL

DISCARD AFTER 8 WEEKS

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6
Q

H pylori Tx

A

clarithromycin
Amoxicillin
PPI

if Pen allergic- metronidazole.

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7
Q

Loperamide- max tabs/day

A

8 Tabs/day (16mg)

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8
Q

Colchicine max G/ course

Time between courses

A

6g

3 days between acute courses

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9
Q

perindopril dose timing

A

30-60 min before food

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10
Q

bendroflumethiazide SE

A
  • hypokalaemia
  • hyperglycaemia
  • hypercalcaemia
  • herperuricaemia
  • hyponatraemia
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11
Q

high intensity statin

A

Atorva 20 -YES

Simva 40- NO

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12
Q

metronidazole gel + warfarin

A

Increased INR

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13
Q

Aminophylline- effect on potassium

A

HYPOKALAEMIA

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14
Q

Prostaglandin analogues- counselling

A

Brown pigmentation

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15
Q

Filgrastim- indication

A

NEUTROPENIA

Commonly used in chemo as it increases production of neutrophils

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16
Q

pregnancy- which vit is advised to take at a dose of 10mcg/day

A

D

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17
Q

why do we need vit D

A

To absorb calcium

in renal impairment- use activated form (calcitrol)

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18
Q

levothyroxine dose timing

A

morning, 30 min before breaky/ caffeine.

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19
Q

what is Oligouria

A

low vol urine

symptom of AKI

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20
Q

Linezolid- monitoring

A

OPTIC NEUROPATHY(visual disturbance)

FBC

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21
Q

Risk of long term trimethoprim

A

blood disorders

watch out for mouth ulcers etc

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22
Q

isotretinoins- avoid which vitamin

A

VIT A

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23
Q

first line tx for chronic stable plaque psoriasis

24
Q

why are ACE- I cautioned in diabetes

A

lower glucose

25
lethal comp of anaesthesia
malignant hyperthermia
26
chemo- highly emetogenic
cisplatin | cyclophosphamide
27
least emetogenic
vincristine
28
vincristine SE
hair loss
29
clindamycin- diarrhoea
stop | antibiotic associated colitis
30
macrolides- nausea
normal
31
MHRA Quinine
QT
32
isotretinoin- giving blood
avoid | and for 1 month after
33
threadworms- effect on children
Bed wetting waking at night
34
antipsychotic weight gain
olanzapine clozapine quetiapine
35
dithranol (for psoriasis)
staining
36
CD -patient returns
denature prior to disposal authorised witness not required.
37
purpuric skin rash- which AED
phenytoin
38
HF- Diuretic
NOT K sparing furosemide best
39
growth hormones schedual
CD 4 part 2
40
baclofen ( should they be taken with ACE/B-Blocker?)
NO | Increases hypotensive effect
41
Ganciclovir. when C/I
Low neut count
42
bromocriptine (suppression of lactation)- risk when started
hypotensive reaction
43
febuxostat
tx of gout prophylaxis and acute episodes SJS
44
what schedual is midazolam
3
45
methotrexate and trimethoprim
avoid
46
what is in malarone? when to take
proguanil/atovaquone 1-2 days before during 1 week after
47
lithium- how oftern to monitor LFTs
every 6 months
48
sodium valproate
hepatotoxicity | pancreatitis.
49
which drugs carry as risk of gingival hyperplasia?
ciclosporin phenytoin nifedipine
50
which drugs increase saliva production
clozapine | neostigmine (anticholinesterase)
51
which affect can phenobarb have on an infants
inhibits sucking reflex
52
lorazepam schedual
cd4 | Lorazepam
53
antimilarial to avoid in renal impairment
proguanil
54
reversal agent for heparin toxicity
protamine sulphate
55
which anti-diabetic should NOT be stopped during surgery
SGLT2- risk of DKA
56
is a date legal req for a CD requisition
no
57
sumatriptan and ssris- whats the risk
serotonin syndrome