LEED BD+C Flashcards
(200 cards)
1
Q
- What must your erosion control plan adhere to?
A
2003 EPA Construction General Permit (or local standards, whichever is more stringent)
2
Q
- What is a Phase I Environmental Site Assessment?
A
A report prepared for a real estate holding that identifies potential or existing environmental contamination liabilities
3
Q
- How is a Phase II Environmental Site Assessment more in depth?
A
A further investigation that collects original samples of soil, groundwater, or building materials to analyze for quantitative
4
Q
- What are the types of sensitive sites to avoid building on?
A
- Prime farmland
- Flood plain
- Endangered species habitat
- Land within 50’ (15 meters) of wetlands
- Land within 100’ (30 meters) of a water body
5
Q
- Who defines Prime Farmland?
A
The U.S. Department of Agriculture
6
Q
- What is the building requirement for projects in places without legally adopted flood hazard map?
A
Cannot build on a floodplain subject to a 1% or greater chance of flooding in any given year
7
Q
- Define Development Footprint?
A
The total land area of a project site covered by buildings, streets, parking areas, and other typically impermeable surfaces constructed as part of the project
8
Q
- What are the requirements for surrounding density?
A
Locate on a site whose surrounding existing density within 1/4 mile (400-meter) radius of the project boundary meets either the ‘separate residential and nonresidential densities’ or ‘combined density’ values.
9
Q
- What are the minimum surrounding density requirements?
A
0.5 Non residential density (FAR) and 7 Residential density (DU/acre)
-OR-
22,000 SF / acre of buildable land combined density
10
Q
- What are the requirements for diverse uses?
A
Construct or renovate a building or a space within a building such that the building’s main entrance is within a 1/2-mile (800-meter) walking distance of the main entrance of four to seven (1 point) or eight or more (2 points) existing and publicly available diverse uses
11
Q
- What are the five use categories for diverse uses?
A
- Food retail
- Community-serving retail
- Services
- Civic and community facilities
- Community anchor uses (BD&C and ID&C only)
12
Q
- What are the distances for Access to Quality Transit?
A
1/4 mile (400-meter) walking distance of existing or planned bus, streetcar, or rideshare stops, or within a 1/2-mile (800-meter) walking distance of existing or planned bus rapid transit stops, light or heavy rail stations, commuter rail stations or ferry terminals.
13
Q
- Where is Access to Quality Transit measured from?
A
A functional entry - a building opening designed to be used by pedestrians and open during regular business hours. It does not include any door exclusively designated as an emergency exit, or a garage door not designed as a pedestrian entrance.
14
Q
- How many bike racks are required for a commercial building?
A
Short-term storage for at least 2.5% of all peak visitors (no fewer than 4 spaces per building) and long-term storage for 5% of all regular building occupants (no fewer than 4 spaces per building).
15
Q
- How many bike racks are required for residential project?
A
Short-term storage for at least 2.5% of all peak visitors (no fewer than 4 spaces per building) and long-term storage for 30% of all regular building occupants.
16
Q
- How many shower and changing facilities are required for a commercial project?
A
At least one for the first 100 FTE and one additional for every 150 regular building occupants thereafter.
17
Q
- How do you calculate an FTE?
A
An 8-hour occupant has an FTE value of 1.0; a part-time occupant has a FTE value based on work hours per day divided by 8
18
Q
- How many preferred parking spaces are required for Green Vehicles?
A
Provide preferred parking for green vehicles for 5% of the total vehicle parking capacity of the site.
19
Q
- How many EVSE stations must be installed for Green Vehicles?
A
2% of all parking spaces (preferred parking spaces may not be counted).
20
Q
20 How is preferred parking defined?
A
The parking spots closest to the main entrance of a building (exclusive of spaces designated for handicapped persons). For employee parking, it refers to the spots that are closest to the entrance used by employees.
21
Q
- For previously developed or graded sites, how much habitat needs to be restored?
A
30% (including the building footprint) of all portions of the site
22
Q
- What is an example of a monoculture planting, which would not help with restoring/protecting habitat?
A
Turf grass
23
Q
- What areas can be excluded from the vegetation and soil requirements to restore/protect habitat?
A
Vegetated landscape areas that are constructed to accommodate rainwater infiltration.
24
Q
- For school projects what areas can be excluded from soil restoration criteria to restore/protect habitat?
A
Athletic fields
25
25. What amount of financial support can be provided to restore/protect habitat?
$0.40 / SF
| $4 / m^2
26
26. What are the distance limitations when providing financial support to protect/restore habitat?
Financial support must be provided to a nationally or locally recognized land trust or conservation organization within the same EPA Level III ecoregion or the project’s state (or within 100 miles of the project [160 kilometers] for projects outside the U.S.). For U.S. projects, the land trust must be accredited by the Land Trust Alliance.
27
27. What should be included in a sustainable landscape plan?
List of all plant species, noting whether or not they are native/adapted; info about invasive species and pests those plants may harbor; best maintenance practices for the chosen plants, and site maps showing boudaries for the protected habitat areas
28
28. What are the IESNA lighting zones?
LZ0 - Wilderness
LZ1 - Dark (parks, rural areas)
LZ2 - Low (residential, light industrial)
LZ3 - Medium (commercial, industrial, high density residential)
LZ4 - High (metro areas)
29
29. When an organization/agency is providing space for shared use to students, what should be included?
```
Auditorium
Gym
Cafeteria
One or more classrooms
Swimming Pool
Playing Field
```
30
30. What slope is important for heat island effect - roof?
2:12 slope;
> means steeped slope and requires an initial SRI of 39 or greater;
2:12
31
31. What causes skyglow?
Stray light from unshielded light sources and light reflecting off surfaces that then enter the atmosphere and illuminate and reflect off dust, debris, and water vapor.
32
32. For Schools to achieve Site Master Plan, how many other credits must be met?
At least 4 of 6 of these credits:
- LT Credit High Priority Site
- SS Credit Site Development - Protect or Restore Habitat
- SS Credit Open Space
- SS Credit Rainwater Management
- SS Credit Heat Island Reduction
- SS Credit Light Pollution Reduction
33
33. What is the default gender ratio for indoor water use reduction calculations?
1 to 1
| ; i.e. 50/50 male to female
34
34. What fixtures and fittings must be included in the indoor water use reduction calculations?
Water closets, urinals, lavatory faucets, showers, kitchen sink faucets, and pre-rinse spray valves
35
35. What is the discount parking rate for Green Vehicles?
20% discount
36
36. When can wetlands count as open space?
Wetlands or naturally designed ponds may count as open space and the side slope gradients average 1:4 (vertical: horizontal) or less and are vegetated.
37
37. What are the benefits of commissioning?
- Reduced Energy Use
- Lower Operating Costs
- Reduced Contractor Callbacks
- Better Building Documentation
- Improved Occupant Productivity
- Verification that Systems perform with Owner' Project Requirements
38
38. What documents get created during fundamental commissioning and verification?
Cx report
Current facility requirements
Operations and maintenance plan
39
39. What energy-related systems must be commissioned?
- Mechanical, including HVAC&R equipment and controls
- Electrical lighting and daylighting controls
- Plumbing, including domestic hot water systems
- Renewable energy systems
40
40. What do the Owner's Project Requirements typically include?
Owner and User Requirements, Environmental and Sustainability Goals, Energy Efficiency Goals, Indoor Environmental Quality Requirements, Equipment and System Expectations, Building Occupant and O&M Personnel Requirements.
41
41. What do the Owner's Project Requirements typically include?
Primary Design Assumptions, Standards, & Narrative Descriptions
42
42. Process Energy is considered to include, but is not limited to what?
Miscellaneous Equipment, Computers, Elevators, Escalators, Kitchen Cooking & Refrigeration Equipment, Laundry Washing & Drying, Lighting Exempt from Power Allowance (e.g., Medical Equipment), and other (e.g., Waterfall or Fountain Pumps)
43
43. Regulated or (non-process) Energy includes?
Lighting (interior, parking garage, surface parking, façade, or building grounds) HVAC, service water heating for domestic or space heating purposes.
44
44. What generates both electrical power and thermal energy from a single fuel source?
Combined Heat and Power (CHP) or Cogeneration
45
45. What device is used to regulate humidity and temperature, making building systems more energy efficient?
An economizer
46
46. What refrigerant management procedure governs reducing annual leakage of CFC-based refrigerants to 5% or less?
EPA Clean Air Act, Title VI, Rule 608
47
47. What are the three (3) compliance path options described in Optimize Energy Performance (EA
Prerequisite 2)?
Option 1. Whole Building Energy Simulation, Option 2. Prescriptive Compliance Path: ASHRAE 50% Advanced Energy Design Guide Option 3. Prescriptive Compliance Path: Advanced Buildings Core Performance Guide
48
48. What are the six (6) components of ASHRAE 90.1?
Building envelope, HVAC, Service Water Heating, Power, Lighting, Other Equipment
49
49. What four fundamental strategies can increase energy performance?
Orientation, Site Energy Sources, Efficient Envelope, Energy Recovery Systems
50
50. What are the thresholds for renewable energy production credit?
LEED BD+C (except Core and Shell): 1%, 5%, 10%
| LEED BD+C: Core and Shell: 1%, 3%, 5%
51
51. What are the eligible types of systems for Renewable Energy Production?
Photovoltaic systems, Wind energy systems, Solar thermal systems, Biofuel-based electrical systems, Geothermal heating or electric systems, Low-impact hydroelectric power systems, Wave & tidal power systems
52
52. What biofuel systems are NOT eligible for Renewable Energy Production?
Combustion of municipal solid waste, Forestry biomass waste other than mill residue, Coated Wood, or Treated Wood.
53
53. What are the two (2) Options for Enhanced Refrigerant Management?
Option 1. No refrigerants or Low-Impact Refrigerants
| Option 2. Calculation of Refrigeration Impact
54
54. What types of equipment are NOT subject to the Fundamental Refrigerant Management requirements?
Small HVAC units (less than 0.5 lbs [225 grams] of refrigerant), standard refrigerators, small water coolers.
55
55. What is the duration and % a project must engage in to earn points under Green Power and Carbon Offsets?
5-year contract AND 50% provision of the project's energy from green power, carbon offsets, or renewable energy certificates.
56
56. What are the two (2) Options to determine electricity use for Green Power and Carbon Offsets?
Option 1. Use the calculated energy consumption results from EA Prerequisite Minimum Energy Performance or Option 2. Estimate electricity use using CBECS database
57
57. RECs can be used to mitigate what type(s) of emissions for Green Power and Carbon Offsets?
Scope 2, electricity use.
58
58. Carbon offsets can be used to mitigate what type(s) of emissions for Green Power and Carbon Offsets?
Scope 1 or Scope 2 emissions.
59
59. What are the three (3) basic methods for ventilating buildings?
Mechanical Ventilation (active ventilation), Natural Ventilation (passive ventilation), Mixed-Mode Ventilation (both mechanical & natural ventilation)
60
60. What is the distance ALL naturally ventilated spaces must be in proximity to an operable wall or roof opening to the outdoors?
25' feet
61
61. What is the typical permitted distance for Environmental Tobacco Smoke (ETS) Control (IEQ Prerequisite 2)?
25' feet
62
62. What is the maximum background noise level allowed for HVAC equipment in classrooms required for Minimum Acoustical Performance (IEQ Prerequisite 3)?
45 dBA
63
63. What acoustic issues need to considered for Acoustic Performance?
HVAC background noise
Sound transmission
Reverberation time
Sound reinforcement and masking systems
64
64. At what % must an outdoor air delivery monitoring system generate an alarm for insufficient airflow values or carbon dioxide?
10% variation from design values
65
65. What is considered a densely occupied space when monitoring CO2 concentrations for mechanically ventilated spaces?
25 people or more per 1,000 square feet
66
66. For increased ventilation what % must mechanically ventilated spaces increase outdoor air ventilation rates required by ASHRAE 62.1?
30% above rates required by ASHRAE 62.1
67
67. What filtration media is required for Enhanced IAQ strategies?
MERV 13 or F7 (CEN Standard EN 779-2002)
68
68. How does a project confirm natural ventilation is an effective strategy?
Follow the CIBSE flow diagram.
69
69. What is required for Construction IAQ Management Plan?
Meet or exceed SMACNA guidelines
Protect absorptive materials stored on-site
Use MERV 8 (F5) filters on operating air-handlers
Prohibit smoking in the building and within 25' (7.5 meters) of entrances
70
70. What are the five (5) areas SMACNA standards for recommended IAQ Control Measures?
- HVAC protection
- Source control
- Pathway interruption
- Housekeeping
- Scheduling
71
71. What are the two (2) Options for Indoor Air Quality Assessment?
Option 1. Flush-out, Option 2. Air testing
72
72. What are the two (2) building flush-out paths a project can consider for IAQ Assessment?
14,000 Cubic Feet of Outdoor Air per SF of Floor Area @ 60°F & 60% relative humidity OR 3,500 Cubic Feet of Outdoor Air per SF of Floor Area @ Minimum Rate of .30 (cfm) until reaching 14,000 Cubic Feet per SF
73
73. At what height must air samples be collected at for IAQ Assessment?
3 to 6 feet (900 to 1,800 mm) above floor to represent the breathing zone
74
74. What are the general emissions evaluation standards associated with low-emitting adhesives and sealants?
California Department of Public Health (CDPH) Standard Method v1.1-2010 and German AgBB Testing and Evaluation Scheme (2010)
75
75. How long must permanent entryway systems be in the primary direction of travel for Enhanced IAQ Strategies?
10' (3 meters) in the primary direction of travel at regularly used exterior entrances.
76
76. What MERV rating must mechanically ventilated buildings design HVAC systems to filter supply air prior to occupancy?
MERV 13 (F7) or higher
77
77. What types of rooms would require negative air pressure, self-closing doors, and deck-to-deck partitions or hard-lid ceilings for interior cross-contamination prevention?
Garages
Houskeeping and laundry areas
Copying and printing rooms
78
78. What % of the building occupants must have individual lighting controls for Interior Lighting?
At least 90% of individual occupant spaces and 100% of shared multi-occupant spaces
79
79. How many modes must lighting systems be able to operate in?
3: On, off, and mid-level
80
80. What % of the building occupants must have individual comfort controls for Thermal Comfort?
At least 50% of individual occupant spaces and 100% for all shared multi-occupant spaces
81
81. What standards must be followed for thermal comfort design?
Option 1. ASHRAE Standard 55-10
OR
Option 2. IOS and CEN Standards
82
82. What are the six (6) primary comfort factors associated with ASHRAE 55?
```
Metabolic Rate
Clothing Insulation
Air Temperature
Radiant Temperature
Air Speed
Humidity
```
83
83. What are the three (3) options to achieve IEQ Credit Daylight?
Option 1. Simulation: Spatial daylight autonomy and annual sunlight exposure
Option 2. Simulation: I luminance calculations
Option 3. Measurement
84
84. What % of regularly occupied floor area must achieve daylight illumination for IEQ Credit Daylight?
75% = 1 Point
85
85. What are the four kinds of views?
- Multiple lines of sight to vision glazing in different directions at least 90 degrees apart
- Views that include at least two of the following: (1) flora, fauna, or sky; (2) movement; and (3) objects at least 25 feet (7.5 meters) from the exterior of the glazing
- Unobstructed views located within the distance of three times the head height of the vision glazing
- Views with a view factor of 3 or greater
86
86. What % of regularly occupied floor area must have direct line of sight to the outdoors via vision glazing for IEQ Credit Views?
75% = 1 Point
87
87. Views into the interior atria may be used to meet what percent of the required area for Quality Views?
30%
88
88. What dBA must background noise from HVAC equipment be reduced to for Minimum Acoustic Performance?
40 dBA
89
89. What is the maximum number of points a project can earn for achieving Exemplary Performance?
2 Points
90
90. What is the maximum number of points a project can earn for IN Credit Innovation for the innovation option?
4 Points
91
91. What is the maximum number of points a project can earn for Pilot Credits?
4 Points
92
92. What is required for LEED Accredited Professional credit?
One LEED AP with a specialty appropriate for the project
93
93. What is the maximum number of points a project can earn for Regional Priority credits?
4 Points
94
94. At a minimum, projects must provide dedicated area for collection and storage of what five (5) materials?
```
Paper
Corrugated Cardboard
Glass
Plastics
Metals
```
95
95. What do calculations need to be done by for Construction and Demolition Waste Management?
Weight or Volume
96
96. What are the minimum % thresholds for debris to be recycled or salvaged for Construction and Demolition Waste Management?
```
50% = 1 Point
75% = 2 Points
```
97
97. What is required for a project team to establish for Construction and Demolition Waste Management Planning?
Waste diversion goals
98
98. Who is NOT required to have a Chain of Custody documentation for FSC-certified wood?
End User
99
99. What international alternative compliance path is available for material ingredient optimization?
REACH Optimization
100
100. For Innovation credit when pursuing Option 1 Innovation what must the team identify?
Intent of proposed innovation credit, proposed requirement(s) for compliance, proposed submittals, and strategies used to meet requirement(s)
101
101. What is a BAS?
Building Automation System (BAS), it uses computer-based monitoring to coordinate, organize, and optimize building control subsystems, including lighting, equipment scheduling, and alarm reporting.
102
102. What is WaterSense?
WaterSense is a partnership program sponsored by EPA, helping consumers identify water-efficient products and programs.
103
103. At what heights should CO2 sensors be placed at for breathing zone requirements?
Between 3 and 6 feet above the floor.
104
104. When can certification be revoked?
Certification may be revoked from any LEED project upon gaining knowledge of non-compliance with any applicable MPR. If such a circumstance occurs, registration and/or certification fees will not be refunded.
105
105. What is Technical Release (TR) 55?
An approach to hydrology in which watersheds are modeled to calculate storm runoff volume, peak rate of discharge, hydrographs, and storage volumes, developed by the former USDA Soil Conservation Service
106
106. What energy-related building aspects must be considered for Integrative Process?
```
Site conditions
Massing and orientation
Basic envelope attributes
Lighting levels
Thermal comfort ranges
Plug and process load needs
```
107
107. What (4) water-related building aspects must be considered for Integrative Process?
- Interior water demand
- Outdoor water demand
- Process water demand
- Supply sources
108
108. How many potential strategies must be assessed for each energy-related building aspect for Integrative Design?
At least 2 strategies must be assessed for each of the six aspects.
109
109. What tool is used to benchmark building performance for Integrative Design?
EPA's Target Finder
110
110. What LEED ND certification designations are eligible for LEED ND Location credit?
- LEED ND Pilot, Stage 2 LEED ND Certified Plan
- LEED ND Pilot, Stage 3 LEED ND Certified Project
- LEED 2009, Stage 2 Pre-certified LEED ND Plan
- LEED 2009, Stage 3 LEED ND Certified Neighborhood Development
- LEED v4 LEED ND Certified Plan
- LEED v4 LEED ND Certified Built Project
111
111. What percent of a building must be maintained for historic building reuse?
There is no minimum requirement. The historic designation must be maintained however.
112
112. When renovating an abandoned or blighted building what percent of the building must be maintained?
At least 50% by surface area of the existing structure, enclosure, and interior structural elements.
113
113. What is the minimum percent reuse required for building and material reuse?
At least 25% from off site or on site as a percentage of the surface area.
114
114. What are the six impact categories of a life-cycle assessment?
- Global warming potential (greenhouse gases)
- Depletion of the stratospheric ozone layer
- Acidification of land and water sources
- Eutrophication
- Formation of tropospheric ozone
- Depletion of nonrenewable energy resources
115
115. When conducting a whole-building life-cycle assessment what are the min/max reductions of the impact categories?
A minimum of 10% in at least 3 impact categories (of which one must be GHG emissions) and do not exceed any impact category by more than 5% compared to a baseline building.
116
116. For a whole-building life-cycle assessment what is the service life of the baseline building?
60 years
117
117. What is the location valuation factor for the optimization and disclosure credits?
Products and materials that are extracted, manufactured, and purchased within 100 miles (160 km) of the project value are valued at 200% of their cost.
118
118. What is the minimum number of products required for the disclosure option of the MR credits?
At least 20 different permanently installed products sourced from at least 5 different manufacturers
119
119. What factor is used to determine the optimization of the MR credits?
Use products that comply with the criteria of each credit based on the cost of the products, compared to the total value of permanently installed products.
120
120. What are the three types of EPDs and what is the product value of each type?
Product-specific declaration: 1/4 of a product
Industry-wide (generic) EPD: 1/2 of a product
Product-specific Type III EPD: 1 product
121
121. How many qualifying products must be sourced for exemplary peformance for product disclosure?
At least 40 qualifying products
122
122. A cradle-to-gate assessment is required for what material disclosure?
Each of the three types of EPDs require at least a cradle-to-gate scope.
123
123. Structure and enclosure materials may not constitute more than what percent of compliant building products for material disclosure and optimization?
30%
124
124. All EPDs must be consistent with what standards?
ISO standards 14025, 14040, 14044, and EN 15804 or ISO 21930
125
125. What are the acceptable corporate sustainability reporting (CSR) frameworks?
- Global Reporting Initiative (GRI) Sustainability Report
- Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) Guidelines for Multinational Enterprises
- U.N. Global Compact: Communication of Progress
- ISO 26000: 2010 Guidance on Social Responsibility
126
126. What are the types of responsible extraction criteria for sourcing of raw materials?
- Extended producer responsibility
- Bio-based materials
- Wood products
- Materials reuse
- Recycled content
127
127. What standards are acceptable for material ingredient optimization?
GreenScreen v1.2 Benchmark
Cradle to Cradle Certified
REACH Optimization (International Alternative Compliance Path)
128
128. What Cradle-to-Cradle certified products count towards material ingredient optimization?
- Cradle to Cradle v2 Gold: 100% of cost
- Cradle to Cradle v2 Platinum: 150% of cost
- Cradle to Cradle v3 Silver: 100% of cost
- Cradle to Cradle v3 Gold or Platinum: 150% of cost
129
129. What information must be inventoried for a site assessment?
- Topography
- Hydrology
- Climate
- Vegetation
- Soils
- Human use
- Human health effects
130
130. What should be used to estimate the water storage capacity of a site during a site assessment?
Urban Hydrology for Small Watersheds Technical Release 55 (TR-55) or local equivalent for projects outside the U.S.
131
131. What is a three-year aged SR (or SRI)?
A solar reflectance or solar reflectance index rating that is measured after three years of weather exposure
132
132. What should be used to designate a site as prime farmland and identify its soil classification?
Natural Resources Conservation Service (or local equivalent)
133
133. What reduction is required for demand response?
At least 10% of the estimated peak electricity demand
134
134. What types of demand response programs are acceptable?
Semi-automated and automated (not manual)
135
135. What is load shedding?
An intentional action by a utility to reduce the load on the system. Load shedding is usually conducted during emergency periods, such as capacity shortages, system instability, or voltage control.
136
136. What is the contract period for demand response?
A minimum of one year with the intention of multiyear renewal
137
137. What are the three options for high priority sites?
Option 1. Historic district
Option 2. Priority designation
Option 3. Brownfield remediation
138
138. What type of location must a historic district project be located in for High-Priority Site?
On an infill location
139
139. What are the priority designations for High-Priority Site?
- Site listed by the EPA National Priorities List
- Federal Empowerment Zone site
- Federal Enterprise Community site
- Federal Renewal Community site
- Department of the Treasury Community Development Financial Institutions Fund Qualified Low-Income Community
- Site in a U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development’s Qualified Census Tract or Difficult Development Area
- Local equivalent program administered at the national level for projects outside the U.S
140
140. What are the minimum weekday and weekend trips for projects with multiple transit types (bus, streetcar, rail, or ferry)?
72 weekday, 40 weekend
141
141. What are the minimum weekday and weekend trips for projects with commuter rail or ferry service only?
24 weekday, 6 weekend
142
142. When can planned stops and stations count towards Access to Quality Transit?
When they are sited, funded, and under construction by the date of the certificate of occupancy and are complete within 24 months of that date.
143
143. What must a bicycle network connect to?
At least one of the following:
- at least 10 diverse uses
- a school or employment center, if the project total floor area is 50% or more residential
- a bus rapid transit stop, light or heavy rail station, commuter rail station, or ferry terminal
144
144. How close does a functional entry or bicycle storage need to be to a bicycle network?
Within 200-yards (180-meters) walking or bicycling distance
145
145. What is the maximum distance on a bicycle network destinations (diverse use, school/employment center, quality transit) must be?
Within a 3-mile (4,800 meter) bicycling distance of the project boundary.
146
146. Where must short-term bicycle storage be located?
Within 100 feet (30 meters) walking distance of any main entrance.
147
147. Where must long-term bicycle storage be located?
Within 100 feet (30 meters) walkin distance of any functional entry.
148
148. What is required for Reduced Parking Footprint?
1. Do not exceed the minimum local code requirements
| 2. A percent reduction from a baseline (20% or 40% depending on what other credits are achieved)
149
149. When is a 40% reduction from the base ratios of the ITE Transportation Planning Handbook required for Reduced Parking Footprint?
When a project earns EITHER LT Credit Surrounding Density and Diverse Uses or LT Credit Access to Quality Transit
150
150. How much preferred parking is required for Reduced Parking Footprint?
5% of the total parking spaces AFTER reductions are made from the base ratios.
151
151. What percent of Open Space must be vegetated?
25% minimum
152
152. How much outdoor space must be provided for Open Space?
30% of the total site area (including the building footprint) or greater.
153
153. What must outdoor space be to qualify for Open Space?
Physically accessible
154
154. What types of outdoor spaces qualify for Open Space?
- paving or turf that accommodates outdoor social activities
- paving or turf that encourages physical activity
- year-round garden space
- community gardens
- preserved or created habitat
155
155. When can a vegetated roof count towards vegetation for Open Space?
When a project has a density of 1.5 FAR
156
156. How much rainfall must be managed for a project with a zero-lot-line with a minimum density of 1.5 FAR?
85th Percentile
157
157. What are some ways to capture rainwater to prevent runoff?
LID and green infrastructure
158
158. For a project with open space what minimum rainfall must be managed?
95th Percentile
159
159. When managing rainwater using natural land cover conditions what must be done?
Manage on site the annual increase in runoff volume from the natural land cover condition to the postdeveloped condition.
160
160. When managing a percentile of rainfall events what minimum amount of historical rainfall data is required?
10 years worth
161
161. What percent of runoff must be managed for the 95th percentile rainfall event?
100%
162
162. What minimum percent of parking spaces must be placed under cover for Heat Island Reduction Option 2. Parking Under Cover?
75%
163
163. Shade and architectural devices used for Heat Island Reduction must have at least what three-year aged solar reflectance?
0.28. If the three-year aged value information is not available use materials with an initial SR of at least 0.33
164
164. How is the total vehicle parking spaces calculated for Heat Island Reduction?
The number of parking spaces in the LEED project boundary (includes motorcycle parking). Do not count bicycle parking spaces.
165
165. Any roof used to shade covered parking for Heat Island Reduction must meet what requirements?
- 1. Three year aged SRI of at least 32
- 2. Or a vegetated roof
- 3. Or covered by energy generation systems
166
166. What are the light pollution reduction requirements for internally illuminated exterior signs?
Do not exceed a luminance of 200 cd/m2 (nits) during nighttime hours and 2000 cd/m2 (nits) during daytime hours.
167
167. What exterior lighting is exempted from uplight and light tresspass requirements?
- Specialized lighting for transportation
- Lighting for façade and landscape lighting in MLO lighting zones 3 and 4
- Lighting for theatrical purposes
- Government-mandated roadway lighting
- Hospital emergency departments, including associated helipads
- Lighting for the national flag in MLO lighting zones 2, 3, or 4
- Internally illuminated signage
168
168. How many conditions are there where the lighting boundarycan be different than the property boundary?
There are 3 conditions. The exceptions are not listed here due to their length (see the reference guide).
169
169. When using the calculation method for light pollution reduction how far apart can the calculation points be?
No more than 5 feet (1.5 meters) apart.
170
170. If the BUG rating method is used to meet the Uplight requirements does the method have to be used to mee the Light Tresspass requirements?
No. Project teams can use the BUG method or calculation method for Uplight, and use the same or different method for Light Tresspass.
171
171. What is a BUG rating?
A luminaire classification system that classifies luminaires in terms of backlight (B), uplight (U), and glare (G) (taken from IES/IDA Model Lighting Ordinance). BUG ratings supersede the former cutoff ratings.
172
172. What optional systems can be submetered for Water Metering?
Two or more of the following:
- Irrigation
- Indoor plumbing fixtures and fittings
- Domestic hot water
- Boilers
- Reclaimed water
- Other process water
173
173. What percent of water distribution must be submetered for irrigation, indoor plumbing fixtures, domestic hot water, or other process water?
80% must be submetered
174
174. What frequency must metered data be compiled for Building-Level-Water Metering?
Monthly and annual summaries
175
175. How long must a project commit to sharing metering data with USGBC and when must the sharing begin?
A five-year period beginning on the date the project accepts LEED certification or typical occupancy, whichever comes first
176
176. What type of water is municipally supplied reclaimed/recycled water?
Using EPA's WaterSense Water Budget Tool
177
177. What minimum percent reduction of outdoor water use is required from a calculated baseline?
30% reduction from the calculated baseline for the site's peak watering month
178
178. How can reductions be achieved for WE Prerequisite Outdoor Water Use Reduction?
1. Plant species selection
AND
2. Irrigation efficiency
Alternative water sources CANNOT be used for the prerequisite
179
179. What areas are excluded from outdoor water use reduction calculations?
Non-vegetated surfaces (permeable and impermeable pavement) are excluded. Athletic fields, food gardens, and playgrounds can be included or excluded at the project teams' discretion.
180
180. What percent reduction is required for WE Credit Outdoor Water Use Reduction?
50% from the calculated baseline for the site's peak watering month.
181
181. How can reductions be achieved beyond 30% be achieved for outdoor water use reduction?
Any combination of efficiency, alternative water sources, and smart scheduling technologies
182
182. What reduction is automatically earned when installing smart irrigation controls for WE Credit Outdoor Water Use Reduction?
15% from the baseline
183
183. What indoor water use reduction percent earns exemplary performance?
55%
184
184. What must be conducted for Cooling Tower Water Use?
A one-time potable water analysis measuring at least the required five control parameters
185
185. What minimum number of cooling tower cycles would earn a project 2 points?
A 10-cycle minimum.
186
186. Any individual energy end use that represents ____ percent of the total annual consumption of the building must have an advanced energy meter?
10%
187
187. How long must an advanced energy metering system store data?
36 months
188
188. What energy sources must be metered in a building?
- Electricity
- Natural gas, fuel oil, other fossil fuels
- Biofuels
- District chilled water, steam, and hot water
189
189. How often must advanced meters be able to report data?
Hourly, daily, monthly, and annually
190
190. What three components are part of monitoring-based commissioning (MBCx)?
Permanent energy monitoring systems, real-time energy analysis, and ongoing commissioning
191
191. Does building envelope commissioning have to be completed for Fundamental Commissioning?
No. It must be documented in the OPR and BOD. It is not required unless the project team pursues EA Credit Enhanced Commissioning, Option 2.
192
192. What minimum number of waste streams must be diverted for C&D Waste Management?
Divert at least 50% of the total C&D material, including at least three material streams
193
193. When reducing total waste material for C&D Waste Management what is the maximum amount of waste allowed?
2.5 lbs / SF (12.2 kg / m2) of waste for the building's floor area
194
194. What does not qualify as material diverted from disposal for C&D Waste Management Planning?
Alternative daily cover (ACD) and land-clearing debris.
195
195. What hazardous waste stream categories require safe collection, storage, and disposal?
Choose two of these three: Batteries, mercury-containing lamps, or electronic waste
196
196. What two simulations are required for Daylighting, Option 1 Simulation?
sDA and ASE
197
197. What is the threshold for an sDA simulation?
300 lux for 50% of the hours between 8 AM and 6 PM local time for a full calendar year
198
198. What is the threshold for an ASE simulation?
1,000 lux of direct sunlight for more than 250 hours of the year between 8 AM and 6 PM local time for a full calendar year
199
199. When do the daylight simulations for Option 2 Simulation: Illuminance calculations occur?
9 AM on the first equinox (March 21 or September 21) and 3 PM on the second equinox
200
200. At what height should daylight measurements be taken?
30 inches (750 mm) above the finished floor for the default workplane height
