Learning Objectives Flashcards

(188 cards)

1
Q

What are hypertrophic and keloid scars and what is the difference?

A

Hypertrophic - exaggerated normal remodelling response, within wound margins, improves over time and responds to steroids and pressure

Keloid - extends beyong wound margins and progresses over time, more common with darker skin, less responsive to steroids and pressure

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2
Q

What are the management options for dupuytrens contracture?

A

Nothing

Limited Fasciectomy

Radical Fasciectomy

Fasciotomy

Amputation

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3
Q

What are some causes of dupuytrens contracture?

A

Alcohol

Congenital

Work

Epileptic drugs

Diabetes

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4
Q

What are the main differential diagnoses for dysphagia?

A

Oesophageal cancer

Achalasia

Oesophageal Stricture

Stroke

Parkinsons

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5
Q

What are the investigations for dysphagia?

A

Video swallow

Gastroscopy

Barium swallow

CT

Manometry

Endoscopic US

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6
Q

What is the management for some differentials for dysphagia (pharyngeal pouch, oesopahgeal cancer, stricture, hiatus hernia, achalasia)?

A

Pharyngela Pouch - surgical repair

Cancer - surgery, adjuvant therapy

Stricture - surgical dilation, PPI, fundoplication

Hiatus Hernia - laporascopic repair

Achalasia - divide LOS, dilation

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7
Q

What is the pathophysiology of aortic dissection?

A

Tear in the aortic intima - more commonly ascending aorta - leads to blood tracking between the intima and the media

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8
Q

What are 5 risk factors associated with aortic dissection?

A

Hypertension

Aortic Aneurysm

Atherosclerosis

Male/increasing age

Collagen disorder - marfans, ehlers danlos

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9
Q

What is the presentation of an aortic dissection?

A

Tearing pain radiating to the back +/- syncope

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10
Q

What are the investigations and management for aortic dissection?

A

Investigations - BP different in each arm, D-dimer, CT

Management - analgesia, antihypertensives, beta blockers, surgery

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11
Q

What is the pathophysiology and presentation of Marfan syndrome?

A

Pathophys - defect in fibrillin 1 gene, autosomal dominant, trouble producing elastin

Presentation - long bone excess growth, mitral valve prolapse, aortic regurg, joints lax, pectus carinatum (pigeon chest), scoliosis

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12
Q

What is the investigation and management for Marfan syndrome?

A

Investigation - genetic testing, echo

Management - surgery, observation

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13
Q

What are the common sites of berry aneurysm?

A

Posterior communicating and anteroir communicating arteires - branch points where vessels are weakest and are anastomosing

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14
Q

What is a complication of berry aneurysm rupture and what is the treatment?

A

SAH - vasospasm few days later due to breakdown of blood products - treat with papaverine (vasodilation)

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15
Q

What is thrombophilia and what may cause it?

A

Increased tendency of the blood to clot

Causes

  • Factor V leiden
  • Prothrombin mutation
  • Protein C, S, antithrombin deficiency
  • Antiphospholipid syndrome
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16
Q

What are the most common presentations of thrombophilia?

A

DVT

PE

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17
Q

What is the pathophysiology of vasculitis?

A

Inflammatory leucocytes in vein walls causing reactive damage and loss of vessel integrity - bleeding and downstream tissue ischaemia and necrosis

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18
Q

What are the risk factors for vasculitis?

A

Smoking

HTN

Hypercholesterolaemia

Infection

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19
Q

What is the pharmacological management for vasculitis?

A

Methotrexate

Prednisolone

Cyclophosphamide

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20
Q

What are the classifications of vasculitis?

A

Large vessel

  • Giant cell
  • Takayasu

Medium vessel

  • Polyarteritis
  • Kawasaki

Small vessel

  • ANCA
  • Immune complex
    • Good pastures
    • IgA vasculitis
  • Autoimmune - SLE
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21
Q

What are the normal ranges of ABGs?

A

pH= 7.35-7.45

PaCO2= 35-45mmHg

PaO2=100 (>85)mmHg

HCO3= 22-30

SaO2 95-100%

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22
Q

What is the acute management for raised ICP?

A

Maintain ICP at less than 20-25mmHg (dexamethasone, mannitol)

Avoid aggravating factors: obstruction of venous return (head position, agitation), respiratory problems (airway obstruction, hypoxia, hypercapnia), fever, sever hypertension, hyponatremia, anaemia, seizures

Sedation

Drainage of CSF

Osmotherapy with mannitol or hypertonic saline

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23
Q

What are the risk factors for dementia?

A

Age

ApoE4 mutation

Head trauma

Smoking

Education

Vascular disease

Diabetes

Lewy body disease

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24
Q

What are the featrues of Alzheimers?

A

Memory loss

Loss of social and occupational functioning

Diminished executive function

Speech and motor deficits

Personality change

Behaviour and psychological disturbance

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25
What is the treatment for an ischaemic stroke?
Thrombolysis (tPA - ateplase) within 4 hours of symptom onset Aspirin Fibrinolytic therapy Antiplatelet Mechanical thrombectomy - clot retrieval
26
What are the causative agents of meningitis and their CSF features?
27
What are the signs and symptoms of meningitis?
Headache Rash Neck stiffness Photophobia Nausea and vomiting Fever
28
What is required for diagnosis of MS?
More than one episode of demyelination or evidence of more than one lesion on MRI
29
What may be the first presentation of MS?
White middle aged woman - temporary visual or sensory loss (optic neuritis)
30
What are the common causes of abdominal distension?
Flatus Faeces Foetus Fluid Fat Fing big tumour
31
What is the investigation for bowel obstruction?
CXR - free fluid under the diaphragm Supine AXR - dilated loops of bowel Erect AXR - air fluid levels (\>3 is abnormal)
32
What antigen is raised in colorectal cancer?
CEA - only of use if it is high on diagnosis to look at after treatment to see value dropping (may also be elevated normally in smokers)
33
What are the major risks of scope procedures and what anaesthetic method is used?
Perforation and haemorrhage Sedation - propofol
34
What is a Hartmanns procedure?
Sigmoidectomy without anastomoses (colostomy bag) --\> can come back after ~3 months and assess for rejoining (can bring out a temporary ileostomy to reduce stress on recently joined anastomoses)
35
Patient presents with eye pain worse with movement and colour vision is dulled and there may be loss of vision. What is the likely pathology and how can this be tested?
Optic neuritis Swinging light test - afferent pupillary defect
36
What are the causes of a hydrocoele?
Primary - idiopathic (bilateral) Secondary - cancer, mumps, epidiymal orchitis, trauma
37
What are the tumour markers for testicular cancer?
LDH Beta-hcg alpha-fetoprotein
38
Where do the testicular lymph nodes drain?
Paraaortic nodes
39
What are some signs and symptoms for SBO?
Nausea and vomiting (fecalant material) No flatus Absolute constipation Abdominal distension
40
What are the management steps for a SBO?
Fluid resuscitation NGT Surveillance - most resolve within 48 hours Nutritional support Surgery - division of adhesions
41
What are some causes of spinal cord compression?
Tumour Abscess Degeneration - disc prolapse, OP, spondylosis, canal stenosis Infection Haematoma Developmental - syrinx (fluid filled cavity in spinal cord), cyst
42
What are the red flags of back pain?
Hx of cancer Sciatica Pain at rest Pain not relieved by analgesia Fatigue, night sweats, loss of weight/appetite Age \< 20 or \> 50 Glucocorticoid use IVDU Rapid progression \> 1 month duration
43
What is the cause of cervical myelopathy and how does a patient present?
Cause is usually cervical vertebrae degeneration and canal stenosis in the elderly LMN signs in upper limbs and UMN signs in lower limbs with neck pain
44
What may be the presenting complaints of a patient experiencing cauda equina compression?
Urinary retention/trouble initiating urination or incontinence Constipation and faecal incontinence
45
Where is a spinal malignancy most commonly found?
Thoracolumbar region - dual blood supply
46
Where is a spinal abscess usually found and how does one present?
Thoracolumbar region - dual blood supply Pain, neurological deficit, fever, diaphoresis, fatigue
47
What are the presenting symptoms of perianal disease?
PR bleeding Pain Anal lumps/swellings Itch Discharge
48
What are some PAINFUL perianal conditions?
Anal fissure Haemorrhoids (strangulated) Haematoma Abscess Anal cancer Proctalgia fugax
49
What are some PAINLESS perianal conditions?
Fistula Skin tags Haemorrhoids (1st, 2nd, 3rd degree) Low rectal cancer Rectal prolapse Polyps Warts Pruritis ani
50
What are the investigations for perianal pathology?
DRE (contraindicated with pain) Sigmoidioscopu Proctoscopy
51
What are the management options for an anal fissure?
Topical analgesia Stool softener (Coloxyl + Senna) Sitz bath Rectogesic ointment - GTN (vasodilation to promote healing) Nifedipine Botox injection to intersphincteric space Lateral sphincterotomty * More indicated in males * May lead to flatus incontinence, especially in females Fissurectomy
52
What are the management options for perianal abscess?
Drainage Antibiotics (Surgery)
53
What are the management options for haemorrhoids?
1st (internal) - High fibre diet (reduce constipation), injection sclerotherapy, phenol in almond oil 2nd (protrude on defecation) - Diet modification, rubber band ligation 3rd (usually protruding) - Haemorrhoidectomy 4th (strangulated, painful) - Analgesia and surgery
54
What are the management options for anal warts?
Improve hygeine HPV vaccine Local excision (Chemoirradiation therapy)
55
What are the management options for pruritis ani?
Topical steroid Antifungal Oral antihistamine Avoid excessive wiping Excise skin tags
56
What are the management options for low rectal cancer?
Radiotherapy Chemotherapy Surgical removal * Low anterior resection (high risk of faecal incontinence) * Abdomino-perineal excision - removal of rectum and anus, permanent stoma
57
What are the management options for anal cancer?
Radiotherapy Chemotherapy Abdominoperineal resection - permanent stoma
58
What is this pathology, the presentation and management?
Orbital Cellulitis Painful red eye, fever, malaise Surgical drainage and IV antibiotics
59
What is this pathology and what is the presentation and management?
Pterygium Impaired ocular appearance, vision loss Treat with topical lubricants and surgery
60
What is this pathology and what is the management?
Subconjunctival haemorrhage Self resolving
61
What is this pathology, the presentation and management?
Scleritis Aching pain, impaird vision Urgent referral to opthalmologist
62
What is this pathology and the management?
Foreign body Removal via surgery
63
What is this pathology and the management?
Hyphaema Usually occurs due to blunt trauma Treat with topical steroids and cycloplegics
64
What is this pathology, the presentation and management?
Acute angle closure glaucoma Painful unilateral red eye, worsening vision, sudden onset Acetaxolamide, beta blocker, steroids, laser
65
Patient presents with flashes of light and blurred vision, what is the pathology?
Retinal detachment
66
What is this pathology and the management?
Keratoconus Need hard contact lenses or corneal transplant
67
Patient presents with dull colour vision, blurred vision and glare, what is the likely pathology?
Cataract Need lens transplant
68
Patient presents with sudden painless unilateral vision loss and this fundoscopy view, what is the pathology?
Central retinal artery occlusion
69
Patient presents with sudden painless unilateral vision loss and this fundoscopy view, what is the pathology?
Central retinal vein occlusion
70
Patient presents with rapid decrease in central vision, metamorphosphia and central scotoma, what is the pathology and treatment?
Wet macular degeneration - anti-VEGF injections every 4-6 weeks for life
71
Patient presents with a gradual decrease in central vision and central scotoma, what is the pathology and treatment?
Dry macular degeneration - vitamin supplementation
72
What are the common benign breast conditions and their presentations?
Fibrocystic - scar tissue, rubbery and firm Fibroadenoma - small lumps Mastitis - breast enlarged due to infection (more common when breastfeeding) - staph aureus - manage with flucloxacillin Fat Necrosis - lumps when areas of fatty breast tissue are damaged Calcification - non painful, non palpable
73
What are the pros and cons of investigations for breast disease (mammogram, US, FNA, core biopsy)
Mammogram: early screening to pick up small cancers, lots of lesions picked up that may have never been a problem, radiation exposure US: doesn't pick up all calcification, non-invasive FNA: can work out nature of lesion, quick and simple, brusing bleeding and infection, seeding risk (displace tumour cells) Core Needle Biopsy - tissue type lesion, haematoma, not always feasible for lesion in tricky spot
74
What is key for home breast examinations?
Better to examine breasts after a period - hormone levels are low and breasts should be at their 'normal' Look for even shaping and colour Nipple changes, redness, rash, swelling, dimpling of skin --\> consult doctor Roll over breast while lying down to feel for lumps
75
What are the most common type of renal stones and what are the risk factors?
Calcium Oxalate Risks: dehydration, high sodium diet, fam hx, climate, anatomical abnormalities
76
What are the causes of kidney stone formation?
Hypercalcaemia - primary HPT, immobile, cancer, sarcoidosis Uric Acid Lithiasis - gout, idiopathic, low urine output Metabolic - cystinuria Secondary Urolithiasis - infection, obstruction
77
What is the typical presentation with renal calculi?
Pain Haematuria Infection (fever)
78
What is the typical presentation with ureteric calculi?
Sudden onset of severe flank pain which may radiate to groin
79
What is the investigation for acute stone episodes?
FBE, U&E, creatinine Serum calcium and uric acid CMP MSU CT-KUB
80
What are the management options for kidney stones?
Pain relief Hydration Expulsive therapy - alpha blockers (relax ureter wall) Lithotripsy - shock waves to break down stones Nephrolithotomy - remove stone through kidney cortex Endoscopic surgery
81
What is the presentation for obstructive pyonephrosis and what is the management?
Presentation - flank pain, unwell, febrile, urinary symptoms, sepsis Management - IVABx, decompression, fluids
82
What are some strategies to prevent renal strone recurrence?
Hydration Reduce dietary salt Urinary alkalinisation Thiazide diuretics/allopurinol
83
What are some causes of haematuria?
Renal - glomerulonephritis, cancer, trauma, calculus, infection Ureter - TCC (transitional cell carcinoma), calculus Bladder - TCC, cystitis (MOST COMMON CAUSE), calculus, trauma Prostate - BPH, carcinoma, prostatitis Urethra - structure, urethritis, trauma, carcinoma
84
What are some investigations for haematuria?
Urine * Micro * RBC * Morphology * Glomerular (upper tract bleeding - red cells look misshapen)/non-glomerular (red cells look untouched) * Protein/casts (suggestive of renal parenchymal problem) * Cytology * Culture Imaging * US urinary tract * CT urogram (not in people who can't tolerate contrast) Endoscopy * Cystoscopy (retrograde pyelogram) * Ureteropyeloscopy (+/- biopsy)
85
What are some differentials for headache and their features?
Tension - late in day, occipitalis and frontalis muscle spasm Migraine - photophobia, scintillating scotoma, aura Meningitis - fever, neck stiffness Encephalitis Subdural Hematoma - elderly, alcoholics, anticoagulants Tumour - morning headaches, seizures, neurological deficits Trauma Temporal Arteritis - unilateral, usually \> 50, visual disturbance, jaw claudication, scalp tenderness Aneurysm (strong association b/w berry aneurysms and adult polycystic kidney disease - autosomal dominant - bicuspid aortic valve with aortic coarctation) Sinusitis Cluster headache Glaucoma - unilateral, visual disturbance
86
What are common investigations used to diagnose SAH?
CT - within 12-24 hours, may be normal LP - looking for bloodstained CSF that doesn't clear on 3 consecutive samples Cerebral angiography
87
What is the early management for SAH?
Observation - BP, RR, HR (watching for coning and cushings triad - bradycardia, hypertenson and irregular resp rate) Analgesia (avoid opioids) Surgica Clipping Endovascular coil embolization
88
What are some complications of SAH?
Vasospasm Acute hydrocephalus Rebleeding
89
What is normal ICP?
7-15mmHg (supine)
90
What are the signs of malignancy on mammogram and US for breast disease?
Mammogram - spiculated mass, irregular borders, microcalcification US - hypoechoic, poster acoustic shadowing, taller than wide
91
What arethe prognostic and predictive features of breast carcinoma?
Prognostic * Size * Histology (ductal, lobular) * Grade * Margins * Lymph invasion Predictive * PR and ER status (positive in low grade) * HER2 status (positive in high grade)
92
What are the common causes of upper GI bleeding?
Peptic ulcer disease Gastristis Oesophageal varices Mallory weiss tear
93
What are haematemesis and melena?
Hematemesis - bleeding in upper GIT, leading to vomiting of fresh blood Melena - black stool due to processing of blood from upper GIT - proximal to ileocaecal valve
94
When is bleeding haemodynamically significant?
Blood loss \> 500mL Resting tachycardia, HR \> 100bpm Systolic BP \< 100mmHg Orthostatic Hypotension - pulse increase of \> 20 bpm OR systolic pressure decrease of \> 20 mmHg
95
What are the risk factors, pathogenesis and clinical features, investigation and principles of management of adenocarcinoma?
Risks - older adult smokers, women, non-smokers Pathogenesis - outer lung, EGFR/ALK mutations, most common non-small cell Clinical - chest pain, haemoptysis, cough, B symptoms, SOB Investigations - Hb, LFT, CXR, PET, sputum, bronchoscopy, FNA, tissue biopsy
96
What are the risk factors, pathogenesis and clinical features, investigation and principles of management of large cell carcinoma?
Risks - smoking Pathogenesis - rapid growth, not common, any part of lung Clinical - chest pain, SOB, cough, haemoptysis, B symptoms Investigations - Hb, LFT, CXR, PET, sputum, bronchoscopy, FNA, tissue biopsy Management - chemo, radiation, surgery
97
What are the risk factors, pathogenesis and clinical features, investigation and principles of management of small cell carcinoma?
Risks - adult smokers Pathogenesis - most aggressive lung cancer, near bronchi, obstruction or distant mets on presentation Clinical - cough, SOB, chest pain, haemoptysis, ADH syndrome, cyshingoid (hormone secretion), B symptoms Investigations - Hb, LFT, CXR, PET, sputum, bronchoscopy, FNA, tissue biopsy Management - chemotherapy (rapid response)
98
What are the risk factors, pathogenesis and clinical features, investigation and principles of management of squamous cell carcinoma?
Risks - men, smokers Pathogenesis - cells lining airways, central Clinical - chest pain, SOB, haemoptysis, B symptoms, cough Investigations - Hb, LFT, CXR, PET, sputum, bronchoscopy, FNA, tissue biopsy Management - surgery, chemotherapy, radiation
99
What are the patterns of injury following FOOSH and the best imaging for these?
Colles Fracture - distal radius, dinner fork deformity, AP and lateral wrist X-rays, extraarticular fracture, risk of median nerve damage Smith Fracture - distal radius, palmar angulation (reverse colles), oblique wrist x-ray Scaphoid fracture - risk of avascular necrosis of proximal scaphoid, image scaphoid (fat pad sign, terry thomas sign - scapholunate ligament disruption), CT may be better
100
What is the appropriate management for septic arthritis?
Joint washout ## Footnote GP - vancomycin, clindamycin, cephalosporin, joint aspiration GN - 3rd gen cephalosporin, joint aspiration, IV ciprofloxacin, gentamicin MSSA - IV flucloxacillin then oral flucloxacillin (4 weeks) MRSA - IV vancomycin, joint aspiration then oral clindamycin
101
What are the risk factors, presentation, investigations and treatment for epididymitis?
Risks - STI (chlamydia), e.coli, mumps, elderly, diabetic, immunosupressed Presentation - pain, urethritis (discharge), dysuria, haematuria, unilateral swollen scrotum Investigation - MSU, US Treatment - analgesia, empiric Abx (trimethoprim, cephalexin, augmentin), epididimectomy
102
What are the risk factors, presentation, investigations and treatment for hydrocele?
Risks - idiopathic (bilateral), cancer, mumps, epididymal orchitis, trauma Presentation - swollen scrotum Investigations - US, tumour markers Management - radical orchidectomy, PET, jabalay (evert tunica vaginalis)
103
What are the risk factors, presentation, investigations and treatment for varicocele?
Presentation - 'worms' left side when standing, pain Management - surgical tie off of cremaster veins
104
What are the risk factors, presentation, investigations and treatment for fourniers gangrene?
Risks - infection of scrotum - necrotising fasciitis Presentation - unilateral black scrotum Management - debridement, graft, reimplant testes (fatal if left alone)
105
What are the risk factors, presentation, investigations and treatment for testicular cancer?
Risk - 20-34, caucasion, trauma, hormones, atrophy, undescended testes Presentation - painless lump, hydrocele, scrotal swelling (seminoma most common) Investigation - US, tumour markers, CT, PET Treatment - radical orchidectomy, BEP chemo (bleomycin, etoposide, cisplatin), radiotherapy (best for seminoma), lymph node dissection
106
What are the risk factors, presentation, investigations and treatment for lymphoma?
Presntation - unilateral testicular swelling, B symptoms Investigations - US (hypoechoic lesion) Management - orchiectomy, chemotherapy
107
What is the cause, drainaing site and treatment for penile cancer?
Squamous cell carcinoma Drains to inguinal nodes Penectomy (amputation) or radiotherapy
108
What are the risk factors, presentation, investigations and treatment for testicular torsion?
Risk - \< 25, neonate, trauma, undescended testi, cold weather Presentation - acute severe pain, swelling, trauma, nausea and vomiting Investigations - tender firm testicle, absent cremasteric reflex, urinalysis, US, doppler Treatment - fixation, dartos pouch
109
What is myocarditis, how does a patient present and what is the treatment?
Myocardial inflammation due to viral infection - influenza, coxsackie, parvovirus, CMV, adenovirus, rubella, enterovirus, HCV Presentation - chest pain, fatigue, arthralgia, peripheral oedema Treatment - abx, steroids, diuretics, low salt diet, pacemaker
110
What is shock, why does it occur, how does it present and what is the management?
Inadequate organ perfusion nd oxygenation due to imbalance between supply and demand Causes * Cardiogenic (MI, arrhythmia, aortic stenosis, mitral regurg) * Hypovolemic (haemorrhage, vomiting, diarrhoea, burns, dehydration) * Obstructive (PE, tension pneumothorax, tamponade) * Distributive (septic, anaphylactic, neurogenic) Presentation - tachycardia, tachypnoea, hypotension, cold clammy skin, confusion, anxiety, low urine output, cyanosis, LOC Management - DRSABCD, volume resus, vasopressors, rectify cause
111
What are some causes of sudden cardiac death?
Coronary heart disease Congenital heart conditions Cardiomyopathy Valve disease Arrhythmia - VF, VT, asystole, PEA Previous MI Trauma Drugs Long QT (greater than half the RR interval) - thiazide, macrolides, methadone, haloperidol, antihistamines Cocaine Aortic dissection
112
What are the types of cardiomyopathy and what is the most common?
**Dilated** Hypertrophic Restrictive Arrhythmogenic
113
What are some of the signs of chronic liver disease?
Spider naevi: central arteriole with radiating small vessels, blanches, \>2 is abnormal, normally in SVC distribution Splenomegaly Jaundice: high bilirubin, sign of decompensation, can have isolated jaundice and high bilirubin (Gilberts, haemolytic disease (haemolysis)) Ascites: abdominal free fluid due to reduced oncotic pressure (low albumin production) and increased portal pressure Caput Medusa: portal hypertension leading to umbilical anastomoses dilating Clubbing: increased soft tissue of distal fingers and toes - maybe due to arterial hypoxaemia due to pulmonary AV shunt Leuconychia: white flecks in the nail bed - due to low albumin or compression of capillary flow Palmar Erythema: excessive oestrogens altering microvasculature Dupuytrens Contracture: chronic liver disease (alcohol), manual labour, anti-epileptics, diabetes Parotidomegaly: associated with alcoholism (fatty infiltrate due to alcohol toxicity and malnutrition) Gynaecomastia: excessive oestrogen, spironolactone medication (K sparing diuretic) Bruising: reduced production of clotting factors and platelets (thrombocytopenia) Coagulopathy: reduced clotting factors, thrombocytopenia
114
What are some of the investigation findings associated with chronic liver disease?
LFT * Low albumin * Raised bilirubin * AST \> ALT (cirrhosis) Coagulopathy * Prolonged INR (1.2-1.3) * Low platelets (\<200) - possible portal HTN, folate or B12 deficiency, IPT Ultrasound * Cirrhotic shrunken liver Fibro-scan * Assess liver stiffness (\> 13kPa)
115
What is decompensated liver disease?
Decompensated alcohol related liver disease occurs when there is a deterioration in liverfunction in a patient with cirrhosis, which presents with jaundice, coagulopathy, ascites, and hepatic encephalopathy.
116
What are some causes of liver failure?
Autoimmune hepatitis Primary biliary cirrhosis (autoimmune, women) Primary sclerosing cholangitis (associated with IBD) Haemochromatosis Wilsons Disease - excess copper deposition in liver NASH Budd-chiari - hepatic venous outflow obstruction HCC (hep B)
117
What are the key functions of the liver?
Synthesis of clotting factors (not factor 8 - produced in liver sinusoidal cells and endothelial cells outside of liver and circulates bound to Von Willebrand factor until an injury occurs) Glucose homeostasis - gluconeogenesis, glycogen storage Albumin synthesis Conjugation and clearance of bilirubin Ammonia metabolism and urea cycle Drug metabolism and clearance Immune - dealing with gut bacteria and products
118
What things increase the risk of breast cancer?
Early menarche Late menopause Nulliparus No breastfeeding Obesity Genetics
119
What are the fertility issues with breast cancer treatment?
Premature ovarian failure or amenorrhoea with chemotherapy - need to consider fertility preservation
120
What endocrine therapy is available for breast cancer?
Tamoxifen (PR, ER) Herceptin (HER2+ve)
121
What are the issues with surgical management of breast cancer?
Breast conservation surgery - risk of incomplete clearance Consider double mastectomy and prophylactic oopherectomy Lymph node clearance leading to lymphedema - chronic pain and loss of function
122
What are the types of anaemia and their causes?
Microcytic (\<80 MCV) * **T**halassemia * **A**naemia of chronic disease * **I**ron deficiency (NSAIDs, stomach ulcer, colitis, piles, bowel cancer, menorrhagia, veganism, pregnancy, low iron diet) * **L**ead poisoning * **S**ideroblastic Normocytic (80-100 MCV) * **A**cute blood loss * **B**one marrow failure * **C**hronic disease (malignancy, rheumatological, coeliac) * **D**estruction - haemolysis * **E**PO low (chronic renal failure) Macrocytic (\>100 MCV) * **B**12/Folate low * **A**lcoholism * **L**iver failure * **D**rugs (phenytoin) * **H**ypothyroid * **A**plastic (radiation, benzenes) * **I**ncreased * **R**eticulocytes
123
What is the pathology of pagets disease?
Disease that causes bones to grow too large and weak – usually in spine, pelvis, skull or leg - abnormal osteoclast activation
124
What is the pathology of avascular necrosis?
Cellular death of components of bone due to impaired blood supply – usually occurs at epiphysis of long bones, femoral head, femoral condyles, humeral head, scaphoid, talus
125
What is the pathology of osteomyelitis?
Infection of the bone/bone marrow usually via bacterial access to blood - Pyogenic bacteria most common Can be isolated bacteraemia or associated with systemic sepsis
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What is the pathology of septic arthritis?
Infection of a joint * Staph aureus * Strep pyogenes * Haemophilus influenzae * Knee most common site
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What is the pathology of a lipoma?
Benign tumour composed of adipose tissue – most commonly occurring on trunk or proximal limbs
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What is the pathology of an osteosarcoma?
Malignant mesenchymal tumour in which the tumour cells produce bone
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What are some non-infective causes of fever?
Tumour - lymphoma, RCC, hepatoma, metastatic malignancy Drugs (beta lactams, sulfonamides, quinidine, hydralazine, allopurinol, bleomycin, phenytoin, barbiturates) Vasculitis (temporal arteritis) SLE Rheumatic fever Sarcoidosis IBS Thromboembolic disease Hyperthyroidism Gout Febrile neutropenia - chemotherapy, immunosuppression
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What are the causes of post op fever?
Wind * Pneumonia * PE (day 5 post op) * Atelectasis (early) * More common in upper abdo surgery where breathing is more difficult due to pain * Treatment - chest physio, antibiotics, CXR Water * UTI * Catheter * Alcohol withdrawal Walking * DVT * Acute gout Wonder Drugs * Antimicrobials * Heparin Wound * Sutures * Cannula * Injection sites * Pressure ulcers
131
What are the main causes of lower urinary tract symptoms in men?
E.coli, klebsiella, proteus, providencia IDC Retention Vesicouterine reflux Renal tract obstruction - BPH, stones, stricture Previous UTI \>50 Instrumentation of renal tract
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What are the main causes of lower urinary tract symptoms in women?
E.coli, staph saphrophyticus Intercourse Poor hygiene Vesicouterine reflux Recurrent UTI Catheter Retention Spermicide use Family history Foreign body - stone, stitch Post menopausal urogenital atrophy
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What is the pathophysiology of BPH?
Hyperplasia of epithelial and stromal prostatic components, increased stromal : epithelial ratio. Over time can get bladder outlet obstruction. Increased epithelial tissue mostly in transition zone
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What are the risk factors for BPH and what is the typical presentation?
Risks - age, family history Symptoms - urinary retention, hesitancy, dribbling, weak stream, straining, intermittency
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What is the treatment available for BPH?
5-alpha reductase inhibitor (reduce prostate growth) Alpha blockers (reduce smooth muscle tone) TURP
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What is the difference between painful and painless urinary retention?
Acute urinary retention is usually painful and chronic urinary retention is often painless Acute urinary retention generally presents as inability to pass urine and is typically associated with lower abdominal and or suprapubic discomfort Chronic retention - bilateral hydronephrosis, bloating, overflow incontinence (first notice bed wetting)
137
What conditions can lead to osteoporosis?
Thyrotoxicosis Primary hyperparathyroidism Chronic liver or kidney disease Hypercalciuria Rheumatoid arthritis Diabetes Multiple myeloma HIV Mastocytosis Immunosuppression Osteogenesis imperfecta
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What are some risk factors for osteoporosis?
Low exercise Smoking Poor nutrition - calcium/vitamin D deficiency Prolonged amenorrhea Post menopausal \<50 Excessive alcohol use (\> 2 units daily) BMI \<20 or obesity
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How is vitamin D deficiency related to osteoporosis?
Low vitamin D means there is no aid to absorb calcium, reduced calcium means that bone must be resorbed (osteoclasts) to maintain the extracellular calcium level
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How are osteopaenia and osteoporosis diagnosed via bone density scanning?
Osteopenia - low bone density, DXA T-score 1-2.5 Osteoporosis - DXA T-score \< 2.5 due to reduced number of normally mineralised bone trabeculae
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What is osteomalacia?
Defective bone mineralisation and fragility due to insufficient dietary calcium, vitamin D deficiency or resistance or due to increased renal loss of phosphate, DXA score can be in osteopenia or osteoporosis range (rickets in kids - wide ankles and wrists, short stature and bowed legs)
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What are some preventative strategies for osteoporosis?
Weight bearing exercise Diet rich in calcium and vitamin D Weight loss Smoking cessation
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What are the therapeutic options for osteoporosis?
HRT: block osteoclast activation Raloxifene (women only): agonist at oestrogen receptors in bone and CVS Bisphosphonates - alendronate, risedronate, zoledronate: inhibit osteoclast formation and initiate osteoclast apoptosis, may cause jaw necrosis Teriparatide: stimulates osteoblasts (PTH) Denosumab: bind RANKL to prevent osteoclast action Strontium: inhibit osteoclast formation and boost osteoblast activity, increase
144
What are some differentials for a patient presenting with haemoptysis, cough and SOB?
Lung cancer PE Pneumonia TB Bronchiectasis Trauma
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What are the respiratory causes of clubbing?
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis Lung cancer Bronchiectasis Empyema Cystic fibrosis
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What is the prevalence of lung cancers (most to least common)?
Adenocarcinoma Squamous cell Large cell Small cell
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What is the typical presentation of lung cancer?
Cough Change in voice SOB Haemoptysis Chest Pain Metastatic symptoms - bone pain, headaches Lethargy Weakness Low weight and appetite
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Why would there be a normal lactate in testicular tosion?
Strangulation or incarceration would cause lactate to be released - indicative of ischaemia - but due to blood supply being cut off, this is not released into the general circulation and is not picked up on routine testing
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Where does a spigellian hernia occur?
Occurs at the lateral edge of rectus abdominus at arcuate line
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What is the management for diverticulosis?
If recurrent episodes of diverticulitis and repeated administration of antibiotics, need to consider bowel resection or hartmanns to prevent recurrence of infection and irritation
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What is COPD?
Irreversible airway inflammation and disruption of airflow
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What are the risk factors for COPD?
Male Indigenous Smoking (active and passive) Air pollution Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency Bronchial hyperresponsivness Recurrent RTIs
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What is the pathogenesis of COPD?
Noxious agents lead to airway inflammation, loss of elasticity and remodelling Neutrophils, macrophages and CD8T cells cause an imbalance of proteinases - causing further lung damage
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What is the pharmacologic management for COPD?
Smoking cessation: nicotine replacement, bupropion (antidepressant), varenicline (nicotinic receptor partial agonist) Beta-2 agonists (SABA - salbutamol, LABA - salmeterol), SE: tremor, tachycardia Anticholinergics: tiotropium, ipratropium (LAMA), SE: dry mouth Inhaled corticosteroids: fluticasone Influenza (annually) and pneumococcal (5 yearly) vaccines
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What is the non-pharmacologic management for COPD?
Stop smoking: advice, willpower, counselling, courses Pulmonary rehabilitation Home oxygen therapy - 2-4L/min for 16hrs/day Portable oxygen
156
What are the types of refractive error and what are they?
Myopia - short sighted, light focuses before the retina, cannot see things distant Hyperopia - long sighted, light focuses behind the retina, cannot see things close up Astigmatism - visual acuity lessened, football shaped cornea Presbyopia - age 40, focal point of light starts to move behind the retina, need to hold things further away to focus on them, age related due to lack of flexibility of the lens
157
What is primary open angle glaucoma?
Progressive creeping peripheral visual field loss (central loss comes late), elevated intraocular pressure and extreme pain when acute. Caused by neurodegenerative damage due to blochage of aqueous humour in the anterior chamber
158
What are the types of diabetic retinopathy?
Non-proliferative: aren't new vessels, mild, moderate and severe types, intra retinal and superficial bleeds (microaneurysms), exudative serous material leaking into macular region, can have intraocular injections to settle Proliferative: new vessels forming, haemorrhage, treat with pan retinal photocoagulation - demand on the blood vessels is reduced to protect the retina
159
What is the likely pathology if a patient complains of fence posts bending in their vision?
Macular degeneration (process is metamorphopsia)
160
What are the types of macular degeneration?
Dry Slowly progressing, little yellow spots in the retina (drusen) - waste material that collect under the retina (pigment epithelium not getting rid of waste material - early and intermediate MD) - drusen cause a bump in the retina causing a disruption in images, NO treatment (diet high in antioxidants is only recommendation for waste clearance) Wet Bleeding into the retinal tissue due to breakdown of barrier and blood vessels growing into the retina, treatable via injections of anti VEGF drugs (repetitive - every 4,6 or 8 weeks - intraocular injection for life), rapidly progressive
161
What is this pathology?
3rd cranial nerve palsy Diplopia Eyes turned down and out with ptosis
162
What is this pathology?
4th cranial nerve palsy Eye raised and head tilt to try to overcome palsy
163
What is this pathology?
6th cranial nerve palsy Cannot turn eye out when trying to look in that direction Lateral rectus impaired
164
What are the features of a glioma?
Tumour arising from brain parenchyma 50% malignant astrocytomas Signs - headache, visual loss, pain, weakness, numbness
165
What are the features of a meningioma?
Most common benign brain tumour May cause no symptoms as there is no infiltration of brain tissue Presentation - raised ICP, seizures, diplopoa Radiation only known risk factor
166
What are the features of a pituitary adenoma?
Pituitary gland tumour causing bitemporal hemianopia (loss of vision on lateral sides of each eye) May secrete hormones Treat with hypophysectomy
167
What is parkinsons?
Loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia niagra in the basal ganglia and lewy bodies throughout the cortex causing a progressive decline in motor function
168
What is the presentation of parkinsons?
(usually asymmetrical to start with) Resting tremor (4-6Hz) Rigidity Slow onset of anosmia Bradykinesia Postural instability Hypophonia Dysphagia Stooped posture Pedestal turning Depression Expressionless face Dementia Constipation Fatigue Shuffling gait Micrographia
169
What is the treatment for parkinsons?
Levodopa/ carbidopa (prevents levodopa conversion outside brain - reduce emesis) Bromocriptine (dopamine agonist) Cabergoline (dopamine agonist) Selegilline (MAO-B inhibitor, prevent dopamine reuptake) Deep brain stimulation
170
What is primary angiitis and what is the presentation and differentials?
Vasculitis confined to the CNS Presentation - prodrom, headache, cognitive impairment, stroke, seizures, TIA Differentials - stroke, SLE, SAH, infection, systemic vasculitis
171
What are the red flags for headache?
Systemic illness Neurologic signs Onset sudden Over 40-50 Prior headaches different
172
What movement is not possible with a median nerve dysfunction?
Thumb abduction
173
Why will a collateral ulnar ligament injury not heal without surgery?
Won't heal with splintage due to adductor aponeurosis overlying - which in injury ends up being under the ligament, so the ligament cannot heal back to normal position
174
What is a lung abscess and what are the risk factors?
Circumscribed collection of pus in the lung leading to cavity formation and air filled level of CXR Risks - Aspiration of gastric contents Elderly Reflux Immunosuppression Bronchial obstruction Alcoholism Malnourished Klebsiella, pseudomonas Most common in right lower lobe Pre-existing lung damage - at risk of aspergillus
175
What is the presentation for lung abscess and how should it be investigated?
Fever, productive cough (putrid) CXR - see cavitation with air fluid level
176
What is the treatment for a lung abscess?
Antimicrobials Drainage
177
What are the common causes of community acquired pneumonia?
Strep pneumonia Mycoplasma pneumoniae Chlamydia Legionella Influenza Adenovirus Rhinovirus
178
What is the presentation of pneumonia?
Fever Chills Cough Sputum Dyspnoea Myalgia Arthralgia Pleuritic pain
179
What is the treatment for community acquired penumonia?
Empirical Antibiotics Macrolide – azithromycin/clarithromycin Fluoroquinolone Amoxicillin Doxycycline Oxygen
180
What are the main causes of hospital acquired pneumonia?
Gram negative bacilli – pseudomonas aeruginosa, E.coli, klebsiella, acinetobacter
181
What is the treatment for hospital acquired penumonia?
Penicillin Macrolide Doxycycline
182
What causes a pleural effusion and how does a patient present?
Causes * Congestive heart failure * Infection – pneumonia (gram positive most common) * Malignancy * Post surgery Symptoms * SOB * Cough * Pleuritic chest pain * Fever and chills * Tachypnoea
183
What is the treatment for a pleural effusion?
Chest physio Fluid drainage (chest catheter) Antibiotics Diuretics Cancer treatment
184
What is idiopathic fibrosis, causes, symptoms, investigations and management?
Fibrotic lung disease with no known cause that progresses over years - characterised by scar tissue formation within the lungs Causes * Cigarette smoking * Environmental exposure Presentation - SOB, cough Investigations * X-ray * Spirometry (restrictive - low FVC, normal FEV1) Management * Lifestyle - smoking cessation * Supplemental oxygen * Antifibrotics (pirfenidone, nintedanib) * Pulmonary rehab * Lung transplant
185
What is bronchiectasis, causes, symptoms, investigations and management?
Chronic infection in small airways resulting in the lungs becoming damaged, scarred and dilated Causes: Chronic airway infection (usually bacterial) – immune response results in chronic inflammation, pneumonia, COPD, smoking Symptoms * Productive cough * Mucopurluent sputum * Recurrent infections * Fatigue * Nasal inflammation Investigations - sputum sample, CXR, CT (widening of airways) Management - chest physio, inhaled bronchodilator, inhaled hyperosmolar agent, long term oral macrolide, inhaled antibiotic, lung transplant, ventilation (oxygen)
186
What is ARDS, causes, symptoms, investigations and management?
Acute respiratory distress syndrome – widespread inflammation in the lungs Causes: pneumonia, sepsis, aspiration, trauma, smoke inhalation Symptoms - SOB, hypoxia Diagnosis: acute onset, bilateral CXR opacity, hypoxaemia, widespread consolidation Management - low tidal volume plateau pressure limited mechanical ventilation
187
How do you get a malignant mesothelioma?
Asbestos - recurrent effusions, shrinking lung, 100% mortality
188
How does an appendectomy cause a hernia?
Damage to the iliohypogastric nerve at McBurnies point- damaging inguinal muscles resulting in lack of nerve supply to internal oblique and transversus abdominus muscles - resulting in weakness of anterior abdominal wall and risk of direct inguinal hernia