Lecture 44 Biology of Fracture Healing Flashcards

(74 cards)

1
Q

What are the four phases of skeletal development?

A
  • Migration (of preskeletal cells to sites of future skeltogenesis)
  • Epithelial- mesenchymal interaction
  • condensation (of mesenchymal cells)
  • Differentiation (into odontoblasts and chondrocytes)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the two types of bone formation?

A
  • Endochondral bone formation

- Intramembranous Bone Formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is endochondral bone formation?

A
  • Indirect (mesenchyme forms cartilage template first which is later replaced by bone)
  • occurs in most bones in the skeleton esp. bones that bear weight and have joints
  • also occurs during fracture repair
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is intramembranous bone formation?

A
  • direct transformation of mesenchymal cells to osteoblasts (no cartilage intermediate)
  • restricted to cranial vault, some facial bones, parts of the mandible and clavicle
  • contributes to fracture repair
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When do secondary ossification centers appear?

A
  • around the time of birth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What produces VEGF and what does it do?

A
  • hypertrophic chondrocytes

- attracts blood vessels that invade the cartilage model

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When does growth plate fusion occur?

A
  • around age 14-20 in humans
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How do the flat bones of the skull form?

A
  • intramembranous bone formation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the process of intramembranous bone formation?

A
  • mesenchymal cells condense to produce osteoblasts which deposit osteoid (unmineralized) bone matrix
  • osteoid matrix calcifies/osteoblasts become arrangled along calcified region of the matrix
  • some osteoblasts trapped in bone matrix- become osteocytes
  • NO CARTILAGE MODEL PRECEDING THE BONE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the immature bone that is produced first?

A
  • woven bone aka primary bone (immature)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Woven bone is produced when osteoblasts need to form bone rapidly in situations like:

A
  • embryonic development
  • fracture healing
  • disease states (paget’s disease)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is immature woven bone remodeled and replaced with?

A
  • Lamellar bone (aka secondary bone) (mature)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the features of woven bone?

A
  • disorganized structure
  • collagen fibrils in random orientation (lower birefringence w/polarized light)
  • increased cell density
  • reduced mineral content
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the features of lamellar bone?

A
  • highly organized
  • bone lamellae concentrically arranged around central canal containing blood vessels and nerves
  • collagen fibrils in parallel orientation (more birefringence w/polarized light)
  • mechanically stronger
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What can lamellar bone be further classified into?

A
  • Compact
    (cortical/haversian)
  • cancellous (spongy/trabecular)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What type of bone is the bone marrow located in?

A
  • cancellous bone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is skeletal healing essential for?

A
  • resolution of orthopedic trauma that has caused fractures
  • healing of corrective surgeries where bony injuries are created intentionally to correct bone deformities
  • bone regeneration in oral surgical procedures/tooth extractions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Fracture healing requires coordinated activity of several cell types:

A
  • inflammatory cells
  • chondroprogenitors/chondrocytes
  • osteoprogenitors
  • osteoclasts
  • vascular cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the timeline of the inflammatory phase?

A
  • peaks at 48 hrs and is diminished by 1 week
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the timeline of the reparative phase?

A
  • activated within a few days and persists for up to 2-3 months
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the timeline of the remodeling phase?

A
  • can continue for several years
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

John hunter (1935) described the 4 stages of fracture repair as what?

A
  1. Formation of vascular hematoma
  2. Formation of (fibrocartilage) callus
  3. Tissue metaplasia- callus replaced by mineralized bone
  4. Bone remodeling and turnover
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the cytokines that the hematoma releases in the hematoma formation/inflammation phase?

A
  • Tumor necrosis factor a (TNF-a)

- Interleukins (IL-1, -6, -11 and -18)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What do the cytokines do?

A
  • lead to recruitment/infiltration of inflammatory cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What do the inflammatory cells do?
- release more inflammatory cytokines and recruit mesenchymal stem cells (MSC)/osteogenic precursors to fracture site
26
What happens during formation of fibrocartilagenous callus?
- MSC/connective tissue stem cells/blood vessels invade hematoma - hematoma degenerates/phagocytes clear debris - fibrous connective tissue matrix laid down by fibroblasts (granulation tissue) - some MSC differentiate towards chondrogenic/osteogenic lineages - at borken ends of bones where blood supply was disrupted hypoxia/tissue necrosis occurs - in hypoxic regions MSC differentiate into chondrocytes - intramembranous bone may form in subperiosteal sites where vascular supply is intact= hard (external) callus
27
What initiates endochondral bone formation?
- MSC differentiating into chondrocytes
28
What are the cell sources of osteogenic precursors?
- periosteum - muscle - bone marrow
29
What are the cell types of osteogenic precursors?
- mesenchymal stem cell (MSC) - pericyte - muscle satellite cell
30
How does the bony callus form?
- intramembranous bone (formed where vascular supply is intact) contributes to bony callus - **** cartilage under goes endochondral ossification
31
What is endochrondral ossification?
- hypertrophy -->calcification of cartilage --> removal by osteoclasts --> replacement with bone
32
When is the fracture considered healed?
- when bone stability is restored by bone tissue completely bridging the original fracture "clinical union"
33
What is the timeline for formation of bony callus?
- several weeks up to 2-3 months
34
how long does formation of fibrocartilagenous callus take?
- 1 week
35
How quickly does the hematoma form at the fracture site?
- 0-2 days
36
T/F the remodeling phase of bone repair can last years
- T
37
What is the process of remodeling?
- osteoclasts resorb woven bone in fracture callous then osteoblasts lay down new lamellar bone (haversian) which is mechanically stronger
38
T/F same sequence of fracture healing events occurs for healing of alveolar bone in tooth socket after tooth extraction
- T
39
Early phase of fracture healing include?
- Formation of hematoma - recruitment of MSC - cell proliferation - initiation of chondrogenesis/osteogenesis - vascular ingrowth/angiogenesis
40
Signaling molecules important in the fracture healing?
- pro- inflammatory cytokines - TGFB superfamily members - angiogenic factors
41
Who secretes the pro-inflammatory cytokines?
- macrophages, mesenchymal cells, inflammatory cells
42
Mice null for TNFa receptor show?
- impaired fracture healing
43
What are the pro-inflammatory cytokines?
- Tumor necrosis factor (TNFa) | - Interluekins
44
What is the function of the pro-inflammatory cytokines?
- recruit other inflammatory cells/promote MSC recruitment - induce apoptosis of hypertrophic chondrocytes - recruit fibrogenic cells/promote formation of granulation tissue/ECM formation - can promote osteoclast formation
45
What is the TGFB superfamily members job in fracture healing?
- promote ECM synthesis and assembly/initiation of callus formation - promote osteogenic differentiation - GDF-8 has a role in cell proliferation
46
What are the TGFB superfamily members involved in fracture healing?
- Transforming growth factor B (TGFB) - Bone morphogenetic protein-2 BMP2 (also 5,6) - Growth and differentiation factor (GDF-8)
47
What produces the TGFB superfamily members?
- produced by hematoma (platelets)/granulation tissue/differentiating MSC/periosteal callus
48
What are the angiogenic factors?
- VEGF- Vascular endothelial growth factor - PDGF - platelet derived growth factor - ANGPT- Angiopoietin
49
What do the angiogenic factors do?
- promote vascular ingrowth vessels in periostum (brings oxygen/osteogenic precursors [pericytes])
50
VEGF:
- promotes chemotaxis of osteoprogenitors - up regulated in regions of hypoxia (under control of transcription factor HIF1a) - HIF1a overexpressing mice show enhanced bone regeneration
51
Why is vascularization important? (why are angiogenic factors important)
- critical for fracture repair/bone formation | - brings in calcium and phosphate for mineralization
52
What dictates why type of healing will occur?
- fracture stability (mechanical environment)
53
If strain <2% _______ bone healing will occur
- intramembranous
54
If strain is >2% <10% _________
- endrochondral bone healing will occur
55
High strain > 15% promotes
- fibrous tissue
56
Bone repair could be enhanced by:
- improving vascularization - attracting progenitor cells - accelerating bone formation - accelerating remodeling
57
How have BMPS been used to help grow bone?
- appear to be effective alternative to autologous bone graft for repair of fracture non union/open tibial fractures - controversy about clinical use due to cost effectiveness and potential safety drawbacks
58
Why have platelet rich plasma been tried for osteogenesis?
- contains multiple growth factors - evaluated in preclinical and clinical trials - appears effective in promoting bone heling
59
Why is FGFs being used for osteogenesis?
- FGF signaling is important in skeletal healing - FGF2 shown to enhance fracture healing in various in vivo experiments dating back to 1990s - continued elevation of FGF2 may impair mineralization so timing of treatment needs to be optimized
60
What are the cell based therapies for bone growth/healing?
- autologous bone marrow - collected from iliac crest/injected into non-union site (increases # of progenitor cells) - purified stem cell sources (MSC- mesenchymal stem cells, EPC- endothelial progenitor cells)
61
Other approaches to bone healing treatments?
- anti resorptives (bisphosphonates, denosumab) - bone anabolic agents (sclerostinn abs, teriparitide) - gene therapy (still experimental)
62
Sclerostin
- inhibitor of Wnt/b catenin signaling | - anitbodies to sclerostin being developed as anabolic treatment for osteoporosis
63
_____ showed sclerostin abs enhaced bone regeneration in rat model of periodontitis
- Taut
64
_______ a patient with a BMD> 2.5 standard deviations below average for a young healthy male or female
- osteoporosis definition
65
Is osteoporosis associated with menopause and or aging?
- Yes
66
Osteoporosis facts
- causes > 8.9 million fractures annually - worldwide 1 in 3 women and 1 in 5 men over 50 will experience osteoporotic fractures - Hip fractures with mortality rates of up to 20-24% in first year after fracture. greater risk of dying may persist for at least 5 years
67
What are the anti resorptive medecines? (prevent further bone degredation)
- amino bishosphonates - hormone replacement therapy - selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMS) e.g raloxifene - Denosumab - Cathepsin K inhibitors
68
What are the anabolic agents?
- PTH 1-84, Teriparitide (PTH 1-34) | - Anti sclerostin antibodies
69
_____ preferentially bind to hydroxyapatite. Inhibit activity of osteoclasts by inhibiting mevalonate pathway important for prenylation of GTPases important for vesicular trafficking
-Amino bisphosphonates
70
__________ restores hormone levels following menopause
- Hormone replacement therapy
71
Serms
- work as a partial antagonists of estrogen receptor but mechanism of action not fullly understood
72
Denosumab
- antibody against Rankl (inhibits osteocalst formation) | - comparable efficacy as bishosphonates
73
Cathepsin K inhibitors
- currently in clinical trails (inhibit gone degrading enzyme Cathepsin K)
74
PTH 1-84, Teriparitide (PTH 1-34)
- intermitten administration of teriparatide stimulates bone formation, partly through inhibition of sclerostin