Legal Knowledge CLAT Flashcards

(377 cards)

1
Q

Sushil Chandra takes over as the ___ CEC

A

24th

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Limitation Act year

A

1963

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Arbitration and Conciliation Act year

A

1996

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Consensus Ad Idem meaning

A

agreeing to the same thing in the same sense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

If a contract isn’t void ab initio, but becomes void later on, it is called

A

frustration of contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How is fraud related to misrepresentation?

A

Fraud is deliberate misrepresentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which is void - wager or contingent contract?

A

Wager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Article 12

A

Concept of State

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Financial Emergency article

A

360

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

the first case towards the establishment of the “postal rule” for acceptance of an offer.

A

Adams v Lindsell, an English contract case

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Where did we borrow the concept of DPSP from?

A

Ireland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The power of contempt is under which article?

A

Article 129

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Article 19, 1 a

A

Freedom of speech and expression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Article 19, 1 g

A

Practise any profession, carry on any occupation, trade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Forest Rights Act (FRA) year?

A

2006

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act year

A

2016

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Bill, 2020 seeks to amend the:

A

Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

article 165

A

Governor appoints Advocate-General for the State.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Indian Contract Act was passed in ______

A

1872

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The offeror is also called ______ and ______

A

promisor and proposer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The case of Donoghue v. Stevenson illustrates ___

A

the law of negligence, foundations of the fault principle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

M.C. Mehta v. Shri Ram Foods and Fertilizer Industries

A

The case is related to Principle of absolute liability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The Indian Penal Code came into effect from ______

A

January 1, 1862

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

the law which created the mechanism for levying GST

A

The Constitution 101st amendment Act 2016

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Constitution 26th Amendment Act, 1971
the privy purses and other privileges were abolished
26
Article 129 and 142(2) of the Indian Constitution
empowers the Supreme court to punish for its contempt
27
Coparcener is a term used for a person who:
assumes a legal right in parental property by birth only
28
GST Council is a constitutional body under _________
Article 279A
29
Smt Selvi and others v. State of Karnataka 2010
shaped laws relating to Brain Mapping, Narco-analysis
30
The State List or List-II is a list of ___ items currently
59 (101st Constitutional amendment deleted 52 and 55)
31
The Concurrent List is a list of __ items in ___ schedule
Seventh Schedule; a list of 52 items (though the last item is numbered 47)
32
The Indian Institute of Management Act, 2017 is an Indian legislation. The Act declared:
the Indian Institutes of Management as institutions of national importance
33
Irish Backstop is the draft agreement between the UK and the EU that aims to prevent:
a hard border (limited number of authorised crossing points staffed by officers) in Ireland after UK leaves EU.
34
Under the _________, England is meant to cooperate with ______ on any arrangements for Northern Ireland
EU Withdrawal Treaty | cooperate with Brussels (EU’s Headquarter)
35
The Withdrawal Agreement Bill passed its third and final reading in the House of Commons on _________
9 January 2020. (On 21 January 2020, the House of Lords passed the bill after approving five amendments)
36
The Brexit Financial Settlement (Divorce Bill) is a sum of money UK needs to pay to the EU for:
settling all shares of the financial obligations undertaken while being a member of the EU.
37
_____ was a peace agreement bw the British and Irish govts on how Northern Ireland should be governed.
The Good Friday Agreement | or the Belfast Agreement
38
State List | Entry 14
Agriculture, including agricultural education, research; protection against pests, prevention of plant diseases.
39
___ seeks to bypass middlemen and numerous cesses applicable to farmers selling produce in APMC mandis
The Farmers' Produce Trade and Commerce (Promotion and Facilitation) Ordinance, 2020
40
___ passed order designating all warehouses of FCI and state warehousing corporation as mandis, thus retaining power to charge mandi fees.
Rajasthan; Punjab might also be amending its mandi Act to declare the entire state a Principal Market Yard
41
______ vests the Supreme Court with original jurisdiction over any dispute arising between the states or between the centre and state
Article 131; Kerala has become the first state to move SC challenging CAA
42
______of the Indian Constitution provides that the trade, commerce and intercourse in the country should be free throughout the country.
Article 301 (If A lives in Maharashtra and wants to sell his goods to B who lives in MP, he can't be restricted)
43
GIs have been defined under Article ___ of the ___ Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement
``` Article 22 (1) WTO Agreement ```
44
The Finance Commission is constituted by the President under ______, mainly to give its recommendations on distribution of tax revenues
article 280 of the Constitution
45
Uniform Civil Code (UCC) is defined in our Constitution under Article ___ of Directive Principles of State Policy
Article 44
46
The KBC petition was heard by a ___ bench, the largest-ever bench in the history of the Supreme Court.
13-member
47
Kesavananda Bharati vs. The State of Kerala is a major decision during _________'s tenure as chief justice
Sarv Mittra Sikri (was the 13th Chief Justice)
48
Election Commission of India operates under the authority of Constitution per which Article?
Article 324
49
Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 has come into force w effect from:
15 September 2003.
50
_________ ended the monopoly of the East India Company in India
Charter act of 1813
51
Section ___ is on punishment for defamation. In India, defamation is both civil and criminal offence.
500
52
Name the high court that has jurisdiction over the Indian state of Uttar Pradesh
The Allahabad High Court
53
Chairperson and members of the NHRC and SHRC will hold office for:
five years or till the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier.
54
_________ is a Somali lawyer and judge who is the current President of the International Court of Justice.
Abdulqawi Ahmed Yusuf
55
Dishonor of cheque was made an offence in the year 1988 under which Act?
Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
56
The first Law Commission of independent India was established in ______ for a three-year term.
1955
57
The first Law Commission was established during the British Raj era in 1834 and was chaired by:
Lord Macaulay.
58
The ICJ has a total strength of 15 judges who are elected by members of the:
UN General Assembly and the Security Council
59
President of India appoints a person who is qualified for the post of _________ as the Attorney General
Supreme Court Judge
60
When did India enact Disaster Management Act, laying out an institutional framework for managing disasters
In 2005
61
In India, workers won the legal right to form trade unions in 1926, when the _________ was adopted.
Trade Union Act (TUA)
62
Under which Act the Company's territories in India were termed 'British possessions'?
Pitt's India Act, 1784 | Also known as the East India Company Act
63
_________ was passed by Lord Lytton and came to be nicknamed "the gagging Act"
Vernacular Press Act, 1878
64
Which High Court has quashed the Judicial Services Preliminary exam finding errors in the questions asked?
Chattisgarh High Court
65
Which Court has set aside 57 orders passed by a Foreigners Tribunal finding procedural irregularities?
Gauhati High Court
66
Appellate jurisdiction of the supreme court can be invoked under which Articles?
Article 132(1), 133(1) or 134 of the Constitution
67
Which Article provides that all persons have equal right to freely profess, practice and propagate religion?
Article 25
68
The six religions in India which have been awarded "National minority" status are Muslims, Christians and:
Sikhs, Jains, Buddhists, Zoroastrians.
69
Under Madhya Pradesh law, a person can be sentenced to ___ for converting unlawfully.
a jail term between one and five years
70
Article 356 was used for the first time in ______ on 20 June 1951.
Punjab
71
Proclamation of President’s Rule under Article 356 of the Constitution stands for how much time?
six months
72
MHA declared National Socialist Council of Nagaland (NSCN) as an unlawful association under which act?
Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act 1967
73
_____ was originally called the J&KState Land (Vesting of Ownership Rights to the Occupants) Act 2001
Roshni Act
74
A claim of non est factum means that the contract was signed by mistake, without knowledge of:
its meaning, nature of contract
75
Commission of the act abetted is _________ for the offence of abetment.
not necessary
76
The landmark judgement which decriminalizes adultery in India:
Joseph Shine v. Union of India
77
Under the offence of abduction, the victim can be of which age group?
can be both major or minor.
78
_________ of the Constitution grants the President certain law-making powers to promulgate ordinances
Article 123
79
_________ is a law which was first enacted to tackle bubonic plague in Mumbai in former British India
Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897
80
In 2010, Delhi High Court in ______ granted female SCC officers in the Army and Air Force the right to PC
Babita Puniya case
81
_________ is a landmark decision by the Supreme Court of India, which declared transgender people to be a ‘third gender’
National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India
82
The practice of a separate Railway Budget was started by the British in 1924 under the recommendation of a 10-member _________ in 1920-21.
Acworth Committee
83
Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology banned Chinese mobile apps under Section 69A of which Act?
Information Technology Act (IT Act), 2000
84
The thermonuclear application makes Lithium as 'Prescribed substance' under ___ which permits AMD for exploration of Lithium in various geological domains
the Atomic Energy Act, 1962
85
EIA 2020 reduces opportunities for public participation by reducing the time window for public response to ___ days from the existing 30
20
86
The first constitution in the world which conferred the constitutional status to the environment protection is ______
India
87
The 2006 notification required that the project proponent submit a report every six months. However, the new EIA draft requires the promoter to submit it:
only once every year.
88
_________ is the defence in which the person who has committed a wrong is exempted from liability because the victim of such a wrong gives his consent
Volenti non fit injuria
89
The Constitution listed ___ languages — Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Malayalam, etc — in Eighth Schedule, in 1950 (originally)
14
90
The Central Information Commission has been constituted with effect from 12-10-2005 under the _________
Right to Information Act, 2005
91
Following severe opposition the issue of OBC reservation reached the SC in ______. This case is known as ‘Indira Sawhney Judgment’ or Mandal Case.
1992 (9 judge bench, 6:3 verdict)
92
Which article allows the Supreme Court of India to pass any order necessary to do “complete justice” in any case?
Article 142
93
Which Schedule contains a list of central and state laws which can't be challenged in courts? Currently, 284 such laws are shielded from judicial review.
Ninth Schedule
94
From January 26, 1950 until ______, the ECI was a single-member body, with only a Chief Election Commissioner (CEC)
1989 (two additional commissioners appointed)
95
In 1978, the ________ was passed by the then ruling Janata Party, repealing the right to property accorded to every citizen in Article 19(1)(f)
Constitution (44th) Amendment Act
96
The use of force by states can either be lawful or unlawful. Employment of hostile act nevertheless lawful is called:
Retortion (called reprisal if it is unlawful)
97
Part ___ of the Constitution refers to the panchayats. It was inserted in the Constitution by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment.
Part IX (Eleventh Schedule)
98
S.361 IPC provides the definition of Kidnapping. The age of minority defined for the offence is _________ for male and _________ for female.
16 years for male; 18 years for female
99
There are 25 High Courts in India. The union territory of Andaman and Nicobar falls under the jurisdiction of _________ High Court.
Calcutta High Court
100
There shall be a Supreme Court of India consisting of a Chief Justice of India and such number of other judges not being less than seven. Which article states this?
Article 124(1)
101
There are currently 29 judges in the SC (including the Chief Justice of India) and maximum possible strength is ___
34 (33+1)
102
Appointed to the apex Court in 1989, who became the first female judge to be a part of the Supreme court of India?
Fathima Beevi
103
With _________ the Telangana High Court got its first woman Chief Justice. At present she is the only woman Chief Justice in the country.
Hima Kohli
104
_________, the first woman judge to be appointed to the Supreme Court Bench directly from the Bar, retired recently
Justice Indu Malhotra
105
Which Article does, in principle, enable Parliament to provide for domicile-based preferential treatment in public employment?
Article 16(3)
106
There were voices in the Constituent Assembly, most notably ________, who were advocating for residential qualifications as the bedrock of a strong federalism.
Mahavir Tyagi
107
Article 371 (D) safeguards the rights of local people in employment and education and was created after agitation in the state of _________.
Andhra Pradesh
108
Directorate of Enforcement is a specialized financial investigation agency under the _________, Government of India
Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
109
_________ had moved courts in 9 countries to enforce its $1.4 billion arbitral award against India (the company won after a dispute over capital gains tax)
Cairn Energy
110
The Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA) is an intergovernmental organization located at The Hague in _________
the Netherlands
111
On _________ India signed its first BIT (Bilateral Investment Treaty) with its erstwhile colonial ruler, the UK.
14 March 1994
112
_________ refers to the sum of money the law imposes for a breach of some duty or violation of some right.
Damages
113
Qui facit per alium facit per se is a Latin legal term that means, "He who acts through another does the act himself." It is a fundamental legal maxim of the law:
The law of agency
114
Acc to love jihad law, marriages solemnised for the purpose of conversion will be declared void and the burden of proof shall lie on the _________.
accused
115
Constitution of India guarantees the right to freedom of religion to not only individuals but also religious groups in India. This is enshrined in Articles _________.
Articles 25 to 28
116
6 out of 28 states have a State Legislative Council. These are _________. The latest state to have a council is Telangana. (B-MUTKA)
Andhra P, Karnataka, Telangana, Maharashtra, Bihar, UP
117
“A Minister who for any period of 6 consecutive months is not a member of the Legislature of the State shall at the expiration of that period cease to be a Minister.”
Article 164(4) of the Constitution
118
Article ______ says that a Minister who is not a member of either House of the Parliament for 6 months shall cease to be a Minister on expiration of such term
Article 75(5)
119
The National Commission for Women (NCW) is a statutory body of the Government of India. When was it formed?
1992
120
_________ legislature passed a government-backed resolution that would allow tribals in the state to identify with a distinct religion.
Jharkhand (the Sarna Code)
121
Minister of State for Home Affairs __________ introduced the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill, 2021 in the Rajya Sabha
G Kishan Reddy
122
__________ has created two secure and flexible services to facilitate cybercrime related communication among law enforcement agencies
The Interpol
123
The potential seating capacity of the Rajya Sabha is | 250 (238 elected, 12 appointed), according to which Article of the Indian Constitution?
Article 80
124
The United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC) is a United Nations body. The UNHRC has ___ members elected for staggered three-year terms
47 members
125
A member of the Democratic Party, Biden served as the 47th Vice President and represented _________ in the United States Senate from 1973 to 2009
Delaware
126
The International Energy Agency (IEA) is a Paris-based autonomous intergovernmental organisation established in the framework of the OECD in ______
1974 (in the wake of the 1973 oil crisis)
127
Banking Ombudsman Scheme was introduced under the Banking Regulation Act of ______ by RBI with effect from ______
1949 | 1995
128
_________ mandates that all minorities, whether based on _________, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions
Article 30 | religion or language
129
SC allowed the minority educational institutions to admit eligible students of their choice and to set up a reasonable fee structure in the judgement delivered in:
the Secretary of Malankara Syrian Catholic College case (2007).
130
Code on Social Security Bill, 2020 will replace ______ social security laws
nine
131
The State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF) was constituted based on the recommendations of the _________
13th Finance Commission.
132
The _________ High Court heard intervention applications filed by politicians and lawyers against the state government’s vaccination policy
Chhattisgarh
133
SFB (Small Finance Bank) loan to _________ for on-lending to be classified as priority sector lending
MFIs (Micro Finance Institutions)
134
The _________ Government has imposed a total ban on glyphosate, a controversial herbicide that is used in cotton farms to kill weeds
Telangana
135
The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister. which article?
164
136
In ______, the Parliament passed the Prasar Bharati (Broadcasting Corporation of India) Act. It provided for the establishment of a broadcasting corporation
1990
137
The Supreme Court, in 2021, held that which Act removed the power of the states to identify socially and educationally backward classes?
102nd Amendment Act 2018
138
_________ is a landmark decision of the Supreme Court of India. This judgement led to the First Amendment of the Constitution
State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan
139
______ was established by amending the Constitution of India through the 99th Constitution Amendment Act 2014
NJAC - National Judicial Appointments Commission
140
_________ Bill, 2021 prohibits all private cryptocurrencies and provides for an official digital currency to be issued by the Reserve Bank of India
Cryptocurrency and regulation of Official digital currency
141
Who was the first judge in independent India whose removal motion was passed in Rajya Sabha for misappropriation of funds?
Soumitra Sen of the Calcutta High Court
142
The Extradition Treaty between the UK and India was signed on 22 September ______ and was ratified on 15 November the next year
1992
143
Which judgment had found that Section 66A of the IT Act was contrary to both Articles 19 (free speech) and 21 (right to life)?
Shreya Singhal v. Union of India judgement 2015
144
Article ___ deals with National Commission for Scheduled Castes. Article ______ deals with National Commission for Scheduled tribes
338 and 338 A
145
The first Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was set up in 1978 with _________ as Chairman. This commission was later bifurcated.
Bhola Paswan Shastri
146
Some human rights are _________, which means they can be restricted in some circumstances and within limits
qualified rights (absolute rights have no restriction)
147
What is the name of the Commission which has been entrusted with the sub-categorization of Other Backward Classes (OBC)?
The Justice Rohini Commission
148
When an application for recounting of votes is made the ______ shall decide and may allow the application in whole or in part or may reject it in its entirety
returning officer
149
In view of the provisions of Article ______ the Council of Ministers shall all be collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly of the State
164(2)
150
Name the famous case in which the Supreme Court declared the resign-and-reappoint bid as "improper, undemocratic, invalid and unconstitutional"
S.R. Chaudhuri vs State Of Punjab & Ors case
151
WhatsApp filed a petition challenging _________ of the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules 2021.
Rule 4(2)
152
Rule 4(2) of the new IT Rules requires significant social media intermediaries (those with more than ___ users in India) to enable tracing of the originator of info
50 lakh
153
Section ___ of the IT Act 2000 empowers the govt to direct “interception or monitoring or decryption” of any information through any computer source if necessary
Section 69
154
___ HC had tried looking into the possibility of tracing WhatsApp texts for coordination bw law enforcement agencies and social media companies, back in 2019.
The Madras High Court
155
The procedure for amendment of the Indian | Constitution was borrowed from which country's Constitution?
The South African Constitution
156
How many times has the Preamble to the Indian Constitution amended; by which constitutional amendment?
Once only; by 42nd amendment
157
The Judges of the Supreme Court have to take an oath before entering upon their office, which is conducted to them by -
The President
158
In which case it was held that Article 14, 19 and 21 are not mutually exclusive and they jointly aim at reasonableness and fairness -
Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India
159
There are five types of Writs which are Habeas Corpus, _(name the other 4)_ and these writs are an effective method of enforcing the rights of the people
Mandamus, Certiorari, Quo Warranto and Prohibition
160
``` Article 56(1)(b) provides that the President may be removed from office for _________ by following the procedure of impeachment under Article 61 ```
violation of the Constitution
161
Article ___ vests the Supreme Court w a special power to grant special leave, to appeal against any judgment or order or decree made by any Court/tribunal in India.
136
162
``` Article 148(1) provides that CAG would be appointed by the President and can be removed by following the same impeachment process as is there for a ______ ```
Supreme Court judge
163
Article 151(1) provides that Audit Report of Union Accounts is submitted by the CAG to ___ and it is the duty of them to cause it to be laid before both Houses
the President
164
Article 76(1) provides for appointment by the President, of a person qualified to be appointed _________, to be Attorney General for India.
a judge of the Supreme Court
165
Who is the only constitutional officer who has the right to address either House of the Parliament without being a member of such House?
The Attorney General for India
166
Article ___ - “The SC shall sit in Delhi or in such other place or places, as the CJI may, with the approval of the President, from time to time, appoint."
130
167
The law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on which all courts in India and under which Article of the Constitution?
All Courts within the territory of India; under Article 141
168
``` The AGI is bound to give advice to the President under Article 76(2). Similarly, Supreme Court must opine on any question sent by a Presidential Reference under: ```
Article 143(1).
169
Article 165 - “The Governor of each State shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed a Judge of a High Court to be _________”
Advocate General for the State
170
Article ______ directly mentions that an arrested person shall have a right to be defended by ‘a legal practitioner of his choice’
22(1)
171
In __________, SC ruled that India was already a secular state, what actually was done through 42nd amendment is state explicitly what was earlier implicit
S.R Bommai v. Union of India {SC tried to curb the blatant misuse of Article 356 (regarding the imposition of President’s Rule on states)}
172
In _________, SC held that the fundamental right to "propagate" religion doesnt include the right to convert a person to another religion.
Rev Stanislaus vs Madhya Pradesh, 1977
173
Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution allows for the formation of autonomous administrative divisions in Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Tripura?
The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution
174
Presently, ___ Autonomous Councils in Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Tripura are formed by virtue of the Sixth Schedule
10
175
The President can grant pardon in cases where the punishment or sentence is by a Court Martial but ____ does not provide any such power to the Governor.
Article 161
176
FATF president _________ said, "Pakistan will remain under increased monitoring as serious deficiencies remain related to terror financing"
Marcus Pleyer
177
The Monetary Policy committee is answerable to the Government of India if the inflation exceeds the range prescribed for ______ consecutive quarters.
three
178
_________ of the RBI Act, 1934 empowers the Central Govt to consult and give instructions to the Governor of RBI to act on issues, that the govt considers serious
Section 7
179
Mahesh Jethmalani is Indian ______ and a politician. He is currently a nominated Member of Parliament in the Rajya Sabha
lawyer
180
New Zealand signed the Artemis Accords, making it the ______ nation to join the accord and the second to do so under the Biden administration.
11th
181
China has announced it will now allow three children per married couple — ______ years after it first relaxed its controversial one-child policy to two.
five
182
MoHUA had introduced the Model Tenancy Act as a step towards fulfilling Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s ‘Housing for All’ by ______ vision.
2022
183
Land falls under the State List, and acc to Article ___ of the Constitution, the state govts have exclusive power to make laws on subjects in the State List.
Article 246
184
The first Chief Justice of India was _________. Originally, the Constitution of India envisaged a supreme court with a chief justice and seven judges
Sir H J Kania
185
Article ______ allows for creation of an 'autonomous state' within Assam in certain tribal areas. It was inserted into the Constitution in 1969
Article 244(A)
186
Delhi is a Union Territory w a legislature, and it came into being in 1991 under Article ______, inserted by the 69th Amendment Act, 1991.
Article 239AA
187
The Supreme Court-appointed committee on farm laws comprised of agricultural economists - _________. Bhupinder Singh Mann resigned.
Anil Ghanvat, Ashok Gulati, and Pramod Joshi.
188
Personal Data Protection (PDP) Bill, 2019 derives its inspiration from a previous draft version prepared by a committee headed by:
retired Justice B N Srikrishna
189
A nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court in _________ unanimously held that Indians have a constitutionally protected fundamental right to privacy
Justice K. S. Puttaswamy (Retd) Vs Union of India
190
In _________, the Court added two features to the list of basic structure features. They were: judicial review and balance between Fundamental Rights and DPSP.
Minerva Mills case (1980)
191
In an interim order, Delhi HC recognised the ‘______’ while directing Google and Indian Kanoon to remove a judgment pertaining to an Indian American
right to be forgotten
192
Under which Article of the Constitution the President nominates 12 persons to Rajya Sabha, having special knowledge or practical experience?
article 80
193
Recently, the Union Cabinet has approved the creation of the ______ Law Commission, with a term of three years.
22nd
194
In ___ the SC has held that the Governor is expected to discharge role of a Constitutional Stateman and can call for floor test if he feels State Government is shaky.
Shivraj Singh Chouhan vs Speaker Madhya Pradesh
195
India and Pakistan have issued a joint statement to strictly observe the _________ along the Line of Control (LoC).
2003 Ceasefire agreement
196
Acc to Article ___, each state of India shall have a High Court. However, Article 231 mentions that there can be a common High Court for two or more States
Article 214
197
_________ has disputed a Rs 54.5 crore service tax claim by the Directorate General of GST Intelligence (DGGI) in response to a showcause notice
Cloudtail India
198
The newest High Courts are the Telangana Court and Andhra Pradesh High Court, both established in the year ______
2019
199
_________ is a standard of liability under which a person is legally responsible for the consequences flowing from an activity even in the absence of fault
strict liability
200
Minister for Law & Justice, Communications, Electronics and Information Technology ___ flogged Twitter for having deliberately chosen non-compliance
Ravi Shankar Prasad
201
Section ___ of IT Act says that any intermediary shall not be held legally liable for any third party info, data, or communication link made available on its platform.
Section 79 (safe harbour provisions)
202
In 2019, the foreign direct investment (FDI) limit for the digital media sector was restricted to ___%. Earlier, 100% FDI was allowed through the automatic route
26%
203
The GST council is devised in such a way that the centre will have 1/3rd voting power and the states have 2/3rd. The decisions are taken by ______ majority.
3/4th
204
Under the GST (Compensation to States) Act, 2017, states are guaranteed compensation for loss of revenue on account of implementation of GST for ___
transition period of 5 years between 2017 and 22.
205
Article ___ deals with the power of the Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List in the national interest
Article 249
206
The fundamental right to reside or settle in any part of India guaranteed under Article ______ of the Constitution
Article 19(1)(e)
207
Which judgement declared that the freedom of speech and to practice any profession over the medium of Internet enjoys constitutional protection?
Anuradha Bhasin vs Union of India (2020)
208
In _________, SC held that an offense that does not provide a minimum sentence of 7 years cannot be treated as a heinous offense
Shilpa Mittal Vs State Of NCT Od Delhi
209
Supreme Court in _________ case made a significant suggestion regarding disqualification powers of the Speaker.
Keisham Meghachandra Singh vs. the Hon’ble Speaker Manipur Legislative Assembly & Ors. (2020). Court suggested that an independent tribunal can be set up.
210
SC in _________, said provisions of anticipatory Bail shall not apply to the cases under Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act '18.
Prathvi Raj Chauhan vs Union of India (2020)
211
In _________, SC held that a child alleged to be in conflict with law should be released on bail with or without surety
RE exploitation of children in orphanages in the state of Tamil Nadu vs UOI & ors
212
In _________, SC directed political parties to disclose the reasons for selection of candidates wrt their merit and qualifications, and not merely their “winnability”
Rambabu Singh Thakur vs Sunil Arora and others
213
______ sued Google for copying its API code to create the Android mobile OS. Courts ruled in favor of Google.
Oracle
214
Sedition is a crime under Section ______ of the Indian Penal Code (IPC)
Section 124A
215
_________ High Court initiates criminal contempt case against 72-year-old man who threatened to kill Supreme Court, High Court judges
Karnataka HC
216
SC said that criticism of courts is 'growing, everyone is doing it', while giving time to cartoonist _________ to file her reply on the plea seeking contempt action
Rachit Taneja
217
SC in the case of _________, makes it mandatory, that all the cinema halls in India shall play the National Anthem before the feature film starts.
Shyam Narayan Chouksey v. Union of India
218
Article ___ of the Constitution mandates the courts not to inquire into proceedings of Parliament.
Article 122
219
Article ___: State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive
Article 50
220
_________ effect is not allowed in criminal law
Retrospective effect
221
Article ______ contains the rule against double jeopardy which says “no person shall be prosecuted or punished for the same offence more than once.”
Article 20(2)
222
Article 20 guarantees to all persons, whether citizens or non-citizens, the three rights. They are as follows:
Protection against ex-post facto laws. Protection against double jeopardy. Protection against self-incrimination.
223
"_________" are existing laws in some states of India that allow citizens to remove or replace public servants holding posts of Sarpanch etc in the govt.
Right To Recall (RTR)
224
Government has brought Over The Top (OTT) platforms, or digital video streaming service providers,, under the ambit of which ministry?
Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
225
______ had filed a contempt plea against Andhra Pradesh for alleged violation of status quo in the disputed Kotia region of Koraput district
Odisha
226
Visakhapatnam is the executive capital of Andhra Pradesh while _________ serve as legislative and judicial capitals respectively.
Amaravati (legislative) and Kurnool (judicial)
227
"Remark Smacks Of Very Patriarchal Way Of Looking At Things": Justice _________ on CJI Bobde asking Rape Accused if He Would Marry Victim
Justice Deepak Gupta
228
The Magistrates and trial Judges have as much, if not more, responsibility in safeguarding FRs of the citizens of India as the highest court of this land, said SC in:
Krishna Lal Chawla Vs. State Of U.P.
229
In _________, the bench suggested that gender sensitization training should be imparted to Judges and public prosecutors
Aparna Bhat vs. State of Madhya Pradesh
230
A division Bench of the SC said that the evaluation criteria adopted by the Army to consider the grant of permanent commission for women officers to be:
"arbitrary and irrational"
231
The impeachment charges against the President can be initiated by _________. (Article 61 : Procedure for impeachment of the President)
either House of Parliament - Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha.
232
_____ is a legal principle that prevents someone from arguing something or asserting a right that contradicts what they previously said or agreed to by law
Estoppel
233
The _________ empowers both Centre and the states to provide 10% reservation to the EWS category of society in government jobs and education institutions
103rd Constitution Amendment Act, 2019
234
Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules 2021 are in supersession of the earlier _________
IT (Intermediary Guidelines) Rules 2011
235
Article ___ of the constitution of India provides for a National Commission for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
Article 338
236
Which Amendment replaced the one-member system with a multi-member National Commission for Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST)?
65th Amendment, 1990
237
By which amendment, the erstwhile National Commission for SC and ST was replaced by two separate Commissions from the year 2004?
89th Amendment, 2003
238
In the case _____, SC held that the concept of an Open Court requires that info relating to a Court proceeding must be available in the public domain.
Election Commission of India v MR Vijaya Bhaskar
239
The Bench headed by Chief Justice NV Ramana has issued a slew of directions to decongest prisons in the matter _________
In Re: Contagion of Covid-19 Virus in Prisons.
240
____ is a landmark judgment, which was pronounced by the Apex Court as it imposed further checks and balances on the powers of the police before an arrest
Arnesh Kumar v. the State of Bihar
241
Article 226 is the constitutional right which empowers High court to issue a direction, order, and writs for enforcement of _________
fundamental rights and other legal rights.
242
In the _________ judgement, SC had said 50% shall be the rule, only in certain exceptional and extraordinary situations, 50% rule can be relaxed.
Indira Sawhney judgment 1992
243
A separate reservation for the Maratha community violates Articles 14 (right to equality) and ___ (due process of law).
Article 21
244
In 2017, a 11-member commission headed by _______ recommended Marathas should be given reservation under Socially and Educationally Backward Class
Retired Justice N G Gaikwad
245
In 2018, the Bombay High Court while upholding Maratha reservation said that instead of ___% it should be reduced to 12% in education and 13% in jobs.
16%
246
Article ______ empowers the President to specify the socially and educationally backward communities in a State. Which Amendment introduced it?
Article 342A (introduced by 102nd Amendment Act 2018)
247
In 1962, the Supreme Court upheld the constitutionality of sedition (Section 124A) in which case?
Kedar Nath Singh v State of Bihar.
248
In 1995, the Supreme Court, in _________, held that mere sloganeering which evoked no public response did not amount to sedition.
Balwant Singh v State of Punjab
249
In case _________ is not followed by the intermediary, safe harbour provisions will not apply to them.
due diligence
250
Acc to new IT Rules, Grievance Officer shall acknowledge the complaint within twenty four hours and resolve it within _________ days from its receipt.
fifteen days
251
Intermediaries shall remove or disable access within _________ of receipt of complaints of contents that show individuals in full or partial nudity
24 hours
252
Significant Social Media Intermediaries need to appoint __________ and a Resident Grievance Officer, all of whom should be resident in India.
Chief Compliance Officer, a Nodal Contact Person
253
OTT platforms, called as the publishers of online curated content in the rules, would self-classify the content into five age based categories:
U (Universal), U/A 7+, U/A 13+, U/A 16+, and A (Adult).
254
During the Question Hour, the questions can also be asked to the __________ members (MPs who are not ministers).
private members
255
Starred question (distinguished by an asterisk): This requires an ______ answer and hence supplementary questions can follow.
oral answer
256
Unstarred questions: These require a _________ answer and hence, supplementary questions cannot follow.
written answer
257
Short notice question: It is one that is asked by giving a notice of less than _________. It is to be answered orally.
ten days
258
Question Hour in both Houses is held on all days of the session. But there are two days when an exception is made:
When President addresses, when FM presents Budget
259
The summoning of Parliament is specified in Article ___ of the Constitution. The power to convene a session of Parliament rests with the government.
Article 85
260
The gap between two sessions of the Parliament cannot exceed _________, which means the Parliament meets at least two times in one year.
6 months
261
By convention (i.e. not provided by the Constitution), Parliament meets for three sessions in a year: Budget Session, _________, and _________
Monsoon Session and Winter Session
262
The longest, _________ (1st session), starts towards the end of January, and concludes by the end of April or first week of May.
Budget Session
263
The second session is the three-week _________ Session, which usually begins in July and finishes in August.
Monsoon Session
264
Under _____, President has power to grant pardons or to suspend or commute the sentence of a person convicted of offence where sentence is of death.
Article 72
265
Name 2 cases where the Supreme Court (SC) has ruled that the President has to act on the advice of the Council of Ministers while deciding mercy pleas.
Maru Ram vs UOI 1980; Dhananjoy Chatterjee vs WB '94.
266
President can grant pardon in all cases where the sentence given is the sentence of death but the pardoning power of the Governor -
does not extend to death sentence cases.
267
______: It removes both the sentence and the conviction and completely absolves the convict from all sentences, punishments and disqualifications.
Pardon
268
_________: It denotes the substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form. For example, a death sentence may be commuted to rigorous imprisonment
Commutation
269
_________: It implies reducing the period of sentence without changing its character. For example, rigorous imprisonment for two years may be remitted to 1 year.
Remission
270
_________: It denotes awarding a lesser sentence in place of one originally awarded due to some special fact, such as the physical disability of a convict
Respite
271
_________: It implies a stay of the execution of a sentence (especially that of death) for a temporary period.
Reprieve
272
Recently (Nov 2020), the President of the United States of America (USA) has exercised his powers under the constitution to pardon his former _________
National Security Advisor (Michael Flynn)
273
Who is the current Minister of Coal of India, with additional portofolio Parliamentary Affairs and Mines in the central cabinet?
Pralhad Joshi
274
The Constitution provides for an Address by the President to either House or both Houses assembled together [Article ______]
Article 86(1)
275
The matters referred to in the Address by the President to the Houses are discussed on a Motion of Thanks moved by a Member and seconded by _____
another Member.
276
President is elected by the electoral college of elected members of both house of the parliament, elected members of state legislatures and _________
elected MLAs of Delhi, Puducherry, Jammu & Kashmir.
277
GST Council is the governing body of GST having ___ members, out of which 2 members are of centre and 31 members are from 28 state and 3 Union territories
33 total members
278
The Scheduled Castes and Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 is an Act of the Parliament of India which came into force on:
31 March 1995.
279
The Union Cabinet had approved the ________ (ART) Regulation Bill, 2020 to monitor medical procedures used to assist people to achieve pregnancy.
Assisted Reproductive Technology Regulation Bill 2020
280
The draft Cinematograph (Amendment) Bill, 2021, which proposes to bring back the govt's “_________” over the Central Board of Film Certification.
revisionary powers
281
SC in 2000 had upheld a _________ order which struck down the Centre’s “revisional powers in respect of films that are already certified by the Board”
Karnataka Hight Court order
282
Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) is a statutory body, regulating the public exhibition of films under the provisions of the _________
Cinematograph Act 1952.
283
Under Section ___ of Cinematograph Act, 1952, Centre is already empowered to call for record of proceedings in relation to certification of a film and pass any order
Section 6
284
The draft Cinematograph (Amendment) Bill, 2021 seeks to sub-divide the existing UA category into age-based categories like:
U/A 7+, U/A 13+ and U/A 16+
285
Who became the 28th chairperson of Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) on 11 August 2017, after Pahlaj Nihalani was fired?
Prasoon Joshi
286
The recruitment of children below age of ___ as soldiers is prohibited by UN Convention on the Rights of the Child (CRC) and Geneva Conventions protocols
15 years
287
_________ requires the publication in the annual Trafficking in Persons (TIP) report a list of foreign govts that have recruited child soldiers during previous year
The US Child Soldiers Prevention Act (CSPA)
288
The 14 countries which have been added to the annual Trafficking in Persons (TIP) list of the US State Department this year include: (not exhaustive)
Pakistan, Turkey, Afghanistan, Myanmar, Iran, Iraq, Mali
289
USA adopted the CSPA in ______, as an amendment to the William Wilberforce Trafficking Victims Protection and Reauthorization Act of 2008.
Child Soldiers Prevention Act (CSPA) adopted in 2008
290
Supreme Court, in _________, rejected Rohingya refugees’ constitutional right to remain in India and allowed their deportation, following legal procedure
Mohammad Salimullah v. Union of India (UoI)
291
Kerala union of Working Journalists (KUWJ) Moves Supreme Court For Interim Bail For _________ Citing Critical Health Condition Of His 90-Yrs Old Mother
Siddique Kappan
292
"It is not seditious to have views different from the Govt," observed Supreme Court while dismissing a PIL seeking action against Farooq Abdullah. Which case?
Rajat Sharma vs. Union of India
293
In _________, the SC held that any constitutional court has the power to grant bail to people accused of offences under UAPA irrespective of Section 43-D (5), so as to enforce the right to speedy trial
Union of India v KA Najeeb
294
Which High Court has held that under the Contempt of Court Act, 1971, affecting of personal service on the alleged contemner is an essential requirement?
Allahabad High Court
295
The Code on Social Security 2020 defines "___" as a person who works and earns from such activities outside of traditional employer-employee relationship
gig worker
296
Acc to the Code on Social Security 2020 "_________" means a home-based worker, self-employed worker or a wage worker in the unorganised sector
Unorganised worker
297
Every unorganised worker, gig worker or platform worker shall be required to be registered under the Code on Social Security 2020 provided that:
the person has completed 16 years of age
298
In, in GNCT of Delhi v. Union of India & Anr., SC had held that the LG is bound by the aid and advise of the Council of Ministers of Delhi Govt, except in matters of:
land, police and public order.
299
Which High Court has held that a Single Judge Bench can take cognizance and decide civil contempt petition?
Kerala HC
300
Section 2(c)(i) defines _______ as publication or doing of any act that "scandalises or tends to scandalise, or lowers or tends to lower the authority of, any court".
criminal contempt
301
Section ___ of the IT Act, 2000 made it a punishable offence for any person to send 'grossly offensive' or 'menacing' information using a computer resource
66A (struck down in Shreya Singhal v. UOI 2015)
302
The Gujarat Prohibition Act, ______ is being challenged before the Gujarat High Court, more than seven decades after it came into effect
1949
303
The first hint at the prohibition of liquor was through the _________. This Act dealt with levying of duties on intoxicants, among other things
Bombay Abkari Act, 1878
304
Nuthalapati Venkata Ramana is an Indian judge who is serving as the ______ and current Chief Justice of India.
48th
305
E9 Partnership was first established in ______, formed to achieve the goals of UNESCO's Education For All (EFA).
1993
306
IBC (Amendment) Ordinance, 2021 introduces a _________ for corporate persons classified as MSMEs under the MSME Development Act, 2006.
Pre-packaged Insolvency Resolution process (PIRP)
307
_________, a distinguished public servant, currently serves as Chairperson of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India.
Dr. M. S. Sahoo
308
_________ is an Afghan-American diplomat, who has served as the Special Representative for Afghanistan Reconciliation since 2018
Zalmay Mamozy Khalilzad
309
In ______, the RBI had set up a Regulations Review Authority (RRA) for reviewing the regulations, circulars, reporting systems, based on feedback
1999 (now it has set up RRA 2.0)
310
NITI Aayog has recommended reducing the rural and urban coverage under the National Food Security Act (NFSA), ______, to 60% and 40%, respectively.
2013
311
The EU–UK Trade and Cooperation Agreement (TCA) is a free trade agreement signed in December 2020, between:
EU, European Atomic Energy Community (Euratom), UK
312
_________ is mainly a civil law principle whereby an employer is made liable for the negligence or breach of duty of his employees.
vicarious liability
313
A says-"Z is an honest man; he never stole B's watch"; intending to cause it to be believed that Z did steal B's watch. Is this defamation?
This is defamation, unless it fall within some exception
314
A is asked who stole B's watch. A points to Z, intending to cause it to be believed that Z stole B's watch. Is this defamation?
This is defamation unless it fall within some exception
315
A draws a picture of Z running away with B's watch, intending it to be believed that Z stole B's watch. Is this defamation?
This is defamation unless it fall within some exception
316
Section ______ of the UAPA prohibits bail if reasonable grounds exist showing the accusation is prima facie true
Section 43D(5)
317
In the early years of Independence, the Supreme Court conceded absolute power to Parliament in amending the Constitution, as was seen in the cases:
Shankari Prasad case (1951), Sajjan Singh case (1965).
318
The basic structure theory was first introduced by _________ in the Sajjan Singh case (1965) by referring to a 1963 decision of the SC of Pakistan.
Justice Mudholkar
319
_________ was a 1975 case heard by the Allahabad High Court that found the Prime Minister of India Indira Gandhi guilty of electoral malpractices
The State of Uttar Pradesh v. Raj Narain
320
In Indian law, both slander and libel (defamation ka basically) are recognized as criminal offenses under Section ___ of IPC
Section 499
321
_______ is a legal doctrine which states that a plaintiff will be unable to pursue legal relief and damages if it arises in connection with their own tortious act
Ex turpi causa non oritur actio
322
_________ is a Latin term that means "superior force" and describes an irresistible natural occurrence that causes damage or disruption and that is neither caused by nor preventable by humans
Vis major
323
In the case of _____, the defendant was held liable for sending a defamatory letter to plaintiff written in Urdu knowing that the plaintiff did not know Urdu and the letter will very likely be read over by another person.
Mahendra Ram v. Harnandan Prasad
324
"The right to protest is not outlawed and cannot be termed as a ‘terrorist act’ within the meaning of the UAPA" - Delhi High Court said in which case?
Asif Iqbal Tanha vs State Of Nct Of Delhi
325
The Collegium, consisting of _________ was devised to ensure that the opinion of the Chief Justice of India is not merely his individual opinion
CJI and 4 senior-most judges of the SC and high courts
326
The current Collegium in the SC comprises Chief Justice N V Ramana, Justice R F Nariman, _________, _________ and Justice D Y Chandrachud
Justice U U Lalit, Justice A M Khanwilkar
327
Supreme Court rejected the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) Act and the ______ Constitutional Amendment
99th Constitutional Amendment
328
_________, the great judge who stood with the citizens during the Emergency, had written the book Neither Roses nor Thorns
Justice H R Khanna
329
M C Setalvad, the first and the greatest attorney general, in his book ________, criticised appointments made by former chief justice S R Das as “unfortunate”
My Life — Law and Other Things
330
The sedition law which is enshrined in Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code was introduced by the British government in ______ to tackle dissent against colonial rule.
1870
331
The first known instance of the application of the sedition law was the trial of newspaper editor _________ in 1891
Jogendra Chandra Bose
332
In ______, Gandhi was arrested on charges of sedition in Bombay for taking part in protests against the colonial government.
1922
333
In 2015, a bench of Justices _________, in Shreya Singhal v. Union of India declared Section 66A of IT Act unconstitutional
J. Chelameswar and R.F. Nariman
334
The test for denying bail under the UAPA is that the court must be satisfied that _________ against the accused.
a “prima facie” case exists against the accused
335
In the case of _________, the Supreme Court in 2019 confirmed that courts must accept the state’s case without examining its merits while granting bail
Zahoor Ahmed Shah Watali
336
Section 2(1) of Cr. P.C. defines _________ as an offence for which a police officer has no authority to arrest without a warrant.
Non-cognizable Offence
337
The fundamental right guaranteed under _________ of the Constitution to carry on occupation, business or trade
Article 19(1)(g)
338
The SC came down hard on the ___ government's decision of giving an additional charge of State Election Commissioner to the state's Law Secretary
Goa
339
The apex court bench headed by _________ stated that denying women officers permanent commission in the navy will be a serious miscarriage of justice.
Justice DY Chandrachud
340
A fundamental constitutional principle, the freedom of political information, which is an integral element of _________ of the Constitution.
Article 19(1) (a)
341
Article ______ deals with the structure, duties, and powers of the National Commission for Backward Classes.
Article 334B
342
Centre has extended the tenure of the _________ until 31st July, 2021 to submit its report on Sub-categorisation of Other Backward Classes (OBCs).
Rohini Commission
343
The Rohini Commission was constituted in October 2017 under Article 340 of the Constitution. Article 340 deals with the appointment of a commission to:
investigate the conditions of backward classes.
344
In 2015, the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) had recommended that OBCs should be categorised into _________ classes
extremely backward, more backward, and backward
345
______ has the authority to examine complaints and welfare measures regarding socially and educationally backward classes.
National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC)
346
It was decided in Census 2021, data of OBCs will also be collected, but no consensus has been reached regarding _________ of OBCs in the Census.
enumeration of OBCs
347
In mid- 2019, the Rohini Commission informed that it is ready with the draft report (on sub-categorisation). Why has it not been released yet?
could have political consequences, face judicial review
348
NCBC also found out that a number of posts reserved for OBCs were being filled by people of general category as OBC candidates were declared “NFS” (_).
None Found Suitable
349
SC has reopened a similar legal debate on sub-categorisation of SCs and STs for reservations, what is commonly referred to as “________” for SCs and STs.
quota within quota
350
______ Constitution Amendment Act, 2018 provides constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC).
102nd Constitution Amendment Act, 2018
351
The parliament had passed National Commission for Backward Classes Act in ______ and constituted the NCBC.
1993
352
The National Commission for Backward Classes consists of ______ members including a Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and ______ other Members
five members (Chairperson + VC + 3 other members)
353
Article ___ deals with the need to identify SEBCs, understand the conditions of their backwardness, and make recommendations
Article 340
354
The NCBC presents to the President, annually and at such other times as the Commission may deem fit. __ laid such reports before each House of Parliament.
The President
355
_______ introduces greater transparency as its made mandatory to take the concurrence of Parliament for adding or deleting any community in the backward list.
Article 342(A)
356
Which article states that the State shall not make any law that violates the fundamental rights?
Article 13 (2)
357
Which case conferred upon the fundamental rights a “transcendental position”?
Golaknath case 1967
358
Which amendment placed the elections of the president, Vice President, PM, and the speaker of the Lok sabha, beyond the scrutiny of the judiciary?
39th CAA
359
Supreme Court ruled that the senior most judge of the Supreme Court alone should be the CJI, in which case?
The second judges case 1993
360
The amended Gujarat freedom of religion act 2003 has added a third category to the allurement clause:
Better lifestyle, divine blessings, or otherwise
361
Name China’s top legislative body
The national people’s congress (NPC)
362
The number of directly elected seats in Hong Kong’s legislative council will be scrapped from ___ to ___
35 to 20 seats
363
In which case did the Supreme Court reaffirm the clean slate theory?
Ghanashyam Mishra and sons pvt ltd Vs edelweiss asset reconstruction company ltd
364
The pre pack (IBC) is limited to a maximum of ___ days w only 90 days available for the stakeholders to bring the resolution plan to the NCLT
120 days
365
The insolvency and bankruptcy board of India will have how many members?
10
366
Which Section of Epidemic Diseases Act 1897 empowers state govts/UTs to take special measures?
Section 2
367
In ______, the district collector of Gujarat’s Vadodara issued a notification under the Epidemic Diseases Act
2018
368
In 2015, to deal with malaria and dengue in ________, the Epidemic Diseases Act was implemented
Chandigarh
369
In ______, to tackle the swine flu outbreak in Pune, Section 2 (Epidemic Diseases Act 1897) powers were used
2009
370
104th Amendment Act of 2020 increased the deadline of reservation of SCs and STs seats in Lok Sabha and state assemblies by:
10 years (from Seventy years to Eighty)
371
Which High Court expressed its reservation over 'right to refuse' Covid-19 vaccine as its administration involves larger interest of 'public health'?
The Madras High Court (M. Karpagam case)
372
A recent decision of which High Court held that mandatory or forceful vaccination impinges on the fundamental right of citizens?
Meghalaya High Court
373
The Centrally Sponsored Scheme - National Scheme of Incentives to Girls for Secondary Education was launched in May ______
2008
374
The Farmers’ Produce Trade and Commerce (Promotion and Facilitation) Ordinance, 2020 allows ___ trade of farmers’ produce beyond APMC markets.
intra-state and inter-state trade
375
The Farmers Agreement Ordinance provides for a three-level dispute settlement mechanism: the conciliation board, _________ and Appellate Authority.
Sub-Divisional Magistrate
376
The _________ noted that availability of a transparent, easily accessible, and efficient marketing platform is a pre-requisite to ensure remunerative prices for farmers
Standing Committee on Agriculture (2018-19)
377
_________ were set up with the objective of ensuring fair trade between buyers and sellers for effective price discovery of farmers’ produce
Agriculture Produce Marketing Committee (APMC)