Lec. 3: Kin of the Spine (incomplete) Flashcards

(65 cards)

1
Q

zygapophyseal joints are also known as ___ joints

A

facets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

primary ligs that limit spine flex (2)

A

interspinous lig
supraspinous lig

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

first lig to fail in hyperflex sprain is the ___

A

supraspinous lig

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

These are feats of which lig:
-Runs anteriorly along adjacent vertebral bodies
-Loosely attached to the IVDs to reinforce annulus
-Inferior continuation of the atlanto-occipital membrane
-Runs from C2 inferiorly to the sacrum
-Limits extension

A

ANT longitudinal lig (ALL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

These are feats of which lig:
-Runs posteriorly along adjacent vertebral bodies
-Strongly attached to the IVDs
-Inferior continuation of the tectorial membrane as it exits the foramen magnum of occiput
-Runs from C2 inferiorly to the sacrum
-Limits flexion

A

POST longitudinal lig (PLL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

which lig does this describe:
-Inferior continuation of the posterior atlanto-occipital membrane
-Relatively elastic; contains elastin thus taut even in neutral position
-Maintains axial disc compression
-Present on anterior surface of the lamina
-Limits flexion especially in lumbar region

A

ligamentum flavum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which lig does this describe:
-Between neighbouring TVPs
-Limits lateral flexion
-Contributes to thoracolumbar fascia

A

intertransverse lig

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

occurs when one motion in the spine is associated with another

A

coupled motion of the spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

coupled motion in the spine is d/t ligamentous and ___ attachment, facet joint ___ and spinal curvature

A

muscular, orientation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

in a neutral position what are the load bearing structures in the spine

A

VB and discs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

the facets control ___ and bear about 30% of load in which position

A

motion, EXT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

under high loads the ___ ___ will likely fail before the discs

A

vertebral endplates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what occurs in the discs during sustained low load of the vertebral column. And what occurs to remedy this problem

A

fluid is forced out of discs, disc must reabsorb fluid via imbibition at night (sleep)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

the resistance to torsional forces of the spine increases from ___-___ spine down

A

mid-thoracic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what aspect of disc is most resistant to torsional forces

A

annulus fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

the annulus fibrosis of discs is commonly injured during which combined motions/forces

A

high axial loading + torsion + distraction force (ie. act of shoveling snow, specifically throwing snow onto bank)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

2 actions that cause high shearing forces b/w VB

A

-lifting weight from ground
-upper body flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

shearing force on VBs causes translation which is generally resisted by ___ and ___ ___

A

discs
facet jts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

FLEX/EXT is maximized when the facets are oriented in which plane

A

sagittal plane (ie. most FLEX in upper lumbar spine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

___ widens the IVFs and ___ narrows them

A

FLEX, EXT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

EXT of spine is limited by ___ ___. FLEX is limited by ___ and ___

A

bony contact (facets)
ligaments and muscles (passive mm tension)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

LAT FLEX is maximized when facets are oriented in the ___ plane. And is accompanied by ___ of the VBs

A

frontal, ROT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

during LAT FLEX of spine the VBs ROT ___ from C2-T6 and ___ from T6-L5

A

ipsilaterally
contralaterally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

ROT is always accompanied by ___ ___

A

LAT FLEX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
CCP, CP, and typ. dislocation of the C/SP
CPP: full EXT CP: LAT FLEX, ROT, EXT typ. dis.: posterior dislocation of medial atlantoaxial joint (rupture of transverse ligament)
26
in C/SP FLEX is maximized at ___-___ and EXT is maximized at ___-___
C5-6 C4-5
27
in C/SP OA is seen most at ___-___ and ___-___ b/c these are the locations where the more FLEX and EXT occur
C4-5 C5-6
28
LAT FLEX is greatest in the ___ region of the C/SP and is accompanied by ___ ROT of VB
middle, ipsilateral
29
arthrokin at atlanto-occipital jt
convex occipital condyles on concave SUP art. facet of C1; roll and glide in opposite directions
30
arthrokin of MED atlanto-axial jt
concave atlas on convex dens so roll and glide in same direction
31
5 relevant movers of the C/SP
-suboccipital group -scalenes -longus colli (cervicis) and capitis -SCM -erector spinae
32
suboccipital group is commonly a source of ___ d/t FHC posture
headaches
33
dysfunction of the scalenes can cause problems with the ___ and ___ ___ w/ subsequent arm symptoms
brachial and vascular plexuses
34
longus colli and capitis are commonly strained in ___ type injuries
whiplash
35
irritation and TPs in the SCM can cause ___ and ___
nausea and dizziness
36
the erector spinae contract eccentrically to control ___
FLEX
37
CPP and CP of all segments of the spine
CPP: full EXT CP: LAT FLEX, ROT, EXT
38
typical dislocation of the T/SP
occurs w/ fracture, usually T4 or T7, no specific direction
39
the facets of the thoracic vertebrae are oriented ~ ___ from horizontal and slightly ___. The SPs point ___ and the TVPs point ___. (looks like a giraffe head)
60, laterally inferiorly, superiorly
40
the rigidity of the rib cage, facet orientation of the upper vertebrae and thinness of the disc cause a limitation of which mvts in the T/SP
flex/ext
41
___ ___ increases as you move inferiorly w/in T/SP
LAT FLEX
42
LAT FLEX b/w T6-12 is accompanied by ___ VB ROT
contralateral
43
which ribs only articulate with the vertebrae
11 and 12 (floating ribs)
44
ribs 1-7 are considered the ___ ribs
true
45
during inspiration ribs 1-7 move in a pump-handle like motion meaning they move in the ___ plane and have a ___/___ axis
sagittal, medial/lateral
46
during inspiration the false ribs (8-10) move in a bucket handle like motion meaning the move in a roughly ___ plane. When this happens it increases the ___ diameter w/in the rib cage
frontal, transverse
47
ribs 11 and 12 move in a caliper like motion during inspiration, pivoting open at the costovertebral jts. This happen in the ___ plane and ___/___ axis
transverse, SUP/INF
48
Rib humping will occur on the ___ side of the scoliotic curve as the vertebral body rotates (T1-T6 ipsilateral, T6-12 contralateral) to accommodate lateral flexion
convex
49
in scoliosis, the curve is named according to the apex of the ___
convexity
50
3 relevant movers of the T/SP
-diaphragm -intercostals -scalenes
51
accessory movers of the T/SP (7)
-abdominals -erector spinae -quadratus lumborum -pec + and - -SCM -subclavius
52
typical dislocation in lumbar spine where facets perch over one another
spondylolisthesis
53
2 feats of the lumbar vertebrae
-Mammillary processes on SUP articular process -SPs point directly POST in L-spine -VBs and discs are larger to support the entirety of upper body -Changes in position of pelvis or body segments causes L-spine to compensate for shifted CoG
54
facet of L1 is in ___ plane. facets of L2-L4 are oriented in a ___-___ position. and L5 is in ___ plane to limit motion of L5 on sacrum
sagittal, semi-sagittal, frontal
55
what is being described: Various layers are continuous with the fascia from QL, lats and gluteus maximus. Provides an anatomic girdle between the lower abdominals and the spine
thoracolumbar fascia
56
ROT and LAT FLEX decreases ___ in L/SP with rotation largely coming from cartilaginous deformation of discs
INF
57
Nutation accompanies posterior tilt of the ___ ilium during gait
ipsilateral
58
Counternutation accompanies ___ ___ of the ipsilateral ilium during gait
ANT tilt
59
during gait what occurs at the sacrum
one side nutates while the other counternutates (gyroscopic motion, like figure 8)
60
which mm stabilizes the lumbar spine in contralateral lateral flexion and prevents vertebral “collapse” in the frontal plane, e.g. scoliosis – type deformities
lumborum quadratus
61
mms that act as synergists to stabilize the spine and pelvis primarily by generating tension in the thoracolumbar fascia which supports the spine in flexion especially
abdominals (specifically transversus abdominis and internal oblique)
62
erectors contract eccentrically to control rate of flexion and limit ___ ___ b/w vertebrae
ANT shear
63
at about 2/3 of flex the erectors cease active contraction (likely point of injury)
relaxation phenomena
64
is muscular stabilization of ligamentous stabilization considered to be more important in the prevention of back injury (specifically w/ FLEX)
muscular stabilization is more important b/c w/out adequate strength increase stress is placed on spinal ligaments and increases risk of injury
65
EXT places variable amounts of compressive forces onto the axial skel., how many Newtons of compression are placed on the L4-5 disc during quadra-ped single leg EXT, quadra-ped contralateral leg and arm extension, and prone bilateral arms and legs EXT
2000N 3000N 6000N