Lecture 22: Bronchiectasis, Asthma and Vasculitis Flashcards

1
Q

what is the bronchiestasis?

A

Abnormal irreversible dilatation of the bronchi caused by destruction of the muscle and elastic tissue

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2
Q

bronchiectasis is an obstructive or restrictive disease?

A

obstructive

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3
Q

what is the pathophysiology of bronchiectasis?

A

1) The induction of bronchiectasis requires two factors:
- -An infectious insult
- -Impairment of drainage, airway obstruction
2) Involved bronchi are dilated, inflamed and easily collapsible, resulting in airflow obstruction and impaired clearance of secretions

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4
Q

list 2 important causes of upper lobe bronchiectasis

A

CF and TB

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5
Q

what are the causes of lung central zone bronchiectasis?

A

CF,ABPA, Congenital tracheobronchomegally

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6
Q

what are the causes of the lower lobe zone bronchiectasis?

A
  • -childhood infections
  • -aspirations
  • -immunodeficiency
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7
Q

what infections can cause bronchiectasis?

A
  • -Sequel to bronchopneumonia and bronchiolitis in childhood which has imperfectly resolved
  • -Pneumonia complicating measles or whooping cough
  • -Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis (ABPA)
  • -Chronic tuberculous cavities
  • -Primary Mycobacterium avium complex infection
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8
Q

what congenital conditions can cause bronchiectasis?

A

1) Primary ciliary dyskinesia
- -Poorly functioning cilia contribute to retention of secretions and recurrent infections
2) Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency
3) Cystic Fibrosis
4) Youngs syndrome
- -Chronic sinopulmonary infections
5) Marfan syndrome
6) Kartageners Syndrome
- -Characterised by a triad of dextrocardia, bronchiectasis and severe sinusitis.
- -Autosomal recessively inherited condition
- -Affects the mobility of the cilia

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9
Q

what is the ABPA?

A

Chronic exposure to Aspergillus can result in ABPA, presenting with asthmatic symptoms or sinusitis, especially in patients with a history of asthma or cystic fibrosis. It is primarily managed with glucocorticoid therapy.

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10
Q

what is primary ciliary dyskinesia?

A

A rare, autosomal recessive disorder caused by dysfunctional or absent cilia (e.g., due to mutations in the dynein arm or assembly proteins). Clinical features include recurrent otitis, sinusitis, chronic productive cough, and situs inversus. Fertility is usually reduced due to decreased sperm motility or dysfunctional fallopian tube cilia.

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11
Q

what is Young’s syndrome?

A

Young syndrome is a condition characterized by male infertility, damaged airways in the lungs (bronchiectasis), and inflammation of the sinuses (sinusitis). … Although the exact cause of Young syndrome has not been identified, it is believed to either be related to childhood exposure to mercury or genetic factors.

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12
Q

Kartagener syndrome vs Primary ciliary dyskinesia?

A

Kartagener is a subset of primary ciliary dyskinesia characterized by the triad of situs inversus, chronic sinusitis, and bronchiectasis. Additional clinical features of primary ciliary dyskinesia can also be present, such as reduced fertility, chronic ear infections, and conductive hearing loss.

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13
Q

how immunodeficiency syndromes lead to bronchiectasis?

A

Yes, due to increased rate of respiratory infections

  • -Persons with humoral immunodeficiency syndromes involving deficiencies of IgG, IgM and IgA (i.e Hypogammaglobulinaemia)
  • -Immunodeficiency due to malignancy eg myeloma, lymphoma
  • -Immunoglobulin replacement reduces the frequency of infections and prevents ongoing airway destruction
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14
Q

what are the causes of bronchial obstruction that can lead to bronchiectasis?

A
  • -Inhaled / aspirated foreign bodies
  • -Tumour
  • -Mucus plugs in asthma
  • -Compressive lymphadenopathy
  • -Chronic aspiration
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15
Q

which rheumatic conditions increase the risk of bronchiectasis?

A
  • -Sjogrens Syndrome
  • -Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
  • -Rheumatoid arthritis
  • -Also associated with inflammatory bowel disease especially ulcerative colitis
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16
Q

which side, left or right is commonly involved in bronchiectasis?

A
  • -Lower lobes; left > right

- -Often bilateral

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17
Q

Focal and Diffuse Presentations of bronchiectasis?

A
  • -Lower lobes; left > right
  • -Often bilateral
  • -Bronchi are dilated and contain thick mucopurulent secretions
  • -The wall is destroyed with chronic inflammation and lymphoid follicles
  • -Bronchial arteries are increased in size
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18
Q

inflammation and impaired mucociliary clearance lead to the release of what substance that results in lung destruction?

A
elastase
trypsin
viscous DNA (from dead cells,  bacteria, and leukocytes)
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19
Q

which substances fight destructive proteases to prevent lung damage?

A
  • -elastase inhibitor
  • -Alpha-1-antitrypsin
  • -Dornase alpha
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20
Q

which microbes commonly colonize lungs in bronchiectasis?

A
  • -P.aeruginosa
  • -S aureus
  • -H. influenzae
  • -Burkholderia cepacia
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21
Q

bronchiectasis histologically is characterized by…

A
  • -increased mucos exuates
  • -cartilage destruction and fibrosis
  • -mucous glan hyperplasia
  • -inflammatory cell infiltration
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22
Q

what are the signs and symptoms of bronchiectasis?

A

Productive cough with purulent sputum

  • -Sputum may be mucoid, mucopurulent, thick or viscous
  • -Blood streaked sputum or copious hemoptysis may result from erosive airway damage due to acute infection
  • -Dyspnoea and wheezing in 75%
  • -Pleuritic pain in 50%
  • -Recurrent LRTI
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23
Q

what are the auscultating findings of bronchiectasis?

A
  • -Crackles and rhonchi
  • -Wheezing (due to obstruction from secretions, airway collapsibility, or a concomitant condition)
  • -Bronchophony
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24
Q

what is the cause of massive hemoptysis in bronchiectasis?

A

Results from the rupture of dilated bronchial wall vessels (not pulmonary vessels)

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25
Q

Bronchiectasis should be suspected in a patient with chronic cough producing large amounts of sputum. T/F

A

True

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26
Q

what are the P/E findings of a patient with bronchiectasis?

A

1) Crackles, coarse crepitations, and rhonchi on auscultation
2) Clubbing a common finding in the past, rare now 3%
3) The major confounding disease is COPD

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27
Q

what are the complications of bronchiectasis?

A
  • -Massive hemoptysis
  • -Respiratory failure
  • -Brain abscess
  • -Amyloidosis
  • -Recurrent bronchopulmonary infections → obstructive ventilation disorder → respiratory failure and cor pulmonale
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28
Q

what investigations should be performed in suspected bronchiectasis?

A

1) Bloods
- -FBC, U&E
- -Exclude / confirm aetiologies eg autoantibody screen, sweat test, serum immunoglobulins, IgE, alpha-1-AT levels, etc
2) Microbiology
- -Sputum C&S
- -Blood cultures if clinically indicated
- -Exclude infectious aetiologies (eg TB, aspergillus, etc)
3) Radiology
- -CXR
- -CT Thorax
4) Bronchoscopy
- -Obstruction
- -Culture and cytology of washings
5) PFT’s

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29
Q

what are the characteristic imaging findings of bronchiectasis?

A

1) CXR
- -Inflammation and fibrosis of bronchial walls lead to the appearance of parallel “tram track” lines
- -Thin-walled cysts (i.e., dilated bronchi forming sacs), possibly with air-fluid levels
- -Late-stage bronchiectasis: honeycombing
2) High-resolution computer tomography (HRCT): confirmatory test
- -Dilated bronchi with thickened walls; possible signet-ring appearance and tram track lines
- -Cysts, especially at bronchial ends in lower lobes, and honeycombing

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30
Q

in bronchiectasis, PFT is characterized by…

A

Pulmonary function tests: findings consistent with obstructive pulmonary disease (i.e. ↓ FEV1/FVC ratio)

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31
Q

what is the indication of bronchoscopy in bronchiectasis?

A

to visualize tumors, foreign bodies, or other lesions; may also be used in combination with bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) to obtain specimens for staining and culture

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32
Q

Pathological Classification of Bronchiectasis:

A
  • Cylindrical
  • Varicose
  • Cystic
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33
Q

what is the treatment of bronchiectasis?

A
  • -Confirm correct diagnosis
  • -Treat infectious exacerbations
  • -Reduce risk factors (smoking!!)
  • -Vaccinations (including Influenza vaccine and pneumococcal vaccine)
  • -Chest physiotherapy
  • -Nebulised DNAase, Nebulised antibiotics
  • -Maintenance antibiotics
  • -Surgery (if focal)
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34
Q

what is the Dornase alpha (nebulizedDNAase)

A

A recombinant form of DNAse that breaks down extracellular DNA in sputum, thereby reducing its viscosity, and increasing mucociliary clearance. Used in cystic fibrosis.

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35
Q

what invasive procedures can be performed n bronchiectasis?

A
  • -Surgical resection of bronchiectatic lung or lobectomy: indicated in pulmonary hemorrhage, inviability of bronchus, and substantial sputum production in unilateral bronchiectasis
  • -Pulmonary artery embolization: indicated in pulmonary hemorrhage
  • -Lung transplantation should be considered in severe disease.
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36
Q

define pleural effusion

A
  • -Accumulation of fluid in the pleural space
  • -Empyema: accumulation of infected fluid in the pleural space
  • -Normally a small amount of thin, pale yellow fluid is present in the pleural space to allow movement of the visceral pleural against the parietal pleura
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37
Q

Pleural effusions are classified as:

A
  • -TRANSUDATE

- -EXUDATE

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38
Q

Transudate versus Exudate

A
  • -Transudates have low specific gravity, low protein and few cells
  • -Causes include heart failure, fluid overload, nephrotic syndrome, Peritoneal dialysis
  • -Exudates have high specific gravity, high protein and lots of cells
  • -Causes include infection, malignancy, pulmonary emboli
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39
Q

what is the transudate?

A

A type of fluid that is low in proteins and cells and typically due to the permeation of fluid from intact vessels into a cavity. Causes include increased capillary hydrostatic pressure (e.g., pleural effusion in congestive heart failure) and/or decreased capillary oncotic pressure (e.g., edema due to lack of albumin).

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40
Q

what is the exudate?

A

A protein-rich fluid that occurs as a result of increased vascular permeability from inflammation. Analysis of the fluid reveals a cellular (cloudy) fluid with high protein and low glucose concentration. Can accumulate in cavities (e.g., pleural space, pericardial space).

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41
Q

what is the pathophysiology of pleural effusion?

A
  • -Pleural fluid will accumulate when the rate of pleural fluid formation is greater than the rate of pleural fluid removal by the lymphatics
  • -A transudative effusion occurs when alterations in the systemic factors that influence pleural fluid movement result in a pleural effusion. Examples are elevated visceral pleural capillary pressure with left heart failure, elevated parietal pleural capillary pressure with right heart failure, decreased serum oncotic pressure with nephrotic syndrome, hepatic cirrhosis
  • -An exudative effusion occurs when the pleural surfaces are altered. Inflammation of the pleura, leading to increased protein in the pleural space is the most common cause of the exudative effusion
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42
Q

A transudative effusion occurs when the pleural surfaces are altered. Inflammation of the pleura, leading to increased protein in the pleural space is the most common cause of the exudative effusion. T/F

A

False
A transudative effusion occurs when alterations in the systemic factors that influence pleural fluid movement result in a pleural effusion. Examples are elevated visceral pleural capillary pressure with left heart failure, elevated parietal pleural capillary pressure with right heart failure, decreased serum oncotic pressure with nephrotic syndrome, hepatic cirrhosis

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43
Q

what are the clinical features of pleural effusion?

A
  • -Dyspnoea
  • -Pleuritic chest pain
  • -Cough, haemoptysis
  • -Weight loss
  • -Trauma
  • -History of other malignancy or cardiac surgery
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44
Q

what are the P/E findings of pleural effusion?

A
  • -Decreased breath sounds over side of effusion
  • -Bronchial breath sounds immediately above effusion
  • -Dull to percussion
  • -Absent / reduced tactile fremitus
  • -Other findings (depending on underlying cause)
  • Ascites, JVP, peripheral oedema, friction rub, unilateral leg swelling etc
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45
Q

tactile fremitus is increased over the pleural effusion. T/F

A

False

decrased. It is increased in consolidation (pneumonia)

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46
Q

what is the management of pleural effusion?

A
  • -CXR
  • -+/- CT Thorax
  • -Blood tests
  • -Thoracocentesis
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47
Q

what is the thoracocentesis?

A

A procedure performed to drain an accumulation of pleural fluid (pleural effusion) by inserting a needle into the pleural cavity. Ultrasonography is used to determine the location and size of the pleural effusion. Indications include drainage for symptom relief (e.g., dyspnea) and fluid analysis for diagnosis of the underlying cause (e.g., infection, malignancy).

48
Q

how thoracocentesis is perofmred?

A
  • -Indicated if effusion persists > 3 days

- -Performed at the bedside; but may require radiological guidance, particularly if small or loculated

49
Q

what is looked for in pleural fluid obtained during thoracocentesis?

A

–Gross appearance of fluid helpful
1)Bloody,
2)Cloudy
3)Malodorous
(Usually thin and yellow)
–Ratio of pleural fluid protein to serum protein measured
–Glucose, LDH, +/- amylase
–Cytology: inflammatory cells, malignant cells
–Culture & Sensitivity

50
Q

what are the causes of transudative pleural effusion?

A
  • -CHF
  • -cirrhosis
  • -nephrotic syndrome
  • -hypoalbuminemia
  • -myxedema/hypothyroidism
  • -peritoneal dialysis
  • -glomerulonephritis
  • -SVC obstruction
  • -post cardiac surgery
  • -post MI
  • -Meigs syndrome -ovarian tumour plus effusion
51
Q

what are the causes of exudative pleural effusion?

A
  • -Infection (parapneumonic effusion, empyema)
  • -Bronchiectasis
  • -Lung abscess
  • -TB
  • -Neoplasms (primary, metastatic)
  • -lymphoma
  • -Granulomatous disorders
  • -Pulmonary embolism /infarction
  • -Connective tissue diseases (SLE, RA)
  • -Acute rheumatic fever
52
Q

the physical appearance of transudate vs exudate?

A

1) Does not froth or form clots
2) Cloudy or straw-colored fluid (may rarely be hemorrhagic): Whether an effusion is exudative cannot be determined based on color alone.
- -Froths when shook and forms clots when left standing

53
Q

Specific gravity of transudate vs exudate?

A

≤ 1.016

> 1.016

54
Q

pH of transudate vs exudate?

A

1) 7.4–7.55
2) 7.3–7.45
- -A pH < 7.30 should raise concern for parapneumonic effusion/empyema or malignant effusion.

55
Q

glucose of transudate vs exudate?

A

1) ≥ 60 mg/dL
2) < 60 mg/dL
- -30–59 mg/dL: suggests malignant effusion, tuberculous pleurisy, empyema, pneumonia, esophageal rupture, or lupus pleuritis
- -< 30 mg/dL: suggests rheumatoid pleurisy or empyema

56
Q

Total protein of transudate vs exudate?

A

≤ 30 g/L

> 30 g/L

57
Q

what is the light’s criteria?

A

A validated measure that determines if pleural fluid is exudative. One of the following has to be present: pleural fluid protein/serum protein ratio greater than 0.5; pleural fluid LDH/serum LDH > 0.6; or pleural fluid LDH > 2/3 the upper limit of serum LDH reference range.

58
Q

define the asthma

A
  • -Episodic, reversible bronchospasm (airflow obstruction) resulting from exaggerated bronchoconstriction in response to various stimuli
  • -Chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways
  • -Recurrent episodes of wheezing, breathlessness, chest tightness and coughing
  • -Heterogeneous disease triggered by a wide variety of inciting agents
59
Q

what is the epidemiology of asthma?

A

–300 million people worldwide
–10-15% of children, 7-10% of adults
–Young children commonest; boys>girls
–Adolescents least common, higher frequency in adults
Childhood asthma has a good prognosis

60
Q

what is the pathophysiology of asthma?

A

1) Inflammation of the airways
2) The smooth muscle surrounding airway becomes oedematous and tightens airway
3) Reduces the amount of air that can pass through leading to wheeze
4) Airway epithelium becomes oedematous, erythematous and inflamed
5) Inflammatory mediators include:
- -Type 2 T helper lymphocytes, IL-4, IL-5, IL-13
- -Eosinophils, IgE, Mast cells, histamine, leukotrienes

61
Q

which inflammatory mediators are involved in the pathophysiology of asthma?

A
  • -Type 2 T helper lymphocytes, IL-4, IL-5, IL-13

- -Eosinophils, IgE, Mast cells, histamine, leukotrienes

62
Q

what is the role of IL-4?

A

A cytokine produced by Th2 cells that promotes differentiation of naive CD4+ T cells to produce additional Th2 cells (positive feedback). Also induces class switching of B-cells from IgM-producing to IgG- and IgE-producing subtypes.

63
Q

what is the role of IL-5?

A

A cytokine secreted by mast cells that stimulates eosinophil proliferation and activation. Also secreted by T cells to promote B cell differentiation and class switching to IgA.

64
Q

what is the role of IL-13?

A

A cytokine that is primarily produced by Th2 CD4 cells. It activates the alternative macrophage activation pathway and acts on B cells to induce isotype switching to IgE

65
Q

what are the symptoms of asthma?

A
  • -Episodic SOB
  • -Wheeze
  • -Chest tightness
  • -Cough
  • -+/- sputum production
  • -Generally worse in morning
  • -History: elicit triggers
66
Q

Endobronchial obstruction caused by…

A
  • -Bronchospasm
  • -Mucosal edema
  • -Hypertrophy of smooth muscle cells
  • -Increased mucus production
67
Q

allergic vs non-allergic asthma?

A

1) Allergic asthma: IgE-mediated type 1 hypersensitivity to a specific allergen; characterized by mast cell degranulation and release of histamine after a prior phase of sensitization
2) Nonallergic asthma
- -Irritant asthma: irritant enters lung → ↑ release of neutrophils → submucosal edema → airway obstruction
- -Aspirin-induced asthma: NSAID inhibition of COX-1 → ↓ PGE2 → ↑ leukotrienes and inflammation → submucosal edema → airway obstruction

68
Q

what are the causative factors of asthma?

A

1) Allergic asthma (extrinsic asthma)
- -Cardinal risk factor: atopy
- -Environmental allergens: pollen (seasonal), dust mites, domestic animals (The triggering allergens are proteins present in dander and saliva. Proteins in saliva are transferred to animal hair and feathers through grooming.), mold spores
- -Allergic occupational asthma: from exposure to allergens in the workplace (e.g., flour dust): Baker’s asthma is one of the most common forms of occupational disease.
2) Nonallergic asthma (intrinsic asthma)
- -Viral respiratory tract infections (one of the most common stimuli, especially in children)
- -Cold air
- -Physical exertion (exercise-induced asthma)
- -Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD): often exists concurrently with asthma
- -Chronic sinusitis or rhinitis
- -Medication: aspirin/NSAIDS (aspirin-induced asthma), beta-blockers
- -Stress
- -Irritant-induced asthma (e.g., from exposure to solvents, ozone, tobacco or wood smoke, cleaning agents)

69
Q

what are the extrinsic factors that cause asthma?

A

1) Antigen-induced asthma
- -Commonest type (30-50%)
- -Airborne allergens - pollens, animal hair or fur, insect contamination of house dust mite
2) Occupation Related
- -80 different substances identified,
- - e.g. animal handlers, woodworkers, fumes from hardening agents (resin ), etc
3) Environmental pollution
- -Sulphur dioxide, ozone
4) Drug-induced:
- -Aspirin
- -Samter’s triad: Aspirin sensitivity, asthma, and nasal polyps
- -NSAIDs
- -Antibiotics
- -Beta-blockers
- -ACE inhibitors
5) Viral respiratory tract infections
- -Children - Respiratory syncytial virus, influenza, rhinovirus
5) Exercise - in patients who already have asthma
- -Heat loss from the epithelium
- -Severe exercise and cold air increase risk

70
Q

what drugs can cause asthmatic symptoms and bronchospasm?

A
  • -Aspirin (Samter’s triad: Aspirin sensitivity, asthma, and nasal polyps)
  • -NSAIDs
  • -Antibiotics
  • -Beta-blockers
  • -ACE inhibitors
71
Q

what is the Samter’s triad?

A

Bronchial asthma and/or chronic rhinosinusitis with polyposis in patients with hypersensitivity to aspirin or other cyclooxygenase-1 inhibitors.

72
Q

what is an aspirin-exacerbated respiratory disease (AERD)?

A
  • -Definition: a chronic condition characterized by Samter’s triad; exacerbated by a pseudoallergic sensitivity reaction to aspirin and other NSAIDs (NSAID intolerance)
  • -Clinical features: Samter’s triad (asthma, chronic/recurrent rhinosinusitis, nasal polyps)
  • -Diagnosis: NSAID/aspirin challenge test
  • -Treatment: avoid NSAIDs; aspirin desensitization
73
Q

what is the presentation of AERD?

A
  • -Patients present with a history of chronic upper/lower respiratory symptoms and episodes of NSAID-triggered hypersensitivity reaction (bronchospasm) within a few hours of consuming an NSAID. AERD is not an immune-mediated (IgE) allergic response, but a pseudoallergic reaction.
  • -Patients present with shortness of breath due to bronchoconstriction, malaise, weakness, fatigue, and/or skin flushing/rash after ingestion of aspirin.
74
Q

what is exercise-induced asthma?

A

Asthma in which bronchoconstriction is triggered by physical exertion. Treated by short-acting inhaled β-agonists shortly before exercise and reduction of potential environmental triggers (cold air, allergens).

75
Q

what is intrinsic asthma (non-allergic) asthma

A
  • -Adults
  • -No individual or family history of atopic disease
  • -Skin/inhalation tests negative
  • -Nasal Polyps
  • -Drug hypersensitivity to aspirin,
  • -Penicillin
  • -Often associated with COPD
  • -Prognosis less good
76
Q

what are the microscopical features of asthma?

A
  • -Airway infiltration by neutrophils and eosinophils
  • -Mast cell degranulation
  • -Basement membrane thickening
  • -Loss of epithelial integrity
  • -Occlusion of the bronchial lumen by mucus
  • -Hyperplasia and hypertrophy of bronchial smooth muscle and goblet cells
77
Q

what is the natural history of asthma?

A
  • -In the majority of patients it is not progressive (contrast with chronic bronchitis, cystic fibrosis, bronchiectasis)
  • -Some (minority) patients do develop irreversible changes in lung function
  • -Clinical course is characterized by remissions and exacerbations
78
Q

what is the pulmonary thromboembolism?

A

Pulmonary embolism is a complication arising from deep vein thrombosis that results in a blood clot blocking the pulmonary artery or its branches

79
Q

what are the sources of PE?

A
  • ->95% arise from thrombi in deep veins of lower legs (popliteal vein or above)
  • -Thromboemboli do not usually arise from superficial or smaller leg veins
80
Q

Pulmonary thromboembolism can arise from leg superficial veins. T/F

A

False

Only from deep veins

81
Q

what is the pathophysiology of PE?

A

thrombus formation → deep vein thrombosis in the legs or pelvis (most commonly iliac vein) → embolization to pulmonary arteries via inferior vena cava → partial or complete obstruction of pulmonary arteries

82
Q

what is the pathophysiologic response of the lung to arterial obstruction

A

1) Infarction and inflammation of the lungs and pleura)
- -Causes pleuritic chest pain and hemoptysis
- -Leads to surfactant dysfunction → atelectasis → ↓ PaO2
- -Triggers respiratory drive → hyperventilation and tachypnea → respiratory alkalosis with hypocapnia (↓ PaCO2)
2) Impaired gas exchange
- -Mechanical vessel obstruction → ventilation-perfusion mismatch → arterial hypoxemia (↓ PaO2) and elevated A-a gradient (see “Diagnostics” below)
3) Cardiac compromise
- -Elevated pulmonary artery pressure (PAP) due to blockage → right ventricular pressure overload → forward failure with decreased cardiac output → hypotension and tachycardia

83
Q

what are the risk factors of PE and DVT?

A

1) Immobilization:
- -Prolonged bed rest
- -Surgery
2) Severe trauma
3) CCF
4) Pregnancy
5) OCP
6) Malignancy
7) Hypercoagulable states:
- -Factor V Leiden mutation
- -Protein C, Protein S deficiency
- -Antithrombin III deficiency
- -Lupus anticoagulant
- -Homocysteinuria
8) Connective tissue disease

84
Q

what is the hypercoagulability state?

A

An inherited or acquired state in which an individual is predisposed to forming blood clots. This most often manifests as recurrent deep vein thromboses or pulmonary emboli. Etiologies include conditions of inherited thrombophilia (e.g., factor V Leiden mutation), malignancy, pregnancy and the puerperium, various drugs (e.g., oral contraceptives, tamoxifen), and immobilization.

85
Q

what are the causes of circulatory stasis?

A
  • -Afib
  • -LVD
  • -immobility or paralysis
  • -venous insufficiency and varicose veins
  • -venous obstruction from tumor, obesity or pregnancy
86
Q

what are the causes of the vascular wall injury

A
  • -trauma/surgery
  • -venipuncture
  • -chemical irritation
  • -heart valve disease of replacement
  • -atherosclerosis
  • -catheters
87
Q

what are the consequences of the obstructed artery?

A

1) Depends on the size of the embolism, which in turn dictates the size of the occluded pulmonary artery
2) Consequences:
- -Increase in pulmonary artery pressure from blockage of flow and vasospasm caused by neurogenic mechanisms and release of mediators
- -Ischaemia of downstream pulmonary parenchyma
- -Occlusion of a major vessel causes a sudden increase in pulmonary artery pressure, diminished cardiac output, acute cor pulmonale and possibly sudden death
- -Occlusion of a smaller vessel is less catastrophic and may even be clinically silent

88
Q

PE is usually silent (60-80%). T/F

A

True.

  • -Small and embolic mass is removed by fibrinolytic activity
  • -Bronchial circulation sustains the viability of affected lung parenchyma
89
Q

what is the cause of sudden cardiac death in PE?

A
  • -Acute cor pulmonale, cardiovascular collapse when >60% of the vasculature os obstructed
  • -death due to PEA
90
Q

Obstruction of small to medium pulmonary branches (10-15%) results in…

A

pulmonary infarction; patients complain of dyspnoea, hemoptysis, pleuritic chest pain

91
Q

Recurrent PE may lead to…

A

pulmonary hypertension, chronic right sided heart stain (chronic cor pulmonale, pulmonary vascular sclerosis

92
Q

what is the classic presentation of PE?

A
  • -Sudden onset pleuritic chest pain
  • -SOB
  • -Hypoxia
  • -Syncope, seizures
  • -Decreased level of consciousness
  • -New-onset atrial fibrillation
  • -hemoptysis
93
Q

infarction in PE is usually central. T/F

A

False

  • -Usually peripheral
  • -Wedge-shaped with the base at the pleural surface
  • -Hemorrhage and appear as raised red-blue areas in early stage
  • -Adjacent pleural covered in a fibrinous exudate; can cause pleuritic chest pain and effusion
94
Q

what investigations should be performed in suspected PE?

A

1) History and physical examination
- -Assess risk
- -Examine lower limbs for DVT
- -CVS: S3, S4 gallop, Loud P2
2) Bloods
- -D-Dimers
- -ABG
3) Radiology
- -VQ scan
- -CT pulmonary angiogram(PE protocol)
- -Duplex ultrasonography (DVT)
- -ECHO (central PE)
4) ECG
- -Tachycardia (>100/min)
- -S1Q3T3

95
Q

what are the ECG characteristics of PE?

A
  • -SIQIIITIII -pattern (S wave in lead I, Q wave in lead III and T-wave inversion in lead III. However, this characteristic pattern is rare.)
  • -New right bundle branch block
  • -Bradycardia < 50 or tachycardia > 100 bpm
  • -Right or extreme right axis deviation (30% of cases)
  • -T negativity in leads V2and V3 (∼ 30%)
96
Q

what is the management of PE?

A

1) Oxygen
2) Pain relief
3) Thrombolytic therapy
4) Long term anticoagulation
5) Surgical options
- -Embolectomy
6) Prevention
- -Mobilization
- -Anticoagulation
- -Vena cava filters
- -stockings
7) Investigate for the underlying cause

97
Q

examples of non-thrombotic emboli

A
  • -Air embolism
  • -Fat embolism
  • -Amniotic fluid embolism
  • -Foreign body embolism
  • -Bone marrow embolism
98
Q

what is the diffuse alveolar hemorrhage?

A

1) Primary immune-mediated diseases
2) Present as a triad
- -Haemoptysis
- -Anaemia
- -Diffuse pulmonary infiltrates

99
Q

what are the causes of diffuse alveolar hemorrhage?

A

1) Prototype: Goodpasture syndrome
2) Secondary causes:
- -Necrotizing bacterial pneumonia
- -Bleeding diathesis
- -Passive venous congestion

100
Q

examples of vasculitis affecting lung?

A
  • -Pulmonary angiitis and granulomatosis (GPA; aka Wegener granulomatosis)
  • -Churg-Strauss syndrome
  • -Collagen vascular disorders
101
Q

what is Goodpasture syndrome?

A
  • -Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis plus hemorrhagic interstitial pneumonitis
  • -Renal and pulmonary lesions are caused by antibodies to antigens common to glomerular and pulmonary basement membranes
  • -Example of type II cytotoxic antibody-mediated hypersensitivity
  • -Antibodies can be detected in the serum in >90% of patients (Anti glomerular basement membrane antibodies; also called anti-GBM disease)
  • -Lungs shows focal necrosis of alveolar walls associated with intra-alveolar hemorrhages, fibrous thickening of septae
  • -Hemosiderin laden macrophages are seen in the acute setting
  • -Management: Plasmapheresis and immunosuppressive therapy
  • -Plasma exchange removes offending antibodies and immunosuppressive drugs inhibit antibody production
102
Q

what is the pathophysiology of Goodpasture syndrome?

A
  • -Auto-antibodies against collagen type IV in the renal and pulmonary capillary basement membrane
  • -Possibly triggered by viral infections, lymphoma
103
Q

Goodpasture syndrome is a type 2 or 3 HSR?

A

type 2

Anti-GBM antibodies

104
Q

what is the Granulomatosis with polyangiitis?

A

1) Multisystem autoimmune disorder of unknown etiology
2) Hallmark:
- -Pauci-immune vasculitis of small to medium-sized vessels
- -Necrotising granulomatous inflammation
3) A spectrum of clinical presentations
4) Diagnosis
- -Bloods & urinalysis
* FBC, U&E, ESR, CRP
- -Antineutrophil Cytoplasmic antibody (ANCA)
* Cytoplasmic ANCA (c-ANCA) directed against PR3 is most specific for GPA
* Some patients with GPA express perinuclear staining ANCA (p-ANCA) specific for myeloperoxidase (MPO)
- -Radiology
* CXR, CT Thorax (nodular densities, may cavitate), CT sinus
- -Biopsy (only in an atypical presentation)
* Lungs: necrotizing vasculitis, parenchymal necrotizing granulomatous inflammation
* Vessels: acute and chronic inflammation with fibrinoid necrosis of vessel wall
5) Management
- -Cyclophosphamide plus glucocorticosteroids
- -Steroids plus Rituximab
- -Plasma exchange for severe renal disease
- -Maintenance therapy in remission

105
Q

what is the hallmark of GPA?

A
  • -Pauci-immune vasculitis of small to medium sized vessels

- -Necrotising granulomatous inflammation

106
Q

GPA is characterized by the presence of p-ANCA or c-ANCA?

A
c-ANCA
Cytoplasmic ANCA (c-ANCA) directed against PR3 is most specific for GPA
107
Q

what are the characteristic findings on biopsy of GPA?

A
  • Lungs: necrotizing vasculitis, parenchymal necrotizing granulomatous inflammation
  • Vessels: acute and chronic inflammation with fibrinoid necrosis of vessel wall
108
Q

GPA is treated with immunosuppressive agents. True/False

A

True

  • -Cyclophosphamide plus glucocorticosteroids
  • -Steroids plus Rituximab
  • -Plasma exchange for severe renal disease
  • -Maintenance therapy in remission
109
Q

what are the clinical features of GPA?

A

1) Recurrent RTI’s, fever, night sweats, fatigue, lethargy, weight loss, anorexia
2) Ophthalmic
- -Conjunctivitis, episcleritis
3) ENT
- -Chronic sinusitis, rhinitis, epistaxis
4) Pulmonary
- -Pulmonary infiltrates, cough, hemoptysis, dyspnoea, diffuse alveolar hemorrhage due to alveolar capillaritis
5) Musculoskeletal
- -Myalgia, arthralgia
6) Renal
- -Crescentic necrotizing glomerulonephritis
7) CNS
8) Cutaneous
- -Vasculitic ulcers
9) Cardiac
- -Pericardial rub

110
Q

what is the Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA; Churg-Strauss Disease)?

A
  • -Rare systemic necrotizing, granulomatous vasculitis, affects small to medium-sized vessels, associated with severe asthma and blood and tissue eosinophilia
  • -p-ANCA associated vasculitis (like microscopic polyangiitis)
111
Q

what are the diagnostic criteria of Churg-Strauss?

A
  • -asthma
  • -eosinophilia>10%
  • -pulmonary infiltrates
  • -mono or polyneuropathy
  • -paranasal sinus abnormality
  • -extravascular eosinophils on biopsy
112
Q

what is the clinical presentation of Churg0Strauss?

A

1) Constitutional symptoms
- -Malaise, fever, weight loss, myalgia
2) Asthma
3) Paranasal sinusitis
4) Allergic rhinitis
- -Recurrent sinusitis
- -Polyposis
5) Pulmonary symptoms
- -Cough, hemoptysis
6) Arthralgia
7) Skin
- -Purpura, bullae, nodules, digital ischemia
8) Cardiac
- -Myocarditis, pericarditis, MI
9) GIT
- -Eosinophilic gastroenteritis
10) Peripheral neuropathy
- -Mononeuritis multiplex

113
Q

what investigations should be performed in suspected CHurg-Strauss?

A
  • -Bloods: ESR, CRP, U&E, FBC (eosinophilia), IgE, rheumatoid factor positive (low titer), p-ANCA +
  • -Bronchoscopy: Lavage fluid shows raised eosinophils
  • -Radiology: CXR, CT thorax
  • -GI investigations (bleeding)
  • -EMG (nerve damage)
  • -Biopsy (depend on the site of involvement eg skin biopsy)
114
Q

cyclophosphamide is the first-line treatment of Churg-Strauss. T/F

A

False

Steroid; less frequently require cyclophosphamide, Rituximab

115
Q

what is the mononeuritis multiplex?

A

An asymmetrical sensory and/or motor peripheral neuropathy involving damage to ≥ 2 peripheral nerves in separate areas of the body. Common causes include diabetic microangiopathy, medium-vessel vasculitis, certain granulomatous diseases (e.g., sarcoidosis), amyloidosis, and certain infections (e.g., Lyme disease, leprosy, HIV).

116
Q

examples of collagen vascular disorders that can affect the lungs?

A

SLE, rheumatoid arthritis, scleroderma, dermatomyositis-polymyositis

117
Q

what are the manifestations of collagen disorders affecting the lungs?

A
  • -Interstitial pneumonia -> diffuse interstitial fibrosis
  • -Pulmonary hypertension
  • -Pulmonary vasculitis
  • -Diffuse alveolar hemorrhage
  • -Pleuritis