Lecture 11 - cancer immunotherapy I Flashcards

1
Q

how do immune cells recognise cancer cells?

A

immune cells recognise cancer cells by cancer associated antigens

examples of cancer associated antigens are;

neoantigens - result fromgene mutationsin cancer cells and have not been seen previously by the immune system

Overexpressed self antigen

Self antigens that are expressed during embryonic development but are not expressed or are expressed at very low levels after birth

Cancer-associated antigens mark cancer cells as abnormal or foreign and can causekiller T cells to mount an attack against them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are cancer cell strategies to evade detection by the immune system?

A

Many cancer-associated antigens are only slightly altered versions of self antigens and difficult for the immune system to recognize

Cancer cells may undergo genetic changes that may lead to the loss of the processing or presentation of cancer-associated antigens

Overexpression of proteins (PDL1) which suppress immune response

Some cancer cells produce and secrete immunosuppressive cytokines (e.g. IL-10, TGF-β).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are tumour associated macrophages?

A

Tumours release a range of chemokines, cytokines and growth factors to attract monocyte into the tumour stroma where they differentiate into tumour associated macrophages (TAM)

TAMs stimulate tumour growth, invasion, migration and metastatic spread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what does antibodies in cancer immunotherapy do?

A

Exploits the expression of a specific antigen expressed by cancer cells but absent or expressed at low levels by normal cells.

To stimulate the host immune response to kill cancer cell

To inhibit tumour growth signals

To carry drug or a radioactive molecules to the cancer cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is rituximab

A

Chimeric (mouse and human) monoclonal antibody against CD20 expressed on B lymphocytes

Non Hodgkin lymphomas, chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL), cancers which develops in B lymphocytes

Side effects, which can cause death and disability include:
Immune toxicity (depletion of B cells in 70% to 80% of lymphoma patients)
CD20 expressed is also expressed on normal B cells
Any healthy B cells destroyed by CD20-targeted therapy can be readily replenished
Pulmonary toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the mechanism of action of rituximab?

A

The function of CD20 is unclear

Cell death induced by:
-Apoptosis
-ADCC antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity
Fc arm of the antibody engages Fc receptor (FcR)-positive inflammatory cells, such as natural killer cells and macrophages.
-CMC complement mediated cytotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

describe the mechanisms of action of Herceptin

A

Herceptin binds to HER2 receptors which can be over expressed in breast cancer cells. Binding prevents signals that triggers cell growth and division of cancer cells.

cell cycle arrest, stimulation of proapoptotic pathways etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the mechanism of Herceptin administration?

A

HER2-overexpressing metastatic breast cancer
- In combination with paclitaxel for first- line treatment
- Single agent in patients who have received one or more chemoregime

Breast cancer Adjuvant treatment of HER2 overexpressing node positive or node negative (ER/PR negative)

Metastatic gastric cancer

administration
Intra venous infusion
Subcutaneous injection –early breast cancer only

Breast cancer every 1 or 3 weeks up to 1 year
Gastric cancer every 3 weeks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

describe Herceptin

A

HER2 receptor expression is upregulated in 25% of breast cancer cells

HER2 activates MAPK and PI3K pathways which increases cell growth, survival, adhesion, migration, and differentiation

Herceptin binds to HER2 receptor

Main side-effect is Cardiac dysfunction (2-7% of patients)

Approximately 10% of patients are unable to tolerate this drug because of pre-existing heart problems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are checkpoint proteins?

A

T cell response might be suppressed by inhibitory check point proteins

Inhibitory check point proteins are crucial for modulating the duration and amplitude of physiologicalimmuneresponses in peripheral tissues

Minimise collateral tissue damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

describe ipilimumba and its mechanism of action

A

CTLA-4 is an inhibitory checkpoint receptor protein expressed on T cells

Antibody against CTLA-4 (cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated protein 4-receptor) expressed on T-cells

Antigen presenting cell (DC or macrophages) presents a processed antigen in the context of MHCII

Recognised by TCR on T-cell

For T-cell activation co-stimulatory signals from APC is needed (CD28 binds B7)

CTLA4 binds B7 no T-cell to terminate activation

Ipilimumab block CTLA-4

Common side effects related to inflammatory responses

Fatigue, diarrhea, skin rash, vomiting. Intravenous infusion 3 mg/kg every 3 weeks for 4 doses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are cancer approved treatment for ipilimumab?

A

Ipilimumab is approved for use in combination with the PD-1 inhibitor nivolumab to treat unresectable melanoma

Advanced treatment-naive renal cell carcinoma (RCC)

Metastatic microsatellite instability high (MSI-h) or mismatch repair deficient (dMMR) colorectal cancer that has progressed on previous treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe PD-1/PD-L1

A

PD-1 is a checkpoint receptor protein expressed on T cells and B cells

PD-L1 and PD-L2 are ligands to PD1 and is expressed by dendritic cells, macrophage (APC).

PD-L1 is expressed in various types of cancers, especially in NSCLC, melanoma, renal cell carcinoma, gastric cancer, hepatocellular as well as cutaneous and various leukemias, multiple myeloma etc.

It is present in the cytoplasm and plasma membrane of cancer cells, but not all cancers or all cells within a cancer express PD-L1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

describe PD-1/PD-L1 inhibitors.

A
  1. Tumour cells produce mutated antigens that are captured by dendritic cells
  2. The dendritic cells prime T cell with tumour antigen and stimulate the activation of cytotoxic T cells
  3. Activated T cells then travel to the tumour and infiltrate the tumour environment
  4. The activated T cells recognize and bind to the
    cancer cells
  5. The bound effector T cells release cytotoxins, which induce apoptosis in their target cancer cells
  6. The cancer cell can block the T-cell attack through PDL1 (cancer cells) binding to PD1 on T-cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

describe the regulation of PDL1 expression on cancer cells

A

PD-L1 expression is induced by multiple proinflammatory molecules including types I and II IFN-γ, TNF-α, LPS, GM-CSF and VEGF, as well as the cytokines IL-10 and IL-4

The most potent inducer of PDL1 expression is IFN-γ

IFN-γ and TNF-α are produced by activated type 1 T cells

GM-CSF and VEGF are produced by a variety of cancer stromal cells, the tumour microenvironment upregulates PD-L1 expression, thereby, promotes immune suppression allowing tumour cells to escape immunosurveillance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are examples of PD-1/PD-L1 inhibitors

A

pembrolizumbal
nivolumba
atezolizumab
avelumab
durmalumab
cemiplimab

17
Q

what is stats for checkpoints inhibitors?

A

Only a minority of patients benefits from checkpoint inhibitors

2014, pembrolizumab approved for the treatment of patients with unresectable or metastatic melanoma who have progressed following treatment with ipilimumab and, if BRAF V600 mutation positive, a BRAF inhibitor (keynote-001)

2015, approved for first-line treatment of patients with unresectable or metastatic melanoma.