Legal Aspects Of Real Estate Flashcards
(200 cards)
1
Q
Long established ruled derived from judicial decisions founded on English law are sometimes referred to as:
A
Common law
2
Q
Procedural law:
A
Sets out the methods of enforcing substantive rights
3
Q
A litigant is:
A
The plaintiff
The defendant
BOTH A & B ^^^
4
Q
A tort is a:
A
Civil wrong
5
Q
Amendments to the constitution guarantee which of the following with regards to property and the real estate profession?
A
Due process
Equal protection
Just compensation
ALL OF THE ABOVE^^^
6
Q
The laws adopted by Congress and the state legislatures are called:
A
Acts or statutes
7
Q
A proposed law in Congress is called a(n):
A
Bill
8
Q
Most legislation becomes effective:
A
January 1 of the next year
9
Q
The rules of law developed bu judges are called:
A
Case laws
10
Q
A court decision may be binding on all other judges. It depends on:
A
Jurisdiction
Position is the court hierarchy
A written opinion
ALL OF THE ABOVE^^^
11
Q
An opinion written by a court states:
A
The decision
The facts of the case
The court’s reasoning
ALL OF THE ABOVE^^^
12
Q
A appellate court will NOT change a trial court’s decision if:
A
The losing party considered the jury incompetent
13
Q
A case will NOT necessarily be heard in state court if:
A
The U.S. government is a party
14
Q
Litigants are able to find out more about the disputed facts in a case through:
A
The discovery process
15
Q
The oldest method of describing land is:
A
Metes and bounds
16
Q
The starting point of a metes and bounds description is called the:
A
Point of beginning
17
Q
The government surgery system is also called the:
A
Rectangular survey method
18
Q
Which of the following lines do NOT run east and west?
A
Principal meridians
19
Q
The square of land located at the intersection of a range and township tier is called a:
A
Township
20
Q
Irregular sections are called:
A
Government lots
21
Q
Many final subdivision maps include which of the following?
A
Measurements of area
Easements locations and dimensions
Location of survey markers
ALL OF THE ABOVE^^^
22
Q
A benchmark is a(n):
A
Marker that states the location relative to the datum
23
Q
Natural attachments that are planted and cultivated are called:
A
Fructose industriales
24
Q
Which of the following is NOT a test for a fixture?
A
Age of the fixture
25
Fixtures installed for use in a tenant’s business are called:
Trade fixtures
26
Which of the following is a water right?
Riparian
Overlying
Appropriative
ALL OF THE ABOVE^^
27
The fact that a property owner who drills a well on his or her land owns all of the oil and gas the well produces, falls under the:
Rule of capture
28
Support from adjacent land is called:
Lateral support
29
A fee simple estate is:
Inheritable
Transferable
Perpetual
ALL OF THE ABOVE^^^^
30
The duration of a life estate is based on:
The length of someone’s life
31
A leasehold estate for a fixed time period is a(n):
Estate for years
32
Which of the following gives someone other than the owner the right to do something on the land or take something from the land?
Positive easement
33
The land burdened by an easement is called the:
Service to tenement
34
When someone creates an easement by making long and continuous use without the permission of the owner, it is called:
Easement by prescription
35
Unlike an easement, a license does NOT:
Create an interest in the property
36
A mortgage is an example of a(n):
Voluntary lien
37
A property tax is actually a:
Specific lien
38
Which of the following is NOT subject to property taxes?
Federal property
State property
Educational property
ALL OF THE ABOVE^^^
39
The tax on a parcel of real estate is calculated by multiplying the tax rate by the:
Assessed (taxable) value
40
The first installment on property taxes is delinquent if not paid by:
5PM on December 10th
41
A state tax lien would be junior to the recorded interest of a:
Mortgage or trust deed lender
Mechanic’s lien holder
Judgement lien creditor
ALL OF THE ABOVE^^^
42
A declared homestead exemption is established by:
Recording a declaration of homestead
43
The most basic form of concurrent ownership is:
Tenancy in common
44
A tenant in common is free to:
Sell his or her interest
Will his or her interest
Encumber his or her interest
ANY OF THE ABOVE^^^^
45
Joint tenancy requires unity of possession and:
Unity of interest
Unity of time
Unity of title
ALL OF THE ABOVE^^^
46
Severance, with regards to joint tenancy:
Eliminates the rights of survivorship
47
A form is co-ownership that can only be held by spouses and registered domestic partners is called:
Community property
48
One spouse can’t give away community property without the other’s consent. This falls under the:
Joinder requirements
49
If a spouse with two children dies intestate, the deceased spouse’s interest in the community property will be distributed with:
All of it going to the surviving spouse
50
When a couple changes a joint tenancy agreement to community property, it is called a(n):
Transmutation agreement
51
A corporation organized under the laws of another state is a:
Foreign corporation
52
With a general partnership, the liability for debts of the partnership lies with:
Each individual partner
53
To transact business using partnership name, the partners must publish and record a:
Fictitious business name certificate
54
With a limited partnership:
The limited partners have limited liability
55
____ is the minimum number of investors that a real estate investment (REIT) must have?
100
56
Which of the following describes an arrangement where the buyers purchase the exclusive right to the possession of the party for specified periods each year?
A timeshare
57
Authority intentionally given by the principal to an agent is called:
Actual authority
58
A real estate agent/broker with authority limited to the single transaction of selling a particular house is a:
Special agent
59
An agency may be created by:
Express agreement
Ratification
Stopped
ALL OF THE ABOVE^^^
60
When a person acts on another’s behalf without agency authorization, and later the principal approves these actions, it is known as:
Ratification
61
With an independent contractor:
He or she does not work hours set by the employer
62
If a cooperating broker is the procuring cause in bringing about the sale of the property, who pays him or her a share of the commission?
The listing broker
63
An agency is terminated by operation of law if:
Either party dies it
Either party goes bankrupt
The agent loses his or her license
ANY OF THE ABOVE^^^
64
An unilateral termination of the agency relationship by the principal would be achieved through:
Revocation
65
Which of the following does NOT require a real estate license to represent another in a specific real estate transaction?
Attorney
Trustee
Executor
ANY OFTHE ABOVE^^^
66
A real estate license must be renewed:
Every 4 years
67
A broker must keep records of each transaction for at least three years beginning:
From the closing date
68
With few exceptions, a California brokers client trust account t must be maintained at a financial institution:
In California
69
In a listing agreement for the sale of four or less residential units, a broker’s commission must:
Be negotiable between the seller and the broker
70
A buyer is considered “able” if he or she has which of the following?
Enough cash to complete the sale
A strong credit rating and adequate personal assets
A binding commitment for a loan to finance the purchase
ANY OF THE ABOVE^^^
71
An agency disclosure form is NOT required for the sale of a:
Commercial property
72
An agent owes his or her principal the basic fiduciary duty of:
Reasonable care and skill
Diligence, good faith, and loyalty
Disclosure of material information
ALL OF THE ABOVE^^^
73
A real estate agent representing a seller should be especially careful to inform the principal of:
The true value of the property
All offers to purchase
The identity of the purchaser
ALL OF THE ABOVE^^^
74
When a broker exaggerates the market value of the property in order to get a listing, he or she breaches his or her duty to:
Act in good faith
75
When the agent buys a property for himself or herself (without the owners knowledge) and then sells its again for a profit, it is called:
Self-dealing
76
Which of the following is NOT an agents duty to a third party?
Fiduciary relationship
77
The transfer disclosure statement is usually signed by the:
Seller
Listing agent
Selling agent
ALL OF THE ABOVE^^^
78
Actual fraud involves:
Intentional misrepresentation
Concealment
Negligent misrepresentation
ANY OF THE ABOVE^^^
79
Generally, a seller or agent can’t be sued for misrepresentation if his or her statements were merely:
Opinions
Predictions
Puffing
ANY OF THE ABOVE^^^
80
The most widely recognized code of ethics in the real estate industry is the:
NAR Code of Ethics
81
A breach of a legal duty may result in all of the following, except:
Beneficial damages
82
Where damages are concerned, the closest word to “compensatory” is:
Actual
83
A client who is awarded damages against a real estate agent based on fraud, but is unable to collect, may be entitled to payment out of the:
Real Estate Recovery Account
84
A payment from the Real Estate Recovery Fund must be based on a judgement against a real estate agent for:
Intentional fraud
Misrepresentation or deceit
Conversion of trust funds
ANY OF THE ABOVE^^^
85
A void contract is:
No contract at all
86
To make a valid contract, a person generally must be:
18 years old
87
An emancipated minor is a person under the age of 18 who:
Is married or has been married
Is on active duty with the armed forces
Has received a court declaration of emancipation
ANY OF THE ABOVE^^^
88
For a contract to be a binding obligation, all the parties:
Must consent to its terms
89
Which of the following is NOT a requirement for acceptance of an offer?
It can only be accepted by the offeror
90
A contractual promise is distinguished from the promise of a gift by the exchange of:
Consideration
91
When the contract is made, the “purpose” of a contract must be:
Lawful
92
A written contract can be modified orally:
If new consideration is supplied
93
When a promisor’s obligation depends on the occurrence of a particular event, that event is called a:
Condition
94
In California, a lawsuit based on a written contract generally must be filed no later than how many years after the breach occurred?
4 years
95
For may oral contracts involving real property, any lawsuits must be filed within:
2 years of the breach
96
The term “patrol” most closely means:
Spoken
97
When the parties agree in advance to set damages at a specified sum, the contract is said to contain a(n):
Liquidated damages clause
98
A court order directing a breaching party to pay a sum of money to the non breaching party is called:
Damages (money)
99
When the court orders a breaching party to carry out the performance he or she promised in the contract, it is called:
Specific performance
100
A court order directing a person to do something or refrain from doing something is called a(n):
Injunction
101
An employment agreement between a seller and a broker is called a:
Listing agreement
102
A listing agreement can only be assigned to another broker:
With the client’s consent
103
The exclusive right to sell agency listing must contain:
A termination date
104
Which of the following makes the client liable for a commission during a specified period after the listing expires?
An extender clause
105
The standard purchase agreement contains:
An offer to purchase real property
A receipt for the good faith earnest money
The seller’s agreement to pay listing broker’s compensation
ALL OF THE ABOVE^^^
106
Most agreements between buyers and sellers are:
Conditional
107
Under the compensation provision of the CAR purchase agreement, if the buyer defaults, the broker is entitled to:
Half of the damages the seller receives
108
Under the compensation provision of the CAR purchase agreement, if the buyer defaults the broker is entitled to:
Half of the forfeited deposit
109
When an offered varies any of the terms in an offer, it is called a:
Counter offer
110
A contract giving one party the right to do something without obligating him or her to do it is a(n):
Option
111
To make an option irrevocable, the option must be supported by:
A signed contract
A property description
Terms of the sale
ALL OF THE ABOVE^^^
112
When someone who has the right to buy a property only if and when the owner decides to sell it is said to hold a(n):
Right of first refusal
113
The primary method by which conflicts are resolved is:
Negotiation
114
Integrative negotiation can best be described as:
Win-win
115
A neutral third party assists the parties in voluntarily negotiating a settlement to the dispute in:
Mediation
116
A section of a written contract that allows for mediation should a dispute arise is called a(n):
Mediation clause
117
When a mediator meets with one of the parties to get them to focus on their interests and needs, it is called a(n):
Caucus
118
Generally, most arbitration proceedings are:
Binding
119
A court-annexed arbitration may be ordered by the superior court when there is less than:
$50,000 at stake
120
A binding arbitration is:
Not reviewable by the courts
121
If no arbitration clause is in a contract, the parties can still go to arbitration by executing a(n):
Submission agreement
122
A subpoena for books and records is called:
Subpoena duces tectum
123
An arbitrator’s decision is called a(n):
Award
124
If one party refuses to comply with the arbitration award, the other party may file with the court a:
Petition to confirm
125
A license hearing process to deny issuance of a real estate license is initiated by the Commissioner filing a:
Statement of issues
126
A hearing procedure by the Real Estate Commissioner to suspend or revoke a real estate license is initiated with the filing of a(n):
Accusation
127
In reference to a deed, the owner of the property who is transferring title is called the:
Grantor
128
When a document has been signed in front of a notary public, it is said to be:
Acknowledged
129
Acceptance of a transfer of ownership must take place:
While the one granting is alive
130
An important difference between a grant and a quitclaim is that the grant deed:
Conveys after-acquired title
131
An amendment to a will is called a(n):
Addendum
132
A will only transfers property
If it is oral
133
When property reverts to the state because no heirs can be located, it is called:
Escheat
134
All of the following can be adversely possessed, except:
Public lands
135
In California, title can be acquired by adverse possession if the possession is:
Actual, open, and notorious
Hostile to the owner’s interest
Exclusive and uninterrupted for five years
ALL OF THE ABOVE^^^
136
Taking away property through an eminent domain action must include:
Just compensation
137
A person gives a gift of privately owned land to the public through:
Dedication
138
When something is added to a parcel of real property, the property owner acquires title to the addition by:
Accession
139
Notice given by the recording of documents with a public official which is something you should know about, but not actually know about is called:
Constructive notice
140
In Southern California, escrow services are most often provided by:
Independent escrow companies
141
The most significant factor in estimating a closing date it the:
State if the finance market
142
Escrow agents’ written authorization to deliver the deposited funds and documents are called the:
Escrow instructions
143
Escrow instructions can also act as a(n):
Contract of sale
144
When title passes on the date the deed or funds were deposited in escrow, instead of the date all conditions were performed, it is known as:
The doctrine of relation back
145
The escrow agent turns the escrow funds over to the court to settle a dispute in a(n):
Interpleader action
146
A credit is a(n):
Amount received
147
Which is NOT a RESPA requirement?
The lender may pay referral dees to anyone
148
A trust account maintained by the lender for paying property taxes and mortgage insurance premiums is a(n):
Impound account
149
After the purchase price, the buyers second largest debit at closing is typically the:
Loan origination fee
150
The seller’s major cost at closing is usually the:
Payoff of any existing loans
151
Which of the following would NOT generally be charged to the buyer in escrow?
The broker’s commission
152
The seller’s major credit in escrow is the:
Purchase price
153
The documentary transfer tax is ordinarily paid by the:
Seller
154
A standard title insurance policy covers:
Forged deeds
Recorded encumbrances not listed exceptions
Forged deeds
ALL OF THE ABOVE^^^
155
With a promissory note, the loan amount is called the:
Principal
156
A promissonary note that includes periodic payments of interest only if called a(n):
Straight note
157
The key difference between a mortgage and a trust deed is that only a trust deed:
Is usually foreclosed nonjudicially
158
A power of sale clause:
Allows the trustee to sell the property in case of default
159
A document stating that the debt secured by the deed of trust has been discharged is called a:
Full reconveyance
160
When a borrower defaults and the lender has the right to declare the entire balance due immediately, the loan has a(n):
Acceleration clause
161
When a new owner assumes an existing lien:
The new owner takes responsibility for the lien
162
To start the foreclosure process, the beneficiary asks he trustee to record a:
Notice of default
163
The borrower in a mortgage is called the:
Mortgagor
164
In a land contract, the buyer holds:
Equitable title
165
The sum of all fees the lender charges a borrower in exchanges for granting the loan is the:
Total finance charge
166
Under the mortgage loan broker law, a disclosure state is NOT required:
If the lender is an institutional lender
167
The Act that requires all states to implement a licensing system for residential mortgage loan originators is the:
SAFE act
168
The SAFE act:
Requires all states to implement a licensing system for residential mortgage loan originators
169
In a smaller community, the city council will often act as the:
Planning commission
170
Which organization would oversee the merging between two communities?
LAFCO
171
A permit that allows an owner to build a structure or use a property in a way that isn’t otherwise allowed is called:
A use variance
172
An amendment to the zoning law is called a:
Rezone
173
Which of the following is a type of map that can be filed for a subdivision with tow-to-four lots?
A parcel map
174
When subdivision property in one state is offered for sale in another state, a developer may have to comply with the:
Interstate land sales full disclosure act
175
The national environmental policy act established the:
EPA
CEQ
EIS
ALL OF THE ABOVE^^
176
The California Law that is similar to the National Environmental Policy act is the:
CEQA
177
When private restrictions of the use of a property are simply a contract between an owner and the neighboring owner, it is called a(n):
Restrictive covenant
178
A restrictive covenant may run with the land if it:
Relates the to use of a property
Relates to the repair, maintenance, or improvement of the property
Directly benefits the property
ANY OF THE ABOVE^^^
179
The owner’s title is provisional (subject to forfeiture) when a deed contains a:
Condition
180
A restrictive covenant can be terminated by:
Expiration
Merger
Abandonment
ALL OF THE ABOVE^^^
181
Under CALgreen:
California became the first state to adopt a green building code
Minimum uniform standards fo green building that apply to many types of construction were established
Developers must divert 50 percent of construction waste from landfills through recycling or re0use materials
ALL OF THE ABOVE^^^
182
California became the first state to adopt a green building code through:
CALGreen
183
Which of the following is true with regard to the Civil Rights Act of 1866
It only prohibits discrimination based on race o ancestry
It applies the any real estate transaction
There are no exceptions
All OF THE ABOVE^^^
184
Title VILL of the Civil Rights Act of 1968 is commonly called the:
Federal fair housing act
185
The federal fair housing act prohibits discrimination based on:
Race
Religion
Familial status
ALL OF THE ABOVE^^^
186
Channeling prospective buyers or renters to specific neighborhoods based on their race is an example of:
Steering
187
Refusal, for discriminatory reasons, to make loans on property on a particular neighborhood is called:
Redlining
188
Which of the following acts applies to the extension of credit?
Equal credit opportunity act
189
Which of the following is not a federal law or regulation designed to eliminate discrimination in lending?
The Civil Right Act of 1776
190
The Housing financial discrimination act allows:
A financial institution to take the fair arrest value of the property into consideration when deciding on a loan
191
Which California act prohibits discrimination by business establishments?
Unruh act
192
Which of the following commissioners regulations explain the duties of real estate agents in regards to unlawful discrimination?
2780
2781
2725
ALL OF TH ABOVE^^
193
Which of the following can sue for violations of anti-discrimination laws?
State attorney general
U.S. Attorney general
Tester
ANY OF THE ABOVE^^^^
194
Refusal to sell or rent after receiving a good faith offer, if it can be shown that the offeror’s race, religion, sex, national origin, or disability was a factor, is:
Unlawful
195
Refusing to deal with someone who has sued you for discrimination may be considered:
Unlawful retaliation
196
Who can be held liable for unlawful discrimination?
Seller/landlord
Property manager
Rental agent
ALL OF THE ABOVE^^^^
197
Which of the following is NOT a type of lease?
Decimal
198
A device that substitutes a lease with a new lease between a landlord and a different tenant is called a:
Notation
199
Under California Law, which of the following are true?
Landlords can prohibit smoking on the property
Landlords are prohibited from required pets be declawed or devocalized
BOTH A & B ARE TRUE^^^
200
The Landlord, to make the property tenantable, must:
Provide effective waterproofing
Provide plumbing and heating
Make sure the common area is free from trash
ALL OF THE ABOVE^^^
