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Lecture 4 Flashcards

(59 cards)

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1
Q
A
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2
Q

What is a key risk indicator (KRI)?

A

Metrics of the upper and lower bounds of specific indicators of normal network activity

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3
Q

What might a KRI exceeding its normal bounds indicate?

A

A compromise or indicator of compromise IOC

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4
Q

What does IOC stand for in cybersecurity?

A

Indicator of compromise

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5
Q

What does an IOC show?

A

Malicious activity is occurring in early stages of an attack

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6
Q

What is the purpose of IOC information?

A

To aid predictive analysis or discover attacks before they occur

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7
Q

What are the two main categories of threat intelligence sources?

A

Open source and closed source

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8
Q

What does OSINT stand for?

A

Open source intelligence

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9
Q

What is CISCP?

A

Cyber Information Sharing and Collaboration Program that enables unclassified information exchange through partnerships

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10
Q

Name two services CISCP provides.

A

Analyst to analyst technical exchanges and digital malware analysis

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11
Q

What are two concerns about public information-sharing centres?

A

Privacy and speed

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12
Q

What is AIS in cybersecurity threat sharing?

A

Automated Indicator Sharing for cyber threat indicators exchange via computers

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13
Q

Name the two tools that facilitate AIS.

A

STIX and TAXII

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14
Q

What does STIX stand for?

A

Structured Threat Information Expression

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15
Q

What does TAXII stand for?

A

Trusted Automated Exchange of Intelligence Information

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16
Q

What is closed source information?

A

Proprietary threat intelligence shared in private restricted centres

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17
Q

What is required to participate in closed source threat sharing centres?

A

Vetting process and meeting certain criteria

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18
Q

What is a vulnerability database?

A

Repository of known vulnerabilities and exploitation information

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19
Q

What are threat maps?

A

Cyber threats shown on a geographic diagram

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20
Q

What is the purpose of file and code repositories in threat intelligence?

A

Where victims upload malicious files and code for analysis by others

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21
Q

What is the dark web?

A

A small portion of the deep web accessed using special software often linked with illegal activities

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22
Q

What is the clear web?

A

The internet accessible via standard browsers indexed by search engines

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23
Q

What is the deep web?

A

Parts of the internet not indexed by search engines including private or paywall content

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24
Q

What software is commonly used to access the dark web?

25
What domain extension do dark web sites use?
.onion
26
Name three major tasks in securing endpoint computers.
Confirming secure startup, protecting from attacks, hardening protection
27
What firmware interface replaced BIOS for improved boot functionality?
Unified Extensible Firmware Interface UEFI
28
Name one feature of UEFI over BIOS.
Support for hard drives larger than 2TB
29
What is a BIOS attack?
Malware infecting the BIOS firmware to compromise boot process
30
What is chain of trust in boot security?
Validating each boot step element based on the previous to ensure integrity
31
What is considered the strongest starting point in chain of trust?
Hardware root of trust that cannot be modified like software
32
Name one software used to protect computer endpoints.
Antivirus software
33
What is static analysis in antivirus software?
Signature based monitoring scanning for known virus patterns before execution
34
What is heuristic monitoring also called?
Dynamic analysis that detects unknown threats by behavior
35
What technique is used in antimalware spam protection?
Bayesian filtering analyzing word frequency in emails
36
What feature helps prevent spyware infections?
Antispyware using pop-up blockers
37
What protocol secures cookies between browser and web server?
HTTPS protocol
38
What is HIDS?
Host Intrusion Detection System software that detects attacks on an endpoint
39
What is HIPS?
Host Intrusion Prevention System that blocks attacks following rules immediately
40
What does EDR stand for?
Endpoint Detection and Response
41
What advantage do EDR tools have over HIDS and HIPS?
Aggregate data centrally and perform sophisticated analytics for anomalies
42
What is patch management?
Administering and applying software updates to fix vulnerabilities
43
Name two patch management tools or options.
Automated patch update service and forced updates in Windows 10
44
Name one OS security configuration practice.
Disabling unnecessary ports and services
45
What is Windows 10 Tamper Protection?
Feature that prevents unauthorized changes to security settings or registry
46
What is application whitelisting?
Allowing only approved software to run to restrict malware
47
What is a sandbox in security?
Isolated environment to run code safely without affecting the system
48
What is the risk of insecure applications?
They open doors for attackers to exploit data and operating systems
49
What is a directory traversal attack?
Attack that moves from root directory to restricted folders to access confidential files
50
Name a memory vulnerability exploited by attackers.
Buffer overflow
51
What are the stages of application development?
Development testing staging production
52
What is software diversity?
Developing multiple program variants from the same specs for error detection and reliability
53
What does provisioning mean in IT?
Configuring deploying and managing system resources enterprise wide
54
What is SecDevOps?
Integration of secure development best practices into agile software development and deployment
55
Name one continuous process automated by SecDevOps.
Continuous integration
56
What are two types of code analysis used in testing?
Static code analysis and dynamic code analysis
57
What is fuzzing in dynamic code analysis?
Providing random input to trigger exceptions and find vulnerabilities
58
Why is sharing threat intelligence important?
It helps organizations improve defenses by learning from others experiences
59
What is one often overlooked step in securing endpoint computers?
Confirming computer started without malicious activity

CyberSecurity (16 decks)

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