Lecture 6 to 14 - Mostly MC questions Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Lecture 6 to 14 - Mostly MC questions Deck (170):
1

What is not part of the classic triad in Type 1 DM?
A. Polyuria
B. Polydipsia
C. Weight loss
D. Uveitis

D. Uveitis

Note: Even though an individual does have excessive eating, there is still weight loss involved

2

What is a tell tale sign of a pt with Diabetic Ketoacidosis?
A. Smell of stinky feet
B. High perspiration
C. High Blood Pressure
D. Acetone smell on breath

D. Acetone smell on breath

3

Which 2 of the following are not associated with Type 2 DM?
A. Ketoacidosis
B. Coma
C. Insulin secretion
D. Obesity

A. Ketoacidosis
B. Coma

4

Which of the following correct regarding T2DM?
A. Cranial nerve palsy occurs due to neuropathy
B. Cranial nerve palsy occurs due to vascular occlusions
C. Cranial nerve palsies never recover

B. Cranial nerve palsy occurs due to vascular occlusions

5

Which type of anti-hypertensive is known to be nephroprotective for T2DM pts?
A. Angiotensin drugs
B. Calcium channel blocker
C. ACE inhibitors

C. ACE inhibitors

6

Which type of pupil anomaly is associated with T2DM?
A. Adie's tonic
B. Argyll-Robertson
C. Horner's syndrome

B. Argyll-Robertson

7

What type of cataract in a young adult will occur when they have had T2DM?
A. PSC
B.NSC
C. Snowflake
D. Christmas tree

C. Snowflake

8

What type of cells are lost in Type 1 DM?
A. Alpha cells
B. Beta cells
C. Sigma cells
D. Delta cells

B. Beta cells

Note: Severe LOSS OF INSULIN is the major issue here

9

Which drug treatment is commonly given for H. Pylori?
A. Omeprazole
B. Acetazolamide
C. Tinidazole
D. Bismuth

A. Omeprazole

10

Which of the following retinopathies is Pancreatitis associated with?
A. Terson’s
B. Histoplasmosis
C. Coat’s disease
D. Purtscher’s

D. Purtscher’s

Note: Purtscher’s is associated with ischemia

11

Which two of the organs are impacted by Gastroenteritis?
A. Stomach
B. Liver
C. Pancreas
D. Small intestines
E. Large intestines

A. Stomach
D. Small intestines

Note: Reactive Arthririts is associated with Gastroenteritis

12

Which of the following is not associated with Gardner’s syndrome
A. Bear tracks
B. Polar bear tracks
C. Grouped pigmentation
D. CWS

D. CWS

Note: RPE hypertrophy is another ocular finding. Intestinal Polyposis, soft tissue tumors and bone tumors are all what consist of Gardner syndrome

13

Which of the following diseases is associated with Scleritis and Scleromalacia?
A. Pancreatitis
B. Crohn’s disease
C. Ulcerative colitis
D. Gastroenteritis

B. Crohn's disease

14

Which of the following is not associated with Whipple’s disease?
A. Vitreous opacities
B. Retinal Heme's
C. Retinal exudate
D. Uveitis

D. Uveitis

15

Stomach Cancer is commonly caused by which type of agent?
A. H. Pylori
B. Staph Aureus
C. Staph Epi
D. Strep Pneumonia

A. H. Pylori

16

Which two ocular findings are associated with Down syndrome?
A. Keratoconus
B. Brushfield’s spots
C. Conjunctival chemosis
D. Hyphema

A. Keratoconus
B. Brushfield’s spots

17

Which of the following is associated with Turner’s syndrome?
A. Blue sclera
B. Micro cornea
C. Keratoconus
D. Brushfield’s spots
E. All of the above
F. None of the above

E. All of the Above

18

Which chromosomal disorder is associated with pitched mewing cry?
A. Edward’s
B. Down
C. Cri du chat
D. Turner’s

C. Cri du chat

19

Which of the following chormosomal disorder’s is associated with Microphthalmia?
A. Edward’s
B. Down
C. Cri du chat
D. Turner’s

A. Edwards

20

Which of the following will cause posterior embryo toxin of the angle?
A. Prayer Wili syndrome
B. Alagille syndrome
C. Fragile X
D. Klinefelter

B. Alagille syndrome

21

When a Coloboma is occurring which layer is becoming defective, when you notice an optic pit and morning glory disc?
A. Mesoderm
B. Ectoderm
C. Endoderm

B. Ectroderm

22

Which of the following is not known to cause a Coloboma?
A. Alcohol
B. Vitamin A deficiency
C. Maternal infection
D. Down syndrome

D. Down syndrome

23

Which of the following type of issues is associated with Vitamin A deficiency?
A. Auspitz sign
B. Bitot’s sign
C. Stocker’s line
D. Kaiser-fleisecher ring

B. Bitot's sign

24

Which type of supplement is given to individual who has a vitamin A deficiency?
A. Lead
B. Mercury
C. Silver
D. Zinc

D. Zinc

25

Which vitamin deficiency is associated with chronic alcoholism?
A. B2
B. B1
C. B6
D. B7

A. B2

Note: B1 is associated with alcohol metabolism. Not chronic alcohol

26

Which of the following is not associated with Cerebral BeriBeri?
A. Nystagmus
B. Ophthalmoplegia
C. Ataxia
D. Death
E. Munson’s sign
F. Memory deficits

E. Munson's sign

27

Which vitamin is associated with inadequate consumption of milk and products?
A. B1
B. B2
C. B10
D. B12

B. B2

Note: Ribflavin(B2) – is an antioxidant

28

Which vitamin deficiency is associated with Seborrheic dermatosis?
A. B6
B. B8
C. B10
D. B12

A. B6

29

Which vitamin deficiency is associated with Spina Bifida and other neural tube defects?
A. B6
B. B9
C. B10
D. B12

B. B9

30

What vitamin deficiency is known to cause a stomach inflammation and leads to autoimmune pernicious anemia?
A. B1
B. B2
C. B6
D. B12

D. B12

31

Scurvy is associated with what type of vitamin?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D

C. Vitamin C

Note: Splinter Heme's, lassitude and conjunctival bulbar hemorrhages are associated with vitamin C deficiency.

32

Which type of vitamin is associated with Calcium absorption?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D

D. Vitamin D

Note: Vitamin D is a pro-hormone with metabolites.

33

Which of the following is a Vitamin A or D deficiency in children called?
A. Osteomalacia
B. Osteoporosis
C. Pickets
D. Rickets

D. Rickets

34

Which of the following is a Vitamin D deficiency associated in adults called?
A. Osteomalacia
B. Osteoporosis
C. Pickets
D. Rickets

A. Osteromalacia

35

Which vitamin deficiency is associated with ROP?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin E

D. Vitamin E

36

What vitamin supplement is given to pts who have a iron deficiency, in conjunction with iron supplementation?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D

C. Vitamin C

37


Which type of deficiency is associated with a Goiter in the neck?
A. Vitamin A
B. Iodine
C. Zinc
D. Lead

B. Iodine

38

Which type of mineral deficiency is associated with Night blindness?
A. Zinc
B. Fluorine
C. Chromium

A. Zinc

39

Which Vitamin toxicity is associated with Increased intracranial pressure and Pseudotumor Cerebri?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D

A. Vitamin A

Note: Papilledema and Diplopia would also result as well

40

Which vitamin is associated with CME?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D

B. Vitamin B

41

What vitamin toxicity is associated with Band Keratopathy?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D

D. Vitamin D

42

Which vitamin toxicity is associated with enhancement of Coumadin and may result in overt hemorrhage?
A. Vitamin B
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin E

D. Vitamin E

43

What is Jaundice associated with what disease?
A. Hepatitis
B. Cirrhosis
C. Ascites

A. Hepatitis

44

Which of the following is not part of the triad of Cirrhosis?
A. Anorexia
B. Fatigue
C. Weight gain
D. Weight loss

C. Weight Gain

45

In late stage of Cirrhosis, what vessel is affected?
A. Portal artery
B. Portal vein
C. Portal capillaries

B. Portal Vein

46

What kind of Anemia occurs in Chronic Renal Failure?
A. Normocytic
B. Macrocyclic
C. Microcytic
D. Sickle

A. Normocytic

47

Erythropoietin is dependent on?
A. O2 levels from Liver
B. O2 levels from Kidney
C. O2 from lungs

B. O2 levels from Kidney

48

Damage to the nucleus of the RBC and impairs DNA synthesis is considered what type of Anemia?
A. Microcytic
B. Macrocyctic
C. Normalcytic Anemia

B. Macrocytic

Note: Microcytic – deficient heme or glob in synthesis
Normocytic – Bone marrow failure

49

What is the most common cause of Iron deficiency Anemia?
A. Vitamin C deficiency
B. Blood cells are Microcytic
C. Blood cells are hypochromic
D. Blood loss

D. Blood loss

50

What vitamin deficiency is associated with Pernicious Anemia?
A. B1
B. B2
C. B6
D. B12

D. B12

Note: Autoimmune gastritis causes B12 deficiency and is associated with “stocking and glove neuropathy.

51

What is the name of the genetic condition that is associated with Aplastic Anemia and affects the bone marrow?
A. Diego Anemia
B. Sickle cell Anemia
C. Thalassemia
D. Fanconi Anemia

D. Fanconi Anemia

52

What will you see in the Retina when related to Anemia?
A. Dot-Blot Heme's
B. Port wine spot
C. Roth Spots
D. CRAO

C. Roth spots

53

Hemoglobin H disease is associated with Thalassemia and causes severe anemia. As a result what occurs in response?
A. Swelling of the stomach
B. Splenomegaly
C. Megalocornea
D. Shrinkage of the heart

B. Splenomegaly

54

What type of anemia is associated with US African American’s who have a Beta-Thalassemia?
A. Johnson’s Anemia
B. Petechiae Anemia
C. Purpura Anemia
D. Cooley’s Anemia

D. Cooley's Anemia

55

Which of the following is associated with large areas of bruises, especially on the eye lids?
A. Petechaie
B. Purpura
C. Ecchymosis

C. Ecchymosis

56

Which of the following is associated with large areas of hemorrhageH that may be palpable coagulation disorder?
A. Petechaie
B. Purpura
C. Ecchymosis

B. Purpura

57

What is a small non blanch able punctuate foci of heme, which is associated with platelet disorders?
A. Petechiae
B. Purpura
C. Ecchyosis

A. Petechiae

58

Coagulation disorders are associated with which of the following two? Pick 2
A. Vitamin B deficiency
B. Vitamin K deficiency
C. Liver disease
D. Kidney disease

B. Vitamin K deficiency
C. Liver disease

59

Which factor is absent in hemophilia A?
A. Factor 1
B. Factor 2
C. Factor 9
D. Factor 8

D. Factor 8

60

Which factor is absent in hemophilia B?
A. Factor 2
B. Factor 6
C. Factor 8
D. Factor 9

D. Factor 9

61

What type of Dysproteinemias is associated with cherry red spot on the Macula?
A. Hyperglobulinemia
B. Cryglobinemia
C. Hypercalicemia
D. Multiple Myeloma

B. Cryglobinemia

62

Which of the following are associated with Corneal crystals? PICK 2
A. Multiple Myeloma
B. Waldenstrom’s Macroglobinemia
C. Hemophiliac
D. Von Willenbrand’s disease

A. Multiple Myeloma
B. Waldenstrom’s Macroglobinemia

63

Which of the following is associated with Papilledema?
A. Multiple Myeloma
B. Waldenstrom’s Macroglobinemia
C. Hemophilia
D. Von Willenbrand’s disease

A. Multiple Myeloma

64

Orbital Infiltration is associated with what disease?
A. Myelitis
B. Leukemia
C. Sickle cell
D. Playlet dysfunction

B. Leukemia

65

Which of the following is not common in Chronic Myeloid Leukemia?
A. Hemorrhages
B. Roth spots
C. Choroid all infiltration
D. Uveitis

D. Uveitis

66

Which condition causes secondary GOUT Due to build up of Uric acid buildup?
A. Polycythemia Vera
B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Myelitis
D. Cytomegalovirus

A. Polycythemia Vera

Note: Pts will have dilated, engorged retinal vessels and hyper viscosity retinopathy

67

Which type of sickle cell anomaly occurs when Valine substitutes for glutamic acid?
A. Hemoglobin C
B. Hemoglobin S
C. Hemoglobin A
D. Hemoglobin B

B. Hemoglobin S

Note: Hemoglobin C is associated with Lysine

68

What needs to be reported but is associated with ulcerative lesions from rodents?
A. Bupophthalmous
B. Necrotizing scleritis
C. Cystemia
D. Tularemia

D. Tularemia

69

Which of the following is not given to manage Tularemia?
A. Steroids
B. Streptomycin
C. Gentamicin
D. Tetracycline

A. Steroids

70

What are considered to be associated with humans being “accidental” intermediate hosts?
A. Loa Loa
B. Schistosomiasis
C. Bilharzia
D. Echinococcus

D. Echinococcus

71

Which ocular area is Loa Loa prefers to inhabit?
A. Meibomian glands
B. Anterior Chamber
C. Sub conjunctival
D. Epi sclera

C. Subconjunctival

72

Which condition constituents of CSF?
A. Loa Loa
B. Cysticercosis
C. Toxocariasis
D. Schistomiasis

B. Cysticercosis


Note: Most common area infected in the eye --> MACULA

73

Which of the following is associated with “dragging of the macula”?
A. Histoplasmosis
B. Loa Loa
C. Cystercosis
D. Toxocariasis

D. Toxocariasis

74

Which of the following is not associated with the triad of Trichinosis?
A. Fever
B. Eosinophilia
C. Peri orbital edema
D. Raynaud's phenomenon

D. Raynaud's phenomenon

75

Which of the following disease processes is associated with thickened nerves?
A.Leprosy
B. Toxocariasis
C. Loa Loa
D. Sickle cell

A. Leprosy

Note: Specifically CORNEAL NERVES

76

Which ocular condition is associated with TB?
A. Papillomas
B. Chalazions
C. Phylyctenules
D. Hep B

C. Phylyctenules

Note: Granulomatous uveitis is associated with TB as well.

77

What are the two common pulmonary TB associations? Pick 2
A. Illeitis
B. Hilar adenopathy
C. Infiltrates
D. Papillitis

B. Hilar adenopathy
C. Infiltrates

78

What is another name of the condition that is associated with skeletal TB?
A. Grave’s disease
B. Proptosis
C. Pott’s disease
D. Ulceritive colitis

C. Pott’s disease

79

Which layer of the cornea is associated with Interstitial Keratitis?
A. Epithelium
B. Stroma
C. Endothelium

B. Stroma

80

Which type of fungal infection grows as a mold then converts to yeast when cultured at 37 degrees F. Hint this type of infection is found in Mississippi and Ohio river valley’s?
A. Histoplasmosis
B. Blastomycosis
C. Coccidiomycosis
D. Paracoccodiodomycosis

A. Histoplasmosis

81

Which of the following is associated with CNVM formation and there is no vitritis?
A. Histoplasmosis
B. Blastomycosis
C. Coccidiomycosis
D. Paracoccodiodomycosis

A. Histoplasmosis

82

What does Malaria infect?
A. WBC’s
B. T-Lymphocytes
C. Plasma cells
D. RBC’s

D. RBC's

83

Which Protozoan disease is associated with Roth spots?
A. Histoplasmosis
B. Blastomycosis
C. Malaria
D. Paracoccodiodomycosis

C. Malaria

84

Which of the following are two ocular findings with an individual with Toxoplasmosis? PICK 2

A. Unilateral macular scars
B. Bilateral macular scars
C. Chorio-retinitis
D. CSME

B. Bilateral macular scars
C. Chorio-retinitis

Note: Headlights in a fog

85

Which of the following is associated with Granulomatous iridocyclitis?
A. Histoplasmosis
B. Malaria
C. Sickle cell
D. Toxoplasmosis

D. Toxoplasmosis

86

Which type of Ig marker is associated with Toxoplasmosis?
A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgM
D. IgE

A. IgG

Note: This is not useful for diagnosing the infection in infants

87

Which stages of Syphilis is associated with ocular involvement? Pick 2
A. Primary Syphilis
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quaternary

B. Secondary
C. Tertiary

Note: Secondary: Ocular involvement. Tertiary: Uveitis, retinitis and Optic neuritis may occur.

88

Which of the following is not associated with Hutchinson’s Triad (Congenital Syphilis)?
A. Notched incisors
B. Deafness
C. Congenital Interstitial keratitis
D. Corneal bulb-like dendrites

D. Corneal bulb like dendrites

Note: Salt and pepper fundus is associated with Syphilis

89

What type of CN palsy is associated with Lyme disease?
A. CN 3 Palsy
B. CN 5 Palsy
C. CN 4 Pasy
D. CN 6 Palsy

D. CN 6 Palsy

Note: This is a 2nd stage issue

90

Which stage of Lyme disease is associated with a Bull’s eye rash?
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4

A. Stage 1

91

Which stage of Lyme disease is associated with Episclertitis, KP’s, Pars planitits and Vitritis?
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4

C. Stage 3

92

Which of the following 2 are associated with Rocky Mountain spotted fever?
A. Lens subluxation
B. Commotio Retinae
C. Conjunctival suffusion
D. Peri orbital edema

C. Conjunctival suffusion
D. Peri orbital edema

Note: Bilateral peri orbital edema is the specific finding

93

Which type of drugs should be used for Toxoplasmosis?
A. Folic Acid inhibitors
B. 30S DNA inhibitors
C. Cell wall inhibitors
D. DNA Gyrase inhibitors

A. Folic Acid inhibitors

94

What is the type of hypersensitivity is associated with Non-Enveloped viruses?
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4

C. Type 3

Note: Enveloped viruses are both Type 3 and 4

95

Which type of virus is associated in the nucleus and not by RNA?
A. Adenovirus
B. Retrovirus
C. Spirochetes

B. Retrovirus

Note: AIDS is a retrovirus

96

Which of the following is not associated with CD4+ 200 to 499/microl (Category A)?
A. Oropharyngeal candida
B. Hairy Leukoplakia (oral)
C. Lymphadenopathy
D. Cervical dysplasia

C. Lymphadenopathy

Note: Lymphadenopathy is associated with >500/microl (Category B)

97

Which of the following is not associated with CD4+

A. Uveitis

98

What type of Retinopathy is associated with HIV/AIDS?
A. Histoplasmosis
B. Toxoplasmosis
C. Coat's Disease
D. CMV

D. CMV

Note: Brushfire retinopathy will be seen

99

Which of the following syndromes are associated with HIV/AIDS that displays Vitritis in a healthy individual?
A. Vericella Zoster Retinitis
B. Progressive Outer Retinal Necrosis syndrome (PORN)
C. Acute Retinal Necrosis syndrome (ARN)
D. Neoplasm

C. Acute Retinal Necrosis syndrome (ARN)

Note: PORN occurs in the immunodeficient individual, therefore cannot create a inflammatory response

100

CMV is associated with what family of infections?
A. Herpes
B. Toxocaris
C. Microcephaly
D. Bacterial

A.Herpes

101

Which of the following is associated with Primary HSV?
A. Finger whitlows
B. Encephalitis
C. Erythema Multiforme
D. MS

A. Finger whitlows

102

Which of the following is associated with Ocular Primary HSV?
A. Peripapillary atrophy
B. Preseptal Cellulitis
C. Orbital Cellulitis
D. Follicular conjunctivitis

D. Follicular conjunctivitis

103

Which of the following ocular signs are associated with Recurrent HSV?
A. Follicular conjunctivitis
B. Uveitis
C. Stromal Keratitis
D. Preseptal cellulitis

C. Stromal Keratitis

104

Which type of HSV is associated with indolent corneal ulceration?
A. Primary HSV
B. Recurrent HSV
C. Metaherpetic disease

C. Metaherpectic disease

105

What is the dosage of Acyclovir for Primary Herpetic disease?
A. 250 mg
B. 400 mg
C. 800 mg
D. 1000 mg

B. 400 mg

106

Which type of cataract is associated with HSV?
A. Nuclear Sclerotic Cataract
B. Cortical Cataract
C. Christmas Tree Cataract
D. Posterior Lenticular opacification

D. Posterior Lenticular Opacification

107

With an individual with HSV, displays Hutchinson's sign. What does this mean?
A. Dentition of teeth
B. Deafness
C. Interstitial Keratitis
D. Lesion on the tip of the nose

D. Lesion on the tip of the nose

Note: The other three are part of Hutchinson's triad

108

What is the dosage of Acyclovir for HZS?
A. 250 mg
B. 400 mg
C. 800 mg
D. 1000 mg

C. 800 mg

109

Which of the following is NOT associated with Intra-nuclear inclusion bodies?
A. HSV
B. HZV
C. CMV

A. HSV

110

Which of the following is associated with Molluscum Contagiosum?
A. Primary toxic keratoconjunctivitis
B. Secondary toxic keratoconjunctivitis with papillular conjunctival lesion
C. Secondary toxic keratoconjunctivitis with follicular conjunctival reaction

C. Secondary toxic keratoconjunctivitis with follicular conjunctival reaction

111

Which of the following conditions is associated with Guillian Barre syndrome?
A. CMV
B. HSV
C. HZV
D. Mumps

D. Mumps

Note: Mumps are associated with Lower motor neuron issues and severe pulmonary issues

112

Which of the following are associated with Mumps in the retina?
A. AMPPE
B. COATS
C. CMV
D. Dacryoadenitis

A. AMPPE

Note: Dacryoadenitis is associated with Mumps but does not occur in the retina.

113

Which of the following is not associated with Disciform Keratitis?
A. Herpes Zoster
B. Mumps
C. Vericella
D. Herpes Simplex

D. Herpes Simplex

114

Which of the following is not associated with Congenital Rubella?
A. Microphthalmia
B. Glaucoma
C. Uveitis
D. Keratoconus

C. Uveitis

115

Which of the following conditions is associated with Koplik's spots and Maculopapular rash?
A. TB
B. Rubella
C. Rubeola
D. Fuch's dystrophy

C. Rubeola

116

Which fatal disease is associated with Congenital Varicella?
A. Red Man Syndrome
B. Reye's Syndrome
C. Reactive syndrome
D. Syphilis

B. Reye's Syndrome

117

What is the time frame when Ocular Neonatal conjunctivitis occur?
A. Day 1 to 3
B. Day 5 to 14
C. Day 21 to 30
D. Month 5 to 14

B. Day 5 to 14

118

Which type of conjunctivitis is associated with swimming pool conjunctivitis?
A. Allergic conjunctivitis
B. Psudemonas conjunctivitis
C. Inclusion conjunctivitis
D. Papillular conjunctivitis

C. Inclusion conjunctivitis

119

Which condition is associated with Fern leaf pattern?
A. Behcet's syndrome
B. Allergic conjunctivitis
C. Sarcoidosis

A. . Behcet's syndrome

120

Which of the following conditions is associated with Candle wax drippings?
A. Pneumonia
B. Behcet's syndrome
C. Neuralgia
D. Sarcoidosis

D. Sarcoidosis

121

Which of the following conditions is associated with Sugiura's sign?
A. Sarcoidosis
B. TB
C. Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada
D. Lupus

C. Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada

122

What type of vessels are affected in Arteriosclerosis?
A. Large Arteries
B. Smaller Arteries
C. Large Veins
D. Small Veins

B. Smaller Arteries

123

Which of the following is not associated with Anterior segment ischemia in regards to Arteriosclerosis?
A. Hordeolum
B. Uveitis
C. Increased IOP
D. Iris Neo

A. Hordeolum

124

Which type of posterior segment condition is associated with Arteriosclerosis?
A. COATS disease
B. ROP
C. Macular Pucker
D. OIS

D. OIS

125

Which of the following is always associated with a "cherry red spot"?
A. BRAO
B. BRVO
C. CRAO
D. CRVO

C. CRAO

126

What type of system is associated with polarity around the body when doing an EKG?
A. Beethoven Triangle
B. Heisenberg Triangle
C. Einthoven Triangle
D. Prentice Triangle

C. Einthoven Triangle

127

Which of the following is not associated with Bacterial Endocarditis?
A. Roth spots
B. Uveitis
C. Endophthalmitis
D. CRVO

D. CRVO

128

Which grade is associated with Elschnig spots when using the Keith-Wagener-Barker classification of Atherosclerosis?
A. Grade 1
B. Grade 2
C. Grade 3
D. Grade 4

C. Grade 3

Note: Grade 3 means Moderate now!!

129

Which of the following is not associated with ocular manifestations of hypertension?
A. Hypertensive sub conjunctival hemorrhage
B. Hypertensive optic neuropathy
C. Hypertensive retinopathy
D. Hypertensive choroidopathy

A. Hypertensive sub conjunctival hemorrhage

130

Which of the following is not associated with Hyperlipidemia?
A. Arcus
B. Uveitis
C. Xanthoma
D. Lipemia retinalis

B. Uveitis

131

Which of the following is associated with Lymphedema?
A. Klinefelter's
B. Turner's
C. Down
D. Gigantism

B. Turner's

132

True or False. Acute Myocardial Infarction is related to decrease in MI for both nonstemi and stemi.

False. Acute Myocardial Infarction occurs when there is an ELEVATION in both stemi and nonstemi.

133

Which of the following EKG is able to specifically localize a value?
A. QRS
B. Q wave
C. P wave
D. T wave

D. T wave

134

Which of the following are cardiac specific and cardiac sensitive? Pick 2
A. Troponins T
B. CK-MB
C. Troponin I

A. Troponin T
C. Troponin I

Note: All of the following will be involved in during MI

135

True or False. Cardiac biomarkers are far more sensitive and specific than echocardiography in detecting cardiac injury.

True

136

Which of the following is considered a significant blockage of the carotid system?
A. >25%
B. >50%
C. >75%
D. >90%

C. >75%

137

Which of the following is considered a significant blockage of Coronary artery stenosis?
A. >25%
B. >50%
C. >75%
D. >90%

B. >50%

138

Which drug is needed to reduce mortality of congestive heart failure?
A. Alpha Adenergic
B. Beta Blockers
C. CAI's
D. ASA

B. Beta Blockers

139

Which of the following is the most deadly species of plasmodium
A. Malariae
B. Ovale
C. Falciparum
D. Vivax

C. Falciparum

140

Which of the following is not part of Hutchinson's triad?
A. Deafness
B. Salt and Pepper fundus
C. Teeth deformity
D. Interstitial Keratitis

B. Salt and Pepper fundus

141

Which test confirms Ocular Toxoplasmosis?
A. IgM
B. IgE
C. IgG
D. Positive PTOX

C. IgG

142

Which of the following is the BEST description of mode of tranmission for Ocular Toxoplasmosis?
A. Always Acquired
B. Always Congenital
C. Mostly Acquired
D. Mostly Congenital

D. Mostly Congenital

143

Which of the following is not part to the triad of Ocular Histoplasmosis?
A. Vitiritis
B. Histo sports
C. CNVM
D. PPA

A. Vitiritis

144

Pre-eclampsia require which of the two to be considered this condition?
A. Protein
B. Diabetes
C. Hypertension
D. Hypotension

A. Protein
C. HTN

Note: Magnesium sulfate is used to find out Pre-eclampsia

145

Which of the following is not associated with Pre eclampsia?
A. CWS
B. Retinal Hemorrhage
C. Serous detachments
D. ON swelling
E. None of the above

E. None of the above

146

Acute renal failure is associated with nitrogenous products in the blood. What is this called?
A. Thalasemia
B. Anemia
C. Azotemia
D. Reye's syndrome

C. Azotemia

147

Which ocular condition is associated with Chronic renal failure?
A. Atropic Keratitis
B. Gonnococcal Keratitis
C. COAT's disease
D. Band Keratopathy

D. Band Keratopathy

148

What is the most common Nephrotic syndrome?
A. Diabetic Nephropathy
B. Hypertensive Nephropathy
C.. Azotemia
D. Reye's syndrome

A. Diabetic Nephropathy

149

What is the time frame for a screening of urine to be submitted for Albumin testing?
A. 12 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 36 hours
D. 48 hours

B. 24 hours

150

Which of the following conditions is associated with Lenticonus?
A. Alport syndrome
B. Dot Blot syndrome
C. TB
D. Pigmentary dispersion syndrome

A. Alport syndrome

151

Which condition is associated with Aniridia?
A. CRVO
B. Diabetes
C. Wilm's
D. COPD

C. Wilms tumor

152

What should happen to respiratory rate in lactic acidosis?
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Stay Same
D. Depends

A. Increase

153

Prominent corneal nerves is associated with what major condition?
A. Wilm's
B. COPD
C. Pemphigoid
D. Amloidosis

D. Amloidosis

154

Which type of Gaucher's is associated with a Cherry red spot?
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3

B. Type 2

155

Which lysosomal condition is associated with a cherry red spot?
A. LHON
B. Tay-sach's
C. Fanconi Syndrome
D. Cystinosis

B. Tay-sach's

156

Which rare condition is associated with a "gray stained sclera"
A. Cystinosis
B. Tay-sach's
C. Alkaptonuria
D. Homocystinuria

C. Alkaptonuria

157

What enzyme is involved in melanin synthesis, which leads to albinism?
A. Adeninoase
B. Tyrosinase
C. Guaninase
D. Cysteinase

B. Tyrosinase

158

What is prominent with Cystinosis, in the cornea?
A.Band keratopathy
B. Crystals
C. Cataracts
D. Hyperpigmenation

B. Crystals

159

What is characteristics of Homocystinuria?
A. Phackodenesis
B. Gyrate atrophy
C. Lens dislocation

C. Lens dislocation

Note: Pts will display Marfanoid features

160

Which layer is a Keyser Fleischer ring located in the cornea?
A. Epithelium
B. Bowman's
C. Descement's
D. Endothelium

C. Descement's

161

What is used for the treatment of Gout?
A. Colchcine
B. Steroids
C. Nalaxone
D. Acetylcysteine

A. Colchcine

162

What is the type of test to conduct to risk of fracture with Osteoporosis?
A. Aexa
B. Beta-scane
C. Triple energy x ray absorptiometry
D. Dexa

D. Dexa

163

What ocular condition is associated with osteoporosis?
A. PVD
B. RD
C. Uveitis
D. Conjunctival hyperemia

C. Uveitis

164

Which of the following is not associated with Paget's?
A. Optic Atrophy
B. Proptosis
C. Angiod Streaks
D. Capillary Hemangioma

D. Capillary Hemangioma

165

What is the condition that affects adult Acromegaly?
A. Pitutary Adenoma
B. Cavernous Fistula
C. Cartoid stenosis
D. Cicatrial Pemphigoid

A. Pitutary Adenoma

Note: Bitemporal Hemanopsia will occur

166

Which is associated with Blue sclera?
A. Doxycycline
B. Paget's
C. Osteogenesis imperfecta
D. Goldenhar's syndrome

C. Osteogenesis imperfecta

Note: Minocycline is associated with blue sclera

167

A rare limbal dermoid cyst that is associated with a disformed ear and shortened face from one side. What is this condition?
A. Pagets
B. Osterogenesis Imperfects
C. Acromegaly
D. Goldenhar's syndrome

D. Goldenhar's syndrome


Note: Will have normal intelligence

168

Which type of condition is associated with cranuim growth in horizontal directions?
A. Crouzon's
B. Spina Bifida
C. Trachoma
D. Basal Cell Carcinoma

A. Crouzon's

Note: Increased intracranial pressure, Glaucoma, Keratoconus, Medullated nerve fibers are associated with this condition.

169

What cranial nerve is affacted in treacher collins?
A. CN 1
B. CN 4
C. CN 5
D. CN 6

D. CN 6
Note: Lateral rectus is impacted or dennervated

170

What is the common area for the lens to be dislocated?
A. Up and In
B. Up and Out
C. Down and In
D. Down and Out

B. Up and Out