Lecture 1 - Intro + Host Defense Flashcards

1
Q

Bacteria are broadly classified by their _____.

The two most commonly encountered are ____ and ____.

A

Shapes

Cocci; Rods

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2
Q

Cocci have different arrangements based on what?

A

their planes of division

*cocci have distinct ARRANGEMENTS based on their planes of division

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3
Q

What are the four types of planes of divisions that cocci can undergo?

A

1) One plane
2) Two planes
3) Three planes
4) Random planes

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4
Q

Match the terms to their definitions regarding the structural organization of a prokaryotic cell.

1) Cell wall
2) Capsule
3) Ribosome
4) Fimbrae/pilli

A) used for attachment to surfaces and bacterial mating

B) translational machinery, protein synthesis

C) provides cell shape and protection from osmotic stress

D) polysaccharide layer outside of cell wall, provides protection from osmotic stress and host immune system

A

1) Cell wall: provides cell shape and protection from osmotic stress

2) Capsule: polysaccharide layer outside of cell wall, provides protection from osmotic stress and host immune system

3) Ribosome: translational machinery, protein synthesis

4) Fimbrae/pilli: used for attachment to surfaces and bacterial mating

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5
Q

Match the terms to their definitions regarding the structural organization of a prokaryotic cell.

1) Plasma membrane
2) Nucleoid
3) Flagellum
4) Inclusion body

A) localization of DNA

B) site of storage of carbon, phosphate and other substances

C) selectively permeable barrier, nutrient & waste transport, location of many metabolic processes (respiration), mechanical boundary of the cell, detection of environmental cues for chemotaxis

D) used for cellular movement

A

1) Plasma membrane: selectively permeable barrier, nutrient & waste transport, location of many metabolic processes (respiration), mechanical boundary of the cell, detection of environmental cues for chemotaxis

2) Nucleoid: localization of DNA

3) Flagellum: used for cellular movement

4) Inclusion body: site of storage of carbon, phosphate and other substances

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6
Q

What are the four critical functions of the cell wall?

A

1) Aids in determining cell shape, provides rigidity and integrity

2) Ensures that the cell is protected from OSMOTIC LYSIS

3) Protects cell from TOXIC SUBSTANCES

4) can contribute to pathogenesis for some pathogenic bacteria

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7
Q

Bacteria can be classified by their cell walls structure.

What are the two types? How are they different?

A

1) Gram-positive: bacteria have a SINGLE membrane and a THICK cell wall composed of peptidoglycan.

2) Gram-negative: bacteria have TWO MEMBRANES separated by a periplasm that contains a THIN peptidoglycan layer.

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8
Q

Briefly answer the questions regarding the general structure of the gram positive bacterial cell wall.

1) What is teichoic acid?

2) What does the periplasmic space contain?

A

1) Teichoic acids are linked to peptidoglycan. They are glycerol-phosphate or ribitol phosphate carbohydrate copolymers that assist in providing cell wall rigidity.

2) Contains hydrolytic enzymes and proteins for nutrient processing and uptake.

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9
Q

Which statement is true?

1) Gram positive bacterial cell wall contain a homogenous thick peptidoglycan layer.

2) Teichoic acid is found in both gram positive and gram negative bacteria.

A

1!

For 2) Teichoic acid is found ONLY IN gram-positive bacteria.

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10
Q

Fill in the blanks regarding the structure of the peptidoglycan subunit:

1) It contains two sugar derivatives: ________ and _______.

2) NAM is linked to a _________ consisting of _____, ____, _____, and _____.

3) To created a ______ polymer, peptidoglycan subunits can be __________.

A

1) N-acetylglucosamine (NAG) and N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM)

2) tetrapeptide; L-alanine; D-glutamic acid; meso-DAP (or L-lysine); D-alanine

3) Meshlike; cross-linked

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11
Q

There are two methods of how peptidoglycan subunits can form CROSS-LINKS.

Describe them and mention which one is common in gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria.

A

1) Direct cross-linking between subunits: carboxyl group of D-alanine is linked to amino group of DAP. Common in GRAM-NEGATIVE bacteria.

2) Cross-linking via peptide interbridges: tetrapeptide chain can link to adjacent chain via a peptide interbridge composed of GLYCINE residues. Common in GRAM-POSITIVE bacteria.

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12
Q

What does the cross linking between tetrapeptide chains result in?

A

It results in a highly dense INTERCONNECTED PEPTIDOGLYCAN NETWORK.

*gram-positive

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13
Q

(T/F) The composition and extent of crosslinking is shared between different bacterial species.

A

False!

The composition and extent of crosslinking CAN VARY between different bacterial species - contributes to DIVERSITY!

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14
Q

Which statement is false regarding the gram-negative bacterial cell wall?

1) There is a thin peptidoglycan layer.

2) There are proteins in the outer membrane that permit passage of small molecules.

3) LPS is bound to inner membrane.

4) In between the outer membrane and the plasma membrane, there is a periplasmic space and peptidoglycan layer.

A

3!

LPS is bound to the OUTER MEMBRANE.

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15
Q

Lipopolysaccharide (LPS) plays a role in?

A

1) Adhesion
2) Formation of permeability barrier
3) Pathogenesis

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16
Q

Describe the structure of an LPS.

A

It contains

1) O side chain (antigen) - series of sugar residues that DIFFER among and within species. may be recognized by host antibodies, but bacteria can alter the O antigen structure to evade host immune response.

2) Core polysaccharide - joins O side chain with lipid A

3) Lipid A - SIMILAR in all gram-negative bacteria. highly hydrophobic (fatty acid) and is inserted into the OUTER leaflet of the OUTER membrane.

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17
Q

Pili are ___, ____, _______ fibers that extend from the surface of many species of bacterial cells.

Pili are ___-like, _____-cored appendages.

A

short, thin, proteinaceous

hair; hollow

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18
Q

What is the function of pili?

A

1) Adherence to surfaces such as host epithelial cells, other bacteria or inner surfaces.

2) Some pili (Type IV pili) generate jerky motile forces referred to as TWITCHING MOTILITY.

3) TRANSFER OF DNA FROM CELL-TO-CELL (conjugation; horizontal gene transfer).

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19
Q

The capsule is a _________ layer that coats cell _____ exterior.

It is found in _______ and ______ bacteria.

A

Polysaccharide; wall

gram-negative; gram-positive

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20
Q

What are the functions of a capsule?

A

1) Protects PATHOGENIC bacteria from PHAGOCYTOSIS by host phagocytes (evasion of host immune system)

2) Protects against dehydration

3) Exclude viruses and other hydrophobic toxins

4) Can facilitate ADHESION

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21
Q

What are the 4 Koch’s Postulates?

A

1) The microorganism must be present in every case of the disease but absent from healthy organisms.

2) The suspected microorganisms must be isolated and grown in a pure culture.

3) The same disease must result when the isolated microorganism is inoculated into a healthy host.

4) The same microorganism must be isolated again from the diseased host.

*causal relationship between microorganism and disease

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22
Q

What are the limitations to Koch’s Postulates?

A

for 1) not all people infected by a bacteria may develop a disease - subclinical infection can sometimes be more common than clinically obvious infection (ASYMPTOMATIC CARRIERS)

for 2) some microorganisms are DIFFICULT TO CULTURE in the lab, cannot be grown in “PURE CULTURE”

for 3) ETHICS of human and animal models. lack of appropriate animal models - some human pathogens do not readily cause disease in animals.

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23
Q

List the seven basic steps of infection by PATHOGENIC bacteria.

A

1) Maintain a reservoir

2) Entry into host

3) Adhesion, invasion and persistence

4) Evasion of host defenses (to cause disease, pathogen must avoid local + systemic defenses)

5) Replication

6) Damage to host

7) Dissemination

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24
Q

What is a reservoir?

A

It is a SITE or NATURAL environment in which the pathogen normally resides and is primarily dependent for survival.

They can be ANIMATE (humans, arthropod, plant, animals) or INANIMATE (water, soil, food).

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25
Q

______ into the environment ensures bacterial dissemination.

When can passive escape of the bacteria occur?

A

Shedding

Passive escape of the bacteria may occur when the pathogen or its progeny leave the host in: WASTE PRODUCTS (urine/feces), SALIVA DROPLETS, and DESQUAMATED CELLS.

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26
Q

Which statement is false regarding bacterial adherence?

1) Bacterial adherence helps to attach pathogen to host cell surface and facilitate invasion.

2) There is only one type of adhesion factor in one bacterium.

A

2!

There are many different adhesion factors in a bacterium! Each can in turn bind to different host cell factors or host cell types!

*some adhesion factors bind to complementary receptors on the host cell surface (often a carbohydrate or peptide moiety).

27
Q

1) What happens after the pathogen attaches to host cell surfaces?

2) Give two examples of mechanisms by which pathogenic bacteria may invade host cells.

A

1) Following attachment to host cell surfaces, the pathogen then ENTERS or INVADES the host cell. There are multiple mechanisms for bacterial invasion.

2)
a. production of lytic substances (by the pathogen) that alter the host tissue/cell surface or extracellular matrix.

b. undergoing eukaryotic internalization pathways (i.e. endocytosis or phagocytosis).

28
Q

(T/F) Adhesion and invasion are often coupled and can sometimes involve large rearrangements in the actin cytoskeleton network.

A

True!

29
Q

What are the two ways that adherence/invasion can lead to changes in actin cytoskeletal rearrangement?

A

1) Direct interaction with host receptors - certain bacteria may express specific cell surface proteins which bind to a host receptor and initiate ACTIN-DEPENDENT phagocytosis.

2) Translocation of bacterial proteins - certain bacteria may inject EFFECTOR proteins (virulence factors) via SECRETION SYSTEMS into the host cell, triggering ACTIN-DEPENDENT engulfment.

30
Q

Match the following terms to their definitions:

1) Pathogen
2) Pathogenicity
3) Virulence
4) Virulence factor
5) Invasiveness
6) Toxigenicity

A) bacterial products that contribute to virulence (capsules, pili, toxins)

B) the ability of a pathogen to produce toxins that contribute to disease

C) a disease-causing organism; primary or opportunistic pathogens

D) the ability of a pathogen to spread to adjacent or other tissues

E) the ability of an organism to cause disease; depends on functional interaction of bacterial factors

F) refers to the degree or measure of pathogenicity

A

Pathogen: a disease-causing organism; primary or opportunistic pathogens

Pathogenicity: the ability of an organism to cause disease; depends on functional interaction of bacterial factors

Virulence: refers to the degree or measure of pathogenicity

Virulence factor: bacterial products that contribute to virulence (capsules, pili, toxins)

Invasiveness: the ability of a pathogen to spread to adjacent or other tissues

Toxigenicity: the ability of a pathogen to produce toxins that contribute to disease

31
Q

The ability of bacteria to cause a certain disease in a specific host involves the expression of one or several virulence factors.

What do the most common types of virulence factors contribute to?

A

Bacterial ADHERENCE, INVASIVENESS, IMMUNOEVASION, and TOXIGENICITY.

*virulence factors are encoded by virulence genes.

32
Q

What prompted the development of a molecular form of Koch’s Postulates?

A

The identification, isolation and cloning of genes responsible for virulence.

33
Q

What are the Koch’s Postulates in a molecular perspective?

A

1) The virulence trait under study should be associated much more with pathogenic strains of the species than with nonpathogenic strains.

2) Inactivation of the gene or genes associated with the suspected virulence trait should substantially decrease pathogenicity.

3) Replacement of the mutated gene with the normal WT gene should fully restore pathogenicity.

4) The gene should be expressed at some point during the infection and disease process.

5) Antibodies or immune system cells directed against the gene products should protect the host.

34
Q

Where can virulence genes be encoded on?

A

1) extrachromosomal plasmids

2) pathogenicity islands (larger clusters of DNA present within the bacterial chromosome)

3) can be carried by bacteriophages or transposons (which can integrate into the bacterial chromosomes)

35
Q

How can pathogenic bacteria emerge?

A

Pathogenic bacteria may emerge when groups of virulence genes are transferred into a previously avirulent bacterium by HORIZONTAL GENE TRANSFER (transformation, transduction, conjugation).

36
Q

What is a black hole?

A

deletions in the genome that can contribute to virulence

37
Q

(T/F) Various virulence factors have been introduced into E. coli through horizontal gene transfer, resulting in the creation of distinct E. coli pathotypes.

A

True!

*pathotype: disease-causing variant of a microorganism

38
Q

(T/F) Pathogenicity Islands (PAIs) are also present in the non-pathogenic members of the same genus or species of a microorganism.

A

False!

PAIs are present in the bacterial chromosome of many pathogenic bacteria but are NOT PRESENT in non-pathogenic members of the same genus/species.

39
Q

Which statements are true regarding the characteristic feature of pathogenicity islands?

1) PAIs have insertion elements within the middle - suggests promiscuity as mobile elements.

2) Express factors that promote mobility - integrases, transposases

3) The GC content of PAIs is similar to the remainder of the bacterial genome

4) Consists of several ORFs - genes that encode virulence factors

5) A pathogen strictly has one PAIs

6) They are only found in gram negative bacteria.

A

2 and 4

For 1) PAIs have insertion elements at the 5’ and 3’ ends - suggests promiscuity as mobile elements.

For 3) The GC content of PAIs may DIFFER than the remainder of the bacterial genome

For 5) A pathogen may have ONE OR MORE PAIs

For 6) They may be found in BOTH gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria.

40
Q

Give an example of a pathogenicity island.

A

LEE (Locus of Enterocyte Effacement) is a pathogenicity island found in enteropathogenic E. coli.

The 3 major virulence factors encoded by LEE:

1) Bundle-forming pilus (Type IV pilus)

2) Intim (adhesion) and Tir (nucleation of host cytoskeletal proteins)

3) Type III Secretion System

41
Q

Summarize the process of the pedestal formation and engulfment of pathogenic E. coli within small bowel enterocytes.

What are the pathogenic effects on host?

A

1) Type III secretion system allows for translocation of virulence proteins (i.e. Tir) into the host enterocyte.

2) Adhesion: INTIMIN on bacterial cell surface binds Tir that is displayed on the host cell surface.

3) Pedestal formation and engulfment: phosphorylation of the cytoplasmic domain of Tir promotes signal transduction events that mediate actin cytoskeleton rearrangement and pedestal formation.

Pathogenic effects on host: diarrhea due to ion secretion, increased intestinal permeability and inflammation of intestine.

42
Q

(T/F) Attachment of EPEC (enteropathogenic E. coli) to epithelial cell results in pedestal-like structures mediated by extensive cytoskeletal rearrangements.

A

True!

43
Q

What is the difference between innate and adaptive immunity?

A

Innate immunity: 1st line of defense against pathogen, non-specific response, no immunological memory.

Adaptive immunity: response develops over time, very specific response, develops immunological memory.
- humoral and cell-mediated

44
Q

Which statement is false regarding the innate immune response?

1) Defense mechanisms are already in place before infection.

2) Uses physical and chemical barriers; phagocytic cells and complement system.

3) Recognizes distinct structures to each pathogen.

4) Responds the same way to repeated exposures with pathogen.

A

3!

The innate immune system recognizes general structures that are common to groups of pathogens.

45
Q

Which statement is false regarding the adaptive immune response?

1) Lag phase - the response develops over time, “adapts” to the infection.

2) Uses lymphocytes (T/B cells) and antibodies.

3) Highly specific to particular foreign substance/antigen.

4) Responds the same way to repeated exposures with pathogen.

A

4!

Response increases in magnitude with successive exposure to antigen.

46
Q

1) What are leukocytes?

2) Do the innate and adaptive responses use the same leukocytes?

A

1) Cells of the immune system are called leukocytes (white blood cells).

2) Innate and adaptive responses use different types of leukocytes, each of which serves a specific function in the host defense response.

47
Q

1) What are hematopoietic stem cells (HSC)?

2) What is the difference between myeloid and lymphoid progenitor lineage?

A

1) Leukocytes are derived from precursor cells known as HSCs in the bone marrow where they mature through a process called HEMATOPOESIS.

2) Myeloid progenitor lineage (macrophage, mast cell, dendritic cell) are mainly cells of innate immunity. Lymphoid progenitor lineage (B cell, T cell) are mainly cells of adaptive immunity (except NK cells).

48
Q

1) What are B cells and T cells?

2) What are dendritic cells?

A

1) B cells and T cells have receptors that recognize foreign antigens. These are aka lymphocytes - are the major effector cells of the adaptive response.

2) Dendritic cells bridge the innate and adaptive response. They are phagocytic cells and have a key role in presenting antigens to T cells to initiate the adaptive response.

49
Q

Briefly describe the process of the development of lymphocyte populations and how they are used to eliminate antigens.

A

1) Each lymphoid progenitor gives rise to a large number of lymphocytes, each bearing a DISTINCT ANTIGEN RECEPTOR.

2) By chance, lymphocytes with receptors that bind to SELF antigens are eliminated before they become fully mature, ensuring TOLERANCE to self antigens.

3) When a foreign antigen interacts with the receptor on a mature lymphocyte, that cell is activated and starts to divide. It gives rise to a clone of IDENTICAL PROGENY, all of whose receptors bind the same antigen.

4) Antigen specificity is thus maintained as the progeny PROLIFERATE and DIFFERENTIATE into effector cells. Antigen is eliminated by effector cells, some lymphocytes are retained to mediate immunological memory.

50
Q

(T/F) Adaptive immune responses are initiated by APCs presenting antigens to T cells.

A

True!

51
Q

What are APCs?

A

Cells that capture and process antigens and display them via MHC molecules to T cell receptors. They provide signals that stimulate the proliferation and differentiation of T cells.

Dendritic cells, macrophages and B cells are examples of APCs.

52
Q

Answer the following questions for both the humoral immunity and cell-mediated immunity:

1) What is it mediated by?

2) What kind of pathogens does it defend against and eliminate?

3) How does it defend and eliminate pathogens?

A

Humoral immunity:
1) antibodies produced by B cells
2) extracellular pathogens
3) antibodies bind and neutralize pathogens or target pathogens for phagocytosis

Cell-mediate immunity:
1) effector functions of T lymphocytes
2) intracellular pathogens
3) specific types of T cells can activate macrophages to kill phagocytosed microbes or can directly destroy infected cells

53
Q

Pathogenic bacteria are combated by different host mechanisms depending on where they reside. Extracellular and intracellular pathogens use different types of evasion mechanisms.

1) What do extracellular pathogenic bacteria avoid?

2) What do intracellular pathogenic bacteria avoid?

A

1) Extracellular pathogenic bacteria mainly avoid immune destruction by antibody, the complement system and antimicrobial peptides.

2) Intracellular pathogenic bacteria largely evade immune responses by seeking shelter within phagocytes.

54
Q

TLRs (Toll-like receptors) are a family of PRRs on innate immune cells.

Gram negative bacteria contain ___ in their outer membrane which activates TLR-__.

Gram positive bacteria contain ________ in their cell wall which activates TLR-__.

A

LPS; 4

Peptidoglycan; 2

55
Q

How can pathogenic bacteria avoid detection by PRRs on immune cells?

A

Some pathogenic bacteria avoid detection by PRRs on immune cells by SHIELDING PAMPs.

Blocking the detection of these surface PAMPs (pathogen-associated molecular patterns) can therefore allow these bacteria to evade detection by pattern recognition receptors (i.e. TLRs) on immune cells.

56
Q

Lipid A with ___ acyl groups has been reported to be a potent stimulator of TLR-4/MD-2 signaling, causing activation of host macrophages.

Modification of lipid A to ___ acylated forms has been observed in some bacterial species and have been reported to be poor stimulators of TLR-4/MD-2 signaling, allowing for bacterial _______.

A

5

less (hypoacylation); evasion

57
Q

What is antigenic variation?

A

The mechanism by which pathogens alter their antigenic surface proteins in order to evade the adaptive immune system.

It may result in a HETEROGENIC phenotype of a population.

58
Q

Different strains of S.pneumonie have antigenically distinct capsular polysaccharides.

What does this mean in terms of an individual’s immune response?

A

Antibodies against one type of S.pneumoniae do NOT RECOGNIZE capsular polysaccharides of other types, so an individual immune to one type has no protective immunity to subsequent infection with a different type.

An individual must therefore generate a new adaptive immune response each time they are infected with a different type of S. pneumoniae.

59
Q

Pili are expressed on the ______ cell surface and are used for attachment to host cell surfaces. These pili are major _____ targets for antibody-mediated blockade of bacterial attachment and _________.

A

Neisseria; antigenic; colonization

60
Q

How does Neisseria use antigenic variation to evade the host antibody-mediated immune clearance?

A

The gene locus encoding the expressed Neisseria pilus (pilE) can undergo DNA RECOMBINATION within pilin genes stored in the silent (pilS) loci to generate a constantly shifting pilus for display on the bacterial surface.

By constantly changing the expressed pilus, the bacterium evades antibody-mediated immune clearance.

61
Q

PilS locus lacks ______ elements; no ______ and therefore is referred to as silent.

PilE locus contains ______ elements; there is transcription; and encodes _____ subunit.

Homologous recombination occurs between pilS and pilE gene segments, where gene segments are transferred from ____ to ____.

The corresponding ____ gene segment are lost from the genome during this process.

The net result is a ____ pilin variant that is expressed on the Nesseria cell surface, and a new ________ has to be generated to recognize it.

A

promoter; transcription

promoter; pilin

pilS; pilE

pilE

new; antibody

62
Q

1) Which protein of staphylococcus aureus promotes immune suppression?

2) Where can this protein be found?

3) What does it do to promote immune suppresion?

A

1) Protein A (spA)

2) spA can be found on the surface of S. aureus or can be secreted.

3) spA can bind the Fc region of antibody which PREVENTS PHAGOCYTOSIS or it can bind to the Fab regions of the B-cell receptor, inducing B cell death (preventing production of antibody specific for S. aureus).

*normally antibodies would opsonize S.aureus and bring it to a polymorphonuclear macrophage (neutrophil) to kill the bacteria.

63
Q

1) What are YOPs? How do they get delivered into host cells?

2) What is YopH?

3) What is YopJ?

A

1) Y. pestis, among several other types of Gram (-) bacteria, possess a T3SS that forms a needle-like structure that assembles on the bacterial surface and then facilitates the delivery of bacterial virulence proteins directly into the target cell. YOPs (Yersinia outer proteins) are the virulence factors of Y. pestis.

2) YopH is a PHOSPHATASE that has been reported to disrupt the ACTIN CYTOSKELETON structures required for pseudopodia formation, resulting in the prevention of phagocytosis of the bacteria.

3) YopJ is an ACETYLTRANSFERASE that has been reported to block the phosphorylation of kinases that are part of the MAPK cascade. The net result is the INHIBITION OF CYTOKINE PRODUCTION.

*inhibition of PAMP signalling

64
Q

What are the major mechanisms of immune evasion by intracellular pathogenic bacteria?

A

Intracellular pathogens are engulfed by host cells in an endosome or phagosome.

1) Escape the endosome

2) Prevent fusion with lysosomes (these contain hydrolytic enzymes).

3) Survive phagolysosome by altering gene expression (phagolysosome is lysosome fused with phagosome)