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Microbiology > Lecture Exam #3 > Flashcards

Lecture Exam #3 Flashcards

1
Q

DNA is a polymer made up of _____ monomers.

A

nucleotide

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2
Q

A nucleotide consists of a _________________, a _________________ and a __________________

A

nucleobase, deoxyribose and a phosphate group

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3
Q

What are the 4 nitrogenous bases of DNA?

A

adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine

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4
Q

What are the base-pairing patterns of DNA?

A

AT, GC

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5
Q

Explain the two main functions of DNA?

A

replication, transcription

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6
Q

Explain what the central dogma is

A

transcription and translation; info in genes flows into proteins, DNA-RNA - Proteins

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7
Q

genome

A

complete set of genetic information in a cell

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8
Q

gene

A

the functional unit of a genome

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9
Q

complementary

A

In DNA structure, the nucleobases that characteristically hydrogen bond to one another, AT CG

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10
Q

genetic code

A

code that correlates a codon to one amino acid

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11
Q

antiparallel

A

describes opposing orientations of the two strands of DNA in the double helix

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12
Q

auxotroph

A

a microorganism that requires an organic growth factor

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13
Q

base substitution

A

a mutation in which the wrong nucleotide has been incorporated

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14
Q

bioinformatics

A

developing and using computer technology to store, retrieve, and analyze nucleotide sequence data

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15
Q

biotechnology

A

the use of microbiological and biochemical techniques to solve practical problems and produce valuable products

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16
Q

conjugation

A

in bacteria, a mechanism of horizontal gene transfer that involves cell to cell contact

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17
Q

corepressor

A

molecule that binds to an inactive repressor, therby allowing it to function as a repressor

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18
Q

CRISPR

A

Mechanism by which bacterial cells maintain a historical record of phage infections, and therby become immune to subsequent infections by the same phages; the system also protects against other types of foreign DNA

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19
Q

DNA fingerprinting

A

the use of characteristic patterns in the nucleotide sequence of DNA to match a specimen to the probable source

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20
Q

DNA ligase

A

Enzyme that forms covalent bonds between adjacent fragments of DNA

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21
Q

DNA polymerases

A

Enzymes that synthesize DNA; they use one strand as a template to make the complementary strand

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22
Q

DNA probe

A

a piece of DNA, labeled in some manner, that can hybridize to a certain nucleotide sequence as a means to detect that sequence

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23
Q

frameshift mutation

A

mutation resulting from the addition or deletion of a number of nucleotides not divisible by three

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24
Q

gel electrophoresis

A

technique that uses an electric current to separate either DNA fragments or proteins according to size by drawing them through a slab of gel

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25
Q

genetic engineering

A

process of deliberately altering an organisms genetic information by changing it’s nucleic acid sequences

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26
Q

horizontal gene transfer

A

Transmission of DNA from one bacterium to another through conjugation, DNA mediated transformation, or transduction; also called lateral gene transfer

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27
Q

indirect selection

A

In microbial genetics, a technique for isolating mutants and identifying organisms unable to grow on a medium which the parents do grow; often involves replica plating

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28
Q

inducer

A

substance that activates transcription of certain genes

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29
Q

mRNA

A

single stranded rna that is translated to make protein

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30
Q

metagenomics

A

the analysis of the total microbial genomes in a sample

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31
Q

mutation

A

a change in the nucleotide sequence of a cell’s DNA that is then passed on to daughter cells.

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32
Q

natural selection

A

selection by the environment of those cells best able to grow in that environment

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33
Q

nonsense mutation

A

a mutation that generates a stop codon, resulting in a shortened protein

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34
Q

Okazaki fragment

A

Nucleic acid fragment synthesized as a result of the discontinuous replication of the lagging strand of DNA

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35
Q

origin of replication

A

distinct region of a DNA molecule at which replication is initiated

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36
Q

operator

A

region located immediately downstream of a promotes to which a repressor can bind; binding of the repressor to the operator prevents RNA polymerase from progressing past that region, thereby blocking transcription

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37
Q

operon

A

group of linked genes whose expression is controlled as a single unit

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38
Q

plasmid

A

small extrachromosomal circular DNA molecule that replicates independently of the chromosome; often codes for antibiotic resistance

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39
Q

polymerase chain reaction

A

method used to create millions of copies of a given region of DNA in only a matter of hours

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40
Q

rDNA

A

DNA that encodes ribosomal RNA

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41
Q

recombinant

A

A cell that carries a DNA molecule derived from two different DNA molecules

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42
Q

replica plating

A

technique for the simultaneous transfer of organisms in separated colonies from one medium to another

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43
Q

replication fork

A

in DNA synthesis, the site at which the double helix is being unwound to expose the single strands that can function as templates

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44
Q

repressor

A

Protein that binds to the operator site and prevents transcription

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45
Q

restriction enzyme

A

Type of enzyme that recognizes and cleaves a specific sequence of DNA

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46
Q

ribosomal RNA rRNA

A

Type of RNA present in ribosomes; the nucleotide sequences of these are increasingly being used to classify and in some cases identify microorganisms

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47
Q

semiconservative replication

A

Nucleic acid replication that results in each of the two double stranded molecules containing one of the original strands and one newly synthesized strand

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48
Q

Taq polymerase

A

Heat Stable DNA polymerase of the thermophilic bacterium Thermus aquaticus

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49
Q

terminator

A

in transcription a DNA sequence that stops the process

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50
Q

transcription

A

process of transferring genetic information coded in DNA into messenger RNA

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51
Q

transduction

A

Mechanism of horizontal gene transfer in which bacterial DNA is transferred inside a phage

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52
Q

transfer RNA

A

Type of RNA that delivers the appropriate amino acid to the ribosome during translation

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53
Q

transformation

A

A mechanism of horizontal gene transfer in which naked DNA is transferred

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54
Q

translation

A

Process by which genetic information in the messenger RNA directs the order of amino acids in protein

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55
Q

transposon

A

A piece of DNA that can move from one site in DNA to another , either in the same molecule or to another molecule in the same cell

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56
Q

vector

A

in molecular biology a piece of DNA that acts as a carrier of a cloned fragment of DNA

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57
Q

genotype

A

the sequence of nucleotides in the DNA

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58
Q

haploid

A

only a single set of genes

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59
Q

phenotype

A

observable characteristics

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60
Q

Why is DNA replication said to be semi-conservative?

A

half of the original molecule is conserved in each molecule

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61
Q

DNA gyrase

A

Enzyme that temporarily breaks the strands of DNA, relieving the tension caused by unwinding the two strands of the DNA helix

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62
Q

DNA ligase

A

Enzyme that joins two DNA fragments by forming a covalent bond between the sugar and phosphate residues of adjacent nucleotides

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63
Q

DNA polymerases

A

Enzymes that synthesize DNA; they use one strand of DNA as a template to make the complementary strand. Nucleotides can be added only to the 3’ end of an existing fragment therefore synthesis always occurs in the 5’-3’ direction

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64
Q

Helicases

A

Enzymes that unwind the DNA helix ahead of the replication fork

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65
Q

How do base pairing differences in RNA differ from those in DNA? How are they similar?

A

RNA is complementary to DNA, U instead of T GC UA

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66
Q

Which of the following is not necessary for the process of DNA replication?

A

mRNA

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67
Q

The base sequence of a messenger RNA molecule that is complementary to the sequence 3’-CGTTAGA-5’ would be expressed as

A

5’-GCAAUCU-3’.

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68
Q

Transcription acts to

A

produce RNA molecules.

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69
Q

Which codon would match to the tRNA anticodon TTT?

A

no such codon exists

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70
Q

An mRNA stop codon codes for

A

no amino acid

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71
Q

all of the following are part of an operon except

A

regulatory gene

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72
Q

Which of the following is an example of a frameshift mutation when the original DNA molecule is ATA CGC GGG TAC GTA? (The responses are in mRNA language).

A

UAU GCG CCA UGC AU

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73
Q

The ames test is used to

A

learn whether a chemical can induce a bacterial mutation

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74
Q

genes that are passed between parent and offspring are called

A

vertical gene transfer

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75
Q

A plasmid was produced through genetic engineering that contains a gene for human insulin. Such a plasmid is called a(n)

A

recombinant plasmid

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76
Q

which of the following occurs in eukaryotes but not in prokaryotes?

A

RNA processing

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77
Q

the procedure known as “replica plating” is used in

A

negative selection only (indirect selection)

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78
Q

Recombinant DNA technology can be most accurately defined as the

A

deliberate modification of the genome of an organism for practical purposes.

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79
Q

In gel electrophoresis, DNA molecules move toward the ________ electrode(s) because they have an overall ________ charge.

A

positive; negative

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80
Q

The taxonomic category which is most specific is the _____ classification.

A

Species

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81
Q

What tests are used to help identify bacteria today?

A

A. Physical characteristics including the shape, size and arrangement of cells
B. Biochemical tests showing metabolic properties like the ability to utilize citrate
C. Serological tests with antibodies to identify surface antigens on the bacteria
D. Ribosomal RNA sequence information
E. All of the above are used.

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82
Q

Which of the following is true of BOTH bacteria and archaea?

A

They have 70S ribosomes

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83
Q

Which of the following is written correctly?

A

Escherichia coli italicized

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84
Q

Which of the following is widely accepted as the process that gave rise to mitochondria and chloroplasts?

A

Endosymbiosis

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85
Q

Most pathogenic protozoans could be classified as

A

chemoheterotrophs

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86
Q

Women who take antibiotics are at high risk for infections caused by this normal flora:

A

candida albicans

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87
Q

The mRNA that codes for a particular protein will have ___ nucleotides for each amino acid in the protein.

A

three

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88
Q

Mutations that cause a change of an amino acid in the polypeptide sequence are known as __________ mutations

A

missense

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89
Q

The enzyme that seals DNA fragments together is called _______________.

A

DNA ligase

90
Q

______________ is the horizontal transfer of DNA between bacteria through a sex pilus.

A

Conjugation

91
Q

A ________________ is a closed circular piece of DNA that contains few genes which are non-essential to the cell.

A

plasmid

92
Q

_________ is a useful tool in biotechnology that allows us to separate DNA fragments by size

A

gel electrophoresis

93
Q

____________ is a technique that takes a segment of DNA and replicates it millions of times in just a few hours.

A

polymerase chain reaction

94
Q

The part of a vector that allows it to be replicated during cell division is the ___________.

A

origin of replication

95
Q

A(n) (genome/codon/operon) is a set of prokaryotic genes that are regulated and transcribed as a unit.

A

operon

96
Q

Transfer of DNA between bacterial cells by viruses is called ________.

A

Transduction

97
Q

In semiconservative DNA replication, a new strand of DNA with bases complementary to a parent strand combines with a parent strand to form the double helix.

A

True

98
Q

There are two origins of replication in every bacterial DNA molecule.

A

False

99
Q

The central dogma states that DNA replication is semiconservative.

A

False

100
Q

Cell-to-cell contact is necessary for bacterial conjugation to occur but does not occur for transduction.

A

True

101
Q

Experiments in genetic engineering are limited to transfer of DNA fragments between bacteria of the same genus and species

A

False

102
Q

Sticky-end fragments generated by EcoRI will hydrogen bond to any other sticky-end sequence.

A

False

103
Q

Protozoa are prokaryotes.

A

False

104
Q

Chitin is part of the fungal cell wall.

A

True

105
Q

Fungi consist of masses of intertwined filaments called conidia.

A

False mycellium

106
Q

Fungi contain chlorophyll so therefore they are photosynthetic.

A

False

107
Q

involves DNA polymerase activity.

A

Replication

108
Q

involves a transfer of amino acids to an elongating chain.

A

Translation

109
Q

requires DNA ligase to seal DNA fragments.

A

replication

110
Q

is a DNA-dependent RNA synthesis process.(i.e. It uses DNA as a template to make RNA)

A

transcription

111
Q

involves a stop codon.

A

translation

112
Q

begins with a Methionine amino acid

A

translation

113
Q

requires a promoter sequence.

A

transcription

114
Q

produces Okazaki fragments

A

replication

115
Q

includes the inclusion of bacterial DNA in a viral capsid

A

transduction

116
Q

involves a transfer of genes during a period of direct contact.

A

conjugation

117
Q

requires that competent cells be available.

A

transformation

118
Q

requires a bacteriophage.

A

transduction

119
Q

involves F+ cells are donor cells.

A

conjugation

120
Q

occurs when naked pieces of DNA are taken up from the environment.

A

transformation

121
Q

The PCR process commonly uses DNA polymerase isolated from T. aquaticus bacteria. Explain why DNA polymerase isolated from E. coli can’t be used instead.

A

The temperature used in a thermocycler for DNA denaturation far exceeds the temperature maximum of mesophilic Escherichia coli; therefore, DNA polymerase of E. coli would denature and lose function in a thermocycler. On the other hand, since T. aquaticus is a hyperthermophile, its polymerase won’t denature at the high temperatures used in PCR.

122
Q

A 100 bp piece of the M. tuberculosis genome is 20% adenine. What percentage of guanine nucleotides are present in the piece? Show your work and/or explain your reasoning.

A

The answer is 30%.
Because of base-pairing rules, you can assume that there will always be as many thymine (T) bases as there are adenine (A) bases in a DNA fragment. Therefore, the piece would be 20% adenine (A) and 20% thymine (T). That leaves 60% of the bases that are evenly split between cytosine (C) and guanine (G). That comes out to 30% cytosine and 30% guanine.

123
Q

Draw or describe the structures on tRNA that allow it to facilitate translation (i.e. which part has protein “language” and which part has nucleic acid “language”?

A

The tRNA has an amino acid attached to one end. This is the protein “language” portion of the molecule. The other end contains and anticodon, which base-pairs with the mRNA’s codon during translation. The anticodon is the nucleic acid portion.

124
Q

Why do systemic fungal diseases primarily target the respiratory system and why are they uncommon in healthy individuals?

A

Systemic mycoses occur when people inhale fungal spores that are ubiquitous in the air we breathe. In healthy people, these spores are destroyed by the immune system, but in people with diminished immune function, the spores can germinate in the lungs, causing an infection

125
Q

What defines the boundaries of the beginning and ending of transcription?

A

promoter/ terminator

126
Q

What enzyme catalyzes the synthesis of an RNA strand?

A

RNA polymerase

127
Q

How can you code for 20 different amino acids with only 4 different nucleotides?

A

Because there are 64 different combinations, 3 are stop codons, the remaining 61 translate to 20 amino acids. Multiple codes code for one amino acid

128
Q

codon

A

set of three adjacent nucleotide that encode either an amino acid or or the termination of the polypeptide

129
Q

anticodon

A

sequence of three nucleotides in a tRNA molecule that is complementary to a particular codon in mRNA The anticodon allows the tRNA to recognize and bind to the appropriate codon

130
Q

AUG codes for __________ and ____________

A

methionine; start

131
Q

stop codon

A

codon that terminates translation, signaling the end of the protein, there are three stop codons

132
Q

mRNA during translation

A

Type of RNA molecule that contains the genetic information deciphered during translation

133
Q

tRNA during translation

A

Type of RNA molecule that acts as a key that interprets the genetic code; each tRNA molecule carries a specific amino acid

134
Q

rRNA during translation

A

Type of RNA present in ribosomes, ribosomes, ribosomes string amino acids together so that the ribosomal enzyme can easily create a peptide bond between them.

135
Q

start codon in translation

A

Codon at which translation is initiated; it is typically the first AUG after a ribosome bonding site

136
Q

gene expression

A

transcription and translation

137
Q

Why can translation begin before transcription is complete in prokaryotes but not in eukaryotes?

A

The mRNA in eukaryotic cells must ne transported out of the nucleus before it can be translated into the cytoplasm. Thus, unlike in prokaryotes, the same mRNA molecule cannot be synthesized and translated at the same time or even in the same cellular location. The mRNA of eukaryotes is generally monocistronic and translation of the message typically begins at the first AUG of the molecule.

138
Q

Mutation

A

changes the existing nucleotide sequence of a cell’s DNA which is then passed down to the daughter cells through vertical gene transfer

139
Q

Base Subsititution

A

the most common type of mutation occurs during DNA synthesis when an when an incorrect nucleotide is incorporated .

140
Q

silent mutation

A

codon that still specifies the wild type amino acid

141
Q

missense mutation

A

results when the altered codon speicifies a different amino acid

142
Q

nonsense mutation

A

altered codon is a stop codon

143
Q

indel

A

insertion or deletion of nucleotides during replication

144
Q

Why do indel mutations almost always completely knock out protein function?

A

adding or subtracting one or two nucleotide pairs causes a frameshift mutation. This changes the reading frame of the corresponding mRNA molecule so that an entirely different set of codons is translated. MOst result in stop codons= which results in a shortened nonfunctional protein

145
Q

How do chemical mutagens cause mutations?

A

A number of different chemicals modify the nucelobases in DNA changing their base pairing properties

146
Q

How do X-rays cause mutations?

A

Xrays cause double and single strand breaks in DNA and alterations to the nucleobases. Double strand breaks often result in deletions that are lethal to the cell.

147
Q

How does UV light cause mutations?

A

irradiation of the cells with UV light causes covalent bonds to form between adjacent thymine molecules on a DNA strand, producing thymine dimers. The dimer cannot fit properly into the double helix, distorting the DNA molecule.

148
Q

How does positive selection work? How can this be used to identify antibiotic-resistant mutants?

A

Mutants that can grow under conditiond in which the parent cells cannot are usually easy to isolate by direct selection. Antibiotic resistant mutants can be easily selected directly by inoculating cells onto a medium containing the antibiotic

149
Q

How does indirect selection work? How can this be used to identify auxotrophs?

A

used to isolate an auxotroph from a prototrophic parent strain– no medium will allow the growth of mutant and not parent– replic plating

150
Q

How are carcinogens and mutagens related?

A

most carcinogens are mutagens

151
Q

Compare vertical and horizontal gene transfer

A

vertical- parent to progeny

horizontal- donor to recipient

152
Q

transformation

A

naked DNA is taken up by a cell

153
Q

transduction

A

a virus injects bacterial DNA into a cell

154
Q

conjugation

A

DNA is transferred during cell to cell contact

155
Q

competent

A

a specific physiological state that allows the cell to take up DNA

156
Q

what is a plasmid

A

direct their own transfer from donor to recipient

157
Q

What types of genes do plasmids carry

A

resistance to antibiotics, transgenes, reporter

158
Q

What is f factor

A

fertility factor -

159
Q

What is an R factor? What is the medical significance of R factors?

A

encode resistance to many different antimicrobial medications and heavy metals. give rise to a wide range of organisms becoming resistant to many different antimicrobials. can harbor r plasmids and turn to pathogens

160
Q

What is a transposon? What types of organisms carry them?

A

cause mutations, provide a mechanism for transferring various genes, move into replicons without specificity

161
Q

sticky ends

A

staggered cut of restriction enzymes, short overhangs of 4 nucleotides, form base pairs together

162
Q

Explain why DNA moves toward the positively charged electrode.

A

DNA is negatively charged

163
Q

movement of fragments through gel electrophoresis

A

Short strands move quicker

164
Q

identification

A

the process of characterizing an isolate to determine the group (taxon) to which it belongs

165
Q

classification

A

the process of arranging organisms into similar or related groups, primarily to make it easier to identify and study them

166
Q

nomenclature

A

the system of assigning names to organisms

167
Q

species

A

a group of closely related isolates or strains

168
Q

genus

A

a collection of similar species

169
Q

family

A

a collection of similar genera prokaryotic-aceae

170
Q

order

A

a collection of similar families prokaryotic-ales

171
Q

class

A

a collection of similar orders

172
Q

phylum or division

A

a collection of similar classes

173
Q

kingdom

A

a collection of similar phyla

174
Q

domain

A

a collection of similar kingdoms

175
Q

phylogeny

A 
The evolutionary 
relatedness of a 
group of species
•
Depicted as 
branching diagrams 
or 
“
trees
”
176
Q

Serological testing

A

Uses specific antibody-antigen relationship to identify microbes

177
Q

Agglutination

A

antibody complexes cause cells to clump together

178
Q

Phage typing

A

Bacteriophages “phages” are virus that infect bacteria
Certain phages only infect one type of bacteria
Phages are applied to plates containing bacterial growth
Infections are shown as “plaques”—small areas lacking bacterial growth

179
Q

Molecular typing

A

Used to identify profiles of biomolecules
Fatty acid analysis
Protein analysis (MALDI-TOF)

180
Q

nucleic acid probes

A

can locate a nucleotide sequence that characterizes a particular species or group
complementary to sequence of interest

181
Q

PCR

A

polymerase chain reaction to detect a microbe of interest , a sample is treated to release and denature the DNA. After- DNA billion fold– 30 cycles of PCR

182
Q

sequencing rRNA genes

A

useful bc their sequences are relatively stable, the ribosome would not function with too many mutations
16s

183
Q

biochemical typing

A

distinguishing strains

biovar- biotype

184
Q

rDNA sequence analysis

A

revolutionized classification
certain regions of the 16s rDNA can be used to determine distant relatednessof diverse organisms; other regions can be used to determine more recent divergence

185
Q

DNA hybridizaton

A

The extent of nucleotide sequence similarity between two isolates can be determined by measuring how completely singl strands of their DNA hybridize to one another

186
Q

DNA base composition

A

determining G+C content offers a crude comparison of genomes. Organisms with identical G+C contents can be entirely unrelated however

187
Q

phenotypic methods

A

relatedness of different bacteria has been decided by comparing properties such as ability to degrade lactose and the presence of flagella. do not necessarily reflect the evolutionary relatedness of organisms

188
Q

protozoa structure

A

microscopic unicellular eukaryotes

189
Q

protozoa ecological roles

A

Mostly free-living in marine, freshwater or terrestrial environments
Important as base of food chain and as decomposers (classified as zooplankton)
Some parasitic

190
Q

protozoa Mode of nutrition

A

chemoheterotrophic, aerobic respiration

191
Q

protozoa reproduction

A

Usually asexual fission; may form cysts for dispersal or survival

192
Q

Malaria

A

Plasmodium spp.

Transmitted by Anopheles mosquito

193
Q

Diarrhea Dysentary

A

Amoebas: Entamoeba histolytica
Giardia lamblia
Cryptosporidium

194
Q

African Sleeping Sickness

A

trypanosome brucei

195
Q

Fungi Structure

A

unicellular or multicellular

196
Q

Fungi ecological roles

A

mostly free-living
important decomposers
economically important

197
Q

Fungi Mode of nutrition

A

Heterotrophs, mainly aerobic metabolism (some yeasts are facultative anaerobes)
Secrete enzymes that degrade organic material

198
Q

Fungi Motility

A

not motile

199
Q

Fungi reproduction

A

sexual, asexual, or both

200
Q

Candida albicans

A

candidial skin infection

201
Q

Coccidioides immits

A

coccidiodomycosis

202
Q

pneumocystis jiroveci

A

pneumocystis pneumonia

203
Q

arthropod characteristics

A

Insects and arachnids

204
Q

mechanical vector

A

transfer pathogen from one surface to another

205
Q

biological vector

A

essential part of life cycle

206
Q

Mosquitoes

A

Malaria, West Nile Virus

207
Q

Fleas

A

Plague

208
Q

Lice

A

Typhus

209
Q

Ticks

A

Lyme Disease

210
Q

Mites

A

Scabies Disease

211
Q

Helminth Characteristic

A

Parasitic worms: nutrients from host
“Reproductive machines” (male + female or hermaphroditism)
Complex life cycles often with one or more intermediate hosts (where immature forms develop) and a definitive host (adult stage)
Points of entry: food, water, vectors, skin

212
Q

Diseases in humans- Nematode roundworms

A 
Enterobiasis
Trichuriasis
Hookworm 
Strongyloidiasis
Ascariasis
Trichinellosis
Filariasis
213
Q

Diseases in humans Cestode Tapeworm

A

tapeworm

cysticercosis

214
Q

Trematodes (flukes)

A

Schistososmiasis

Swimmers itch

215
Q

purpose of PCR

A

pcr makes it possible to create more than a billion copies of a given region of DNA

216
Q

PCR reagents

A
  • double stranded dna
  • taq polymerase
  • primers
  • deoxynucleotides
217
Q

Heating step

A

heated to near boiling in order to denature DNA

218
Q

Annealing step

A

temp lowered, anneal to their complementary sequences on the denatured target DNA

219
Q

Extension step

A

temp is raised to optimal temp of taq polymerase allowing DNA synthesis to occur

220
Q

why is taq polymerase used in PCR

A

not destroyed at high temp of first step, if not used fresh polymerase would need to be added after first step

221
Q

30 cycles of PCR makes

A

over a billion copies

Microbiology (3 decks)

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