lecture 11 & 12- DNA mutations Flashcards

1
Q

a mutation is a change in ___ that is propagated through ___

A

DNA sequence
cellular generations (has to be fixed mutation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

when mutations occur in germ-line cells, they are ___

A

inheritable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how can mutations be good

A

evolution
- some frequency of mutation is necessary to produce variability in which natural selection acts to drive evolution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

when does a DNA alteration become a stable, inheritable mutation?

A

only after the alternation is converted through replication into an incorrect base pair (such as an A-T pair where a G-C should be)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what happens to the vast majority of damaged nucleotides that occur in mammalian cells?

A

fixed by DNA repair enzymes
- they can fix the alterations in DNA sequence, but if not fixed by next round of replication –> passed down (inheritable)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

point mutations are ___

A

single base pair substitutions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

transitions exchange a ___ for a ___
transversions exchange a ___ for a ___

A

purine for a purine (A–>G)
pyrimidine for a pyrimidine ( T–>C)

purine for a pyrimidine (A–>C)
pyrimidine for a purine (T–>G)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

name the two types of point mutations

A

transitions
transversions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

mutations of one or a few base pairs usually result from what?

A

errors in replication or damaged nucleotides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is more common- transitions or transversions?

A

transitions are 10 times more common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

a point mutation in the protein-coding region of a gene can result in what?
these point mutations can be classified as…

A

can result in an altered protein with partial or complete loss of function
- silent, missense, nonsense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

describe RNA complementarity to the DNA strands

A

RNA has same sequence as DNA top strand (coding- sense, nontemplate strand)
RNA is complementary to DNA bottom strand (noncoding, antisense, template strand)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

describe genetic code codons

A

DNA sequence encoding a protein is read in triplets (64 codons)
- 61 of 64 codons are sense codons for AA’s
- 3 of the 64 are nonsense- stop codons
UAA, UAG, UGA
- start codon = AUG (Met)
- code is degenerate (a single AA can be encoded by more than one codon)
. exception = Met (only encoded by AUG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

name 2 rules in genetic code

A

1- no overlapping in triplets, read from a fixed point
. if it wasn’t, it would code different AA’s
2- open reading frame- a run of sense codons before a stop codon is encounters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

describe silent mutations

A
  • mutations in non-coding or non-regulatory regions of DNA
  • in coding regions- b/c of degeneracy, results in same AA
  • ex: change from TTT to TTC is silent because both code for lysine (they are synonymous)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

describe missense mutations

A

any mutation within coding region leading to change in amino acid
- protein could have loss of function or gain of function if sequence change is in active site- severity depends on characteristics of the AA replaced (depends on nature and location of the change)
- ex: sickle-cell anemia- caused by missense mutation in gene that codes for beta subunit of hemoglobin - beta subunit has different shape, leads to aggregation of protein when with alpha subunit (change is glutamic acid –> valine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

describe nonsense mutation

A

leads to stop codon, terminating translation
- generates a truncated protein without a complete AA sequence
- severity depends on location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

establishment of point mutations is a 2 step process…

A

1- create mutation- DNA polymerase incorporates an incorrect nucleotide
2- if mismatch is not repaired, it becomes a mutation in SECOND ROUND of replication

19
Q

insertions occur when…
deletions occur when…

A

insertions occur when one or more base pairs are added to the wild-type sequence
deletions occur with loss of one or more base pairs

20
Q

insertions and deletions may have no effect if…

A

not in genes or regulatory sequences

21
Q

an indel mutation of only one or two base pairs in the coding sequence of a protein throws off the reading frame after the mutation, resulting in a ___

A

frameshift mutation

22
Q

indels of 3 or multiples of nucleotides do what?

A

preserve the reading frame of the gene
- most common: insertion of 3 nucleotides (template slippage by DNA poly during replication) –> triplet expansion diseases, often CAG repeated triplet

23
Q

name 4 DNA alterations that lead to mutations

A

1- spontaneous hydrolysis
2- oxidative damage (ROS)
3- alkylation (alkylating agents)
4- radiation (UV, x-rays)

24
Q

spontaneous DNA damage by water can cause point mutations by ___ or ___

A

deamination of nitrogenous bases (C, G, or A) or loss of bases by hydrolysis

25
Q

deamination is the removal of a ___ group and changes ___

A

amino
changes identity of bases and their pairing properties

26
Q

describe deamination with cytosine

A

deamination of cytosine creates uracil
however, about 5% of cytosines in higher eukaryotes are methylated
- deamination of methylcytosine leads to thymine

27
Q

describe deamination with guanine or adenine

A

less frequent and produces abnormal bases
- guanine becomes xanthine, pairs with cytosine
- adenine becomes hypoxanthine, pairs with cytosine

28
Q

describe DNA damage by spontaneous hydrolysis

A

loss of bases by hydrolysis
- depurination much more frequent than depyrimidation
- 1 in 10,000 purines are lost from mammalian cell DNA every 24 hrs

29
Q

oxidative damage and alkylating agents can create ___ and ___

A

point mutations and strand breaks

30
Q

describe oxidative damage

A

sodium nitrate (common food preservative) and nitrosamines are converted to nitrous acid in the stomach (nitrous acid is potent mutagen)
- oxidative damage is possibly the most important source of mutagenic alterations in DNA
- ROS, H2O2, hydroxyl radicals (OH-) and superoxide radicals (O2-) arise during irradiation or as byproducts of aerobic metabolism
- oxdative damage includes modification of bases, sugar, removal of bases and strand breaks

31
Q

what is possibly the most important source of mutagenic alterations in DNA

A

oxidative damage

32
Q

oxidative damage includes…

A

modification of bases, sugar, removal of bases, and strand breaks

33
Q

describe oxidative guanine

A

oxidative guanine at position 8 is very mutagenic because it can pair with adenine, leading to a transversion if not repaired prior to replication
. instead of G-C, T-A –> one of the most common mutations in human cancers

34
Q

describe damage by alkylation

A

addition of an alkyl group (methyl, ethyl, propyl, isopropyl) to bases

35
Q

describe how guanine is damaged by alkylation

A

O6-methylguanine is very mutagenic because it tends to pair with T instead of C, leading to a transition (G–>A)

36
Q

give two examples of damage by alkylation

A

1- benzo pyrene (carcinogen, intercalating agent)- smoke of burning cigs, woodm coal
. in liver, becomes a reactive epoxide that can react with bases, especially guanine
2- nitrogen mustard gas- cross-linking agents that react with adjacent guanine residues, preventing replication and transcription

37
Q

how are DNA-damaging agents used in chemotherapy?

A

DNA-reactive agents used in chemo for cancer kill cells (cytotoxic) by creating broken chromosomes or stalled replication forks, both lead to cell death during cell division
- cross-linking agents
- intercalating agents- doxorubicin- stops replication forks, cells can’t divide anymore

38
Q

what is the Ames test used to identify

A

DNA-damaging, mutagenic chemicals in animals

39
Q

describe how the Ames test works

A

use histidine auxotrophic Salmonella typhimurium- mutation in biosynthetic pathway for histidine (requires histidine in growth medium)
- looks for his revertants
- when his- bacteria (S. typh) is plated in media without histidine and chemical-potential mutagen is added, cells show a reversion mutation (can synthesize his and grow in his-free medium) (the chemical led to mutations)

40
Q

most known human carcinogens result in what in the ames test?

A

increased mutation in the Ames test
- compounds identified as mutagens in an ames test require further testing to determine whether they are likely to be human carcinogens

41
Q

describe DNA damage caused by radiation

A

ionizing radiation: UV (in sunlight), cosmic rays, x-rays
- UV and other ionizing radiation: about 10% of all DNA damage caused by environmental agents
- UV can cause photochemical fusion of adjacent pyrimidines (pyrimidine dimers- covalent cross-links) – leads to no replication
- x-rays and gamma rays (higher energy): single or double-stranded DNA breaks

42
Q

UV light from the sun can cause ___ that stall ___

A

pyrimidine dimers that stall DNA polymerase during replication

43
Q

x rays and gamma rays cause ___

A

single and double stranded DNA breaks

44
Q

DNA-damaging agents can lead to mutations at ___ concentrations and can kill the cell at ___ concentrations

A

low
high