Lecture 6: HIV, AIDS and Opportunistic Infections Flashcards

(35 cards)

1
Q

How are HIV1 and HIV2 different in terms of virulence and geographical distribution?

A
  • HIV1 isolated in America, Europe and Central Africa
  • HIV2 in West Africa; less virulent and not spread as rapidly and widely
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2
Q

HIV consists of 2 positive ssRNA held together by which protein?

A

p7 protein

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3
Q

What is the HIV capsid protein?

A

p24

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4
Q

Which 3 genes of HIV are the most important for making structural proteins for new virus particles?

A

gag, pol, env

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5
Q

The capsid of HIV contains which 3 enzymes required for HIV replication?

A
  • Reverse transcriptase
  • Integrase
  • Protease
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6
Q

In regards to the pathogenesis of HIV the hallmark of symptomatic HIV infection is what?

A

Immunodeficiency caused by continuing viral replication

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7
Q

What are 7 opportunistic infections of HIV when CD4 counts are around 500?

A
  • Bacterial infections
  • Tuberculosis
  • Herpes simplex
  • Herpes zoster
  • Vaginal cadidiasis
  • Hairy leukoplakia
  • Kaposi sarcoma
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8
Q

What are the 5 opportunistic infections for HIV patients with CD4 <200?

A
  • Pneumocystosis
  • Toxoplasmosis
  • Cryptococcosis
  • Coccidioidomycosis
  • Cryptosporidiosis
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9
Q

What are 4 opportunistic infections of HIV when CD4 is <50?

A
  • Disseminated MAC infection
  • Histoplasmosis
  • CMV retinitis
  • CMV lymphoma
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10
Q

HIV diagnosis is made using a combo immunoassay for what?

A

HIV Ab with a test for HIV p24 Ag

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11
Q

A positive result on HIV-1/2 Ag/Ab combination assay is followed by which test?

A

HIV-1/2 Ab differentiation immunoassay

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12
Q

If HIV samples on HIV-1/2 Ab differentiation test are negative, what test is done next?

A

HIV-1 nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)

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13
Q

If HIV specimens are positive on initial combination assay, and then are negative on Ab differentiation immunoassay and NAAT, this tells us what?

A

False-positive test

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14
Q

What is the most widely used marker to provide prognostic information and to guide therapy decisions in HIV patient?

A

CD4 lymphocyte count

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15
Q

What is the most common opportunistic infection associatd with AIDS?

A

Pneumocystis Jirovicii

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16
Q

What is the cornerstone of diagnosis for pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia and what will be seen?

A
  • Chest radiograph
  • Diffuse or perihilar infiltrates are most characteristic
17
Q

If pleural effusions are seen on CXR of pt with suspected pneumocysti jirovecii pneumonia, how does this change the DDx?

A

Think bacterial pneumonia, TB, or pleural Kaposi’s

18
Q

How is the definitive diagnosis of Pneumocystis made; what if this test is negative and pneumocystis is still suspected?

A
  • Definitive dx via Wright-Giemsa stain or dirext fluorescence antibody (DFA) test of the SPUTUM
  • If negative, can do a Bronchoalveolar lavage to establish diagnosis
19
Q

Which lab values may be elevated in Pneumocystis Pneumonia; which is more sensitive and specific?

A
  • ↑↑↑ LDH
  • Serum beta-glucan test = more sensitive and specific
20
Q

A CD4 count >______ within 2 months prior to evaluation of respiratory sx’s makes a diagnosis of Pneumocystis pneumonia unlikely.

A

A CD4 count >250 within 2 months prior to evaluation of respiratory sx’s makes a diagnosis of Pneumocystis pneumonia unlikely.

21
Q

Which DLco and findings on high-resolution CT scan of the chest would make dx of Pneumocystis pneumonia very unlikely?

A
  • A normal diffusing capacity of CO (DLco)
  • NO interstitial lung disease on CT of chest
22
Q

What are the most common causes of pulmonary disease in HIV-infected patients?

A
  • Community-acquired pneumonia
  • Bacterial, mycobacterial, and viral pneumonias
23
Q

What is seen on unenhanced CT scan of Toxoplasmosis infection?

A

Multiple subcortical lesions w/ a predilection for the basal ganglia

24
Q

Imaging showing multiple ring-enhancing lesions with surrounding areas of edema is characteristic of what?

A

Toxoplasmosis

25
A patient with known HIV infection presents with changes in his vision and upon fundoscopic exam you see this; what should you be thinking about?
**CMV retinitis**
26
When do you suspect Pneumcystis jirovecii? How to treat? **(This is on the exam/boards/rounds, etc)**
When the **CD 4 count is \<200** or in the presence of **oropharyngeal cadidiasis** or a **prior** bout of **PCP** TMP-SMX 1 DS tab daily PO
27
What is Kaposi's Sarcoma?
low grade vascular tumor associated with **HHV-8** can involve oral cavity, GI and respiratory tract, especially with AIDS **Feature**: Skin lesions of lower extremities, face, genitalia
28
When do you consider TB prophylaxis in AIDS patients?
When CD4 count is \<200 May be stopped if CD count is \>200 for \>3 months
29
When do you treat toxoplasma gondii?
When IgG ab are positive and CD4 count is \<100 Treat with TMP-SMX 1DS tab PO QD or if they have had prior encephalitis and CD count is less than 200
30
When do you treat Varicella zoster? How to treat?
If they have had exposure to chicken pox or shingles without prior immunization give immune globin within ten days of exposure and acyclovir 800mg PO 5x day for 5-7 days or valcyclovir 1g PO TID for 5-7 days
31
Which vaccinations are recomended and which should be avoided?
HEP B and A Influenza Avoid all live vaccines
32
What is primary CNS lymphoma?
DLBCL highly associated with EBV (do CSF PCR) CD4 \<50 signs/sx: lesion, HA, neuropsych sx, focal deficits, seizures, days-weeks onset **Single ring-enhancing lesions**
33
What are some key features of toxoplasmosis?
multiple subcortical lesions with predilection for basal ganglia CD4 \<100 HA, fever, focal deficits, AMS, SZ
34
What is the most common cause of pulmonary disease in HIV infected persons?
Community acquired PNA bacteria, mycobacterial and viral types if it is recurrent, it is considered an AIDS-defining illness
35
When it comes to CD4 counts, is the trend or the single value more important?
the overall trend is more important than a single determination