Lecture 2: DNA Repair and Transcription Regulation Flashcards

1
Q

What is DNA damage?

A

Any change from the normal nucleotide sequence n supercoiled double helical state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Causes of DNA damage

A
  • Physical n chemical agents in the environment
    • UV light, free radicals produced during metabolism
  • Errors in DNA replication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What 2 general classes does DNA damage fall into?

A
  • Single base changes – produces mutations but have no effect on physical process of transcription or replication
    • Replication errors due to keto-enol type tautomerization
    • Deamination of cytosine to uracil
    • Incorporation of U rather than T during replication
    • Chemical modification of bases
  • Structural distortions may impede transcription and/or replication
    • Single strand breaks
    • Covalent modification of bases e.g. alkylation
    • Removal of a base
    • Interstrand and intrastrand covalent bonds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Cause of single base changes

A
  • Replication errors due to keto-enol type tautomerization
  • Deamination of cytosine to uracil → changes how they bind
  • Incorporation of U rather than T during replication
  • Chemical modification of bases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Give an example of structural distorNon in the context of DNA damage

A
  • Thymine dimer formation caused by UV light
    • 2 T on the same strand become covalently linked
    • Forms either
      • Cyclobutene structure
      • (6-4) photoproduct
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Cause of structural distortions

A
  • Single strand breaks
  • Covalent modifications of bases (e.g. alkylation)
  • Removal of a base
  • Interstrand n intrastrand covalent bands
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How are mismatches and structural distortions in DNA dealt with?

A
  • Direct repair: doesn’t require nucleotide template, cleavage or synthesis
    • Reversal or simple removal of the damage
  • Mismatch repair: bidirectional excision-resynthesis, detects + removes mismatch
    • Detection n repair of mismatched bases
  • Excision repair: large parts of the DNA are removed n replaced (removal +synthesis)
    • Recognition of the damage followed by excision of a patch of DNA n its replacement by undamaged DNA
  • Tolerance systems: allows DNA replication to proceed thru damaged regions of DNA
  • Retrieval systems: recombinational processes to repair damaged DNA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Give an example of direct repair

A

Photoreactivation

  • Repairs UV induced T-T dimers
  • Photolyase binds to T-T dimers in the dark
  • Contains 2 chromophores that absorb light energy
  • Uses this energy to split cyclobutene structures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Give an example of mismatch repair

A

Uracil DNA glycosylase

  • Context: U is sometimes incorporated into DNA instead of T
  • Uracil DNA glycosylase removes U
    • RESULT: AP site (gap in DNA where there’s no base)
  • AP endonuclease nicks the AP site
    • Makes a break in the phosphodiester backhone
  • DNA Pol I binds to the break
    • Adds new nucleotide
  • DNA ligase seals the gap
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the mut system?

A
  • MutS: recognizes mismatches and short insertion/deletions (indels) on hemi-methylated DNA and binds to them
  • MutL binds and stabilizes the complex
  • MutS-MutL complex activates MutH
  • MutH locates a nearby methyl group and nicks the newly synthesized strand opposite the methyl group
  • MutU (Helicase II) unwinds the DNA from the nick in the direction of the mismatch
  • DNA PolI degrades and replaces the unwound DNA and DNA ligase seals the single strand break
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the 3 excision repair modes found in E.coli?

A
  • Very short patch (deals with mismatches between bases)
  • Short patch: ~20 nucleotides
  • Long patch: 1500 - 10,000 bps
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does short and long patch repair utilize and what are they encoded by?

A
  • Both short and long patch repair utilize the repair endonuclease
  • Encoded by the uvrA, uvrB and uvrC genes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Give an example of excision repair

A
  • The enzyme (uvrABC) binds to damaged regions
    • Makes an incision on both sides of the damage
  • UvrD (i.e. MutU, DNA helicase II) separates strands n removes damaged DNA
  • DNA polI replaces the DNA and DNA ligase fills the gap
  • Short patch repair accounts for 99% of bulky lesions repair events
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Give an example of tolerance systems

A

Inducible error prone repair

  • Low-fidelity DNA polymerases (translesion synthesis polymerases (TSPs)) can synthesise DNA past damaged bases
  • Not efficient at replicating undamaged DNA accurately
  • Most lack proof-reading ability
  • Two in E. coli, polymerases IV and V, and five in human cells
  • Almost all are members of a new DNA pol family, the Y-family
  • In some circumstances make many errors, so can generate mutations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How does human polymerase η (eta) contribute to preventing UV-induced mutations and cancer?

A
  • Human polymerase η (eta) efficiently bypasses the major UV photoproduct, typically inserting the correct nucleotides.
  • It is less effective with other types of damage.
  • In individuals with xeroderma pigmentosum, a highly skin-cancer-prone genetic disorder, polymerase η is defective.
  • Its absence leads to an increased risk of UV-induced mutations and cancer.
  • Although one of its counterparts may substitute for it in its absence, it is less efficient, resulting in increased mutations and cancer susceptibility.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Give an example of a retrieval system

A

Daughter strand gap repair

  • Doesn’t fix DNA damage
  • Relies on other repair processes such as excision repair to repair the damage afterwards
17
Q

What is an SOS response?

A

If E. coli suffers severe DNA damage it activates the expression of a large number of diverse unlinked genes involved in DNA repair, error-prone DNA replication, etc.

18
Q

Explain the SOS response mechanism

A
  • All genes and operons under SOS control are subject to repression by the LexA protein
  • LexA has two domains: a dimerization and a DNA-binding domain
  • LexA box (conserved binding site) is located within the promoter genes regulate by LexA
  • Binding of LexA to the LexA boxes represses expression of SOS operons
  • RecA responds to DNA damage (e.g. presence of ssDNA) → RecA changes conformation which activates it (RecA*)
  • RecA*
    • Inhibits 3’→5’ editing in DNA Pol III, allowing error-prone DNA replication
    • Interacts with LexA, which autocleaves becomes inactive leading to the SOS response
  • sulA expression inhibits cell division
  • Once DNA damage is repaired RecA* converts back to RecA
  • LexA stops autocleaving and concentration increases
  • LexA represses SOS operons and cell division occurs
  • The SOS response allows the cell to survive severe DNA damage by allowing DNA replication but at the expense of fidelity. It is a last ditch effort by the cell to replicate with severe DNA damage
19
Q

What are the 2 general transcriptional mechanisms for gene expression control?

A
  • Induction: switching on genes when required
  • Repression: switching off of genes when not required
20
Q

What is an operon?

A

A cluster of genes transcribed from a single promoter to give a single mRNA but encodes several proteins

21
Q

What are the 2 types of regulatory proteins?

A
  • Repressors
  • Activators (apoinducers)
22
Q

What are repressors?

A

Regulatory proteins which prevent transcription when bound to the DNA

23
Q

What are activators?

A

Regulatory proteins which activate transcription when bound to the DNA

24
Q

What are 2 types of effectors bind to regulatory proteins n activate/inactivate them?

A
  • Inducers: activate activators in activate repressors (switch genes on)
  • Co-repressors: activate repressors or inactivate activators (switches genes off)
25
Q

What are regulons?

A

Genes associated w particular physiological function may not be in just one operon

26
Q

What is global regulation systems / global control?

A

Control systems that operate on a wide basis

27
Q

Why is there diauxic E.coli growth when glucose n lactose are both present?

A
  • E. coli prefers to use glucose as its carbon source
    • Catabolite repression
    • Glucose represses the synthesis of enzymes that metabolize lactose
  • If both glucose and an alternative carbon source is available the glucose is used first → Diauxic growth
  • If lactose is not present/glucose is present, E.coli will only hv few enzymes that metabolize lactose
    • E.coli only has enzymes that synthesize glycose in medium containing both glucose + lactose
  • When cells run out of glucose, there is rapid induction of enzymes for lactose metabolism
28
Q

How did Jacob n Monad show that specific proteins are expressed to regulate gene expression in the lac operon?

A
  • Experiment
    • Inserted Iac operon genes into the F plasmid to complement mutated Iac operon genes to chromosome
  • Why?
    • Merodiploid shows how complementation works
    • Recessive mutations as a working copy in the plasmid can correct mutation in the chromosome as they can diffuse across the cell
  • RESULT
    • Some genes encoded diffusible products that regulate gene expression of both DNA molecules
      • Transacting elements
    • Other genes didn’t produce a product but regulated genes on the DNA molecule they were encoded upon
      • Cis-acting elements
29
Q

What is gene complementation?

A
  • Mutations in two separate genes result in non-functional proteins, but when these mutated genes are present together in a cell, they compensate for each other’s deficiencies
  • RESULT: restoration of a normal phenotype.
30
Q

Describe gene complementation in the context of lac mutations

A
  • Both operons (sets of genes) are repressed initially.
  • Allolactose, an inducer, activates expression of both molecules.
  • The chromosome produces a functional LacZ gene, while the F’ plasmid carries a functional LacY gene.
  • These functional genes complement the two mutated genes, resulting in the restoration of normal phenotype due to the presence of functional proteins.
31
Q

What is a super repressor?

A
  • Repressor which won’t come off the operator
  • Leads to gene repression
  • Overrides the ability to complement
  • Dominant mutations
32
Q

What’s the difference b/w trans- and cis- acting elements?

A
  • Trans-acting
    • Product affects both DNA molecules
  • Cis-acting
    • Products only affects the DNA it’s on
33
Q

Give 2 examples of regulation by non-coding RNA (ncRNA)?

A
  • Addiction cassettes in plasmids
    • Plasmid makes stable mRNA which is lethal
    • Plasmid also makes ncRNA (unstable antisense RNA) that binds to lethal mRNA n prevents translation
    • If daughter cell has the plasmid
      • Lethal mRNA is repressed
    • Daughter cell doesn’t hv plasmid
      • ncRNA isn’t produced
      • Lethal mRNA is translated
      • RESULT: cell death
    • EXAMPLE: hok sok system in plasmid R1
  • Regulation of iron-containing genes in E.coli
    • RhyB (ncRNA) controls Fe2+ use
    • Iron freely available
      • FUR (global regulator) binds Fe2_ n represses rhyB
      • Iron requiring proteins made
      • Any free iron is attached to protein
    • Limited iron
      • FUR doesn’t bind Fe2+ → stops repressing rhyB
      • RhyB binds to mRNA of nonessential iron proteins
      • mRNA degrades
      • Need of Fe2+ in cell fals
      • Self regulates: as Fe2+ ↑, rhyB repression reactivates