Licensing Flashcards

(415 cards)

1
Q

When the armature bar is flat on the front coil, what is the smallest gap above the rear coil

A

.010

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does a smaller gap above the rear coil cause

A

More power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What should armature bars be made of

A

Plain steel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How does a machine run if too much of the coil core is showing

A

Hot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What type of edges should your contact screw have

A

Rounded and smooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where on the front spring should the contact screw be hitting

A

Front or End of spring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What length of spring would run faster

A

Short spring with a high angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What type of metal should the contact screw be made of to have the highest conductivity

A

Brass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How does the armature bar hit the front coil core

A

Flat, full contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What do you want the front on your tattoo machine to be

A

Non-conductive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What happens when your machine is conductive or electrified

A

The armature bar sticks to the coils causing the machine to stay in an ‘on’ setting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What diameter should your binding post be

A

5/16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what happens if you use a steel contact screw

A

it can cause an unwanted spark

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

when setting up your machine, why would you ‘snug’ down the eye of the needle bar

A

this helps to prevent weak and jumpy lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

why is a one-piece contact screw the best choice

A

screws with things added on top can add to the vibration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the two advantages to using a brass contact screw

A

100% conductive and keeps its shape longer than other choices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how much of the contact screw needs to be touching the front spring

A

a tiny contact area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

why should you use plain steel for a spring rather than a coated spring

A

the coating wears away quickly, which causes a bad connection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what kind of reaction can you expect from a machine with a very low spring angle

A

spongy and weak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

which type of machine benefits the best from a shorter spring

A

a liner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

which spring is the most important for tuning the machine

A

the rear spring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

a machine that is very hard hitting and fast running moves the needle in and out of the skin so fast that
_________

A

it doesn’t leave enough pigment behind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the ideal width of the springs used on the machine

A

the springs should be just as wide as the part that they are attached to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what types of screws should you use to hold the coils to the frame

A

always use a magnetic screw that sits flush to the frame

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what is the function of the tube vise
to firmly hold the tube in place and properly align the tube while the machine is in use
26
how should a tube vise hold a tube in comparison to the machine
squarely front to back and side to side
27
what is the most important part of a tattoo machine
coils
28
what is the purpose of the coils of a tattoo machine
to constantly run and not lose power
29
what is a possible reason for the machine to not work at all
there is debris between the contact screw and the front spring
30
what can cause the coils to be in a constant 'on' position
a coil wire, soldering lug or any of the electrical circuit is touching the frame
31
what does your frame act as for the coil circuit
the ground
32
what is not a purpose of the binding posts
electrical contact from the soldering lugs to the contact screw
33
what is a safety feature of the cartridge needles
if the cartridge is not installed the machine or tube, then the needles are not exposed; this limits the possibility of needle stick
34
what does EPA stand for
Environmental Protection Agency
35
What does FDA stand for
Food and Drug Administration
36
What does 'high level disinfectant' mean
a chemical agent, registered with the EPA, which has demonstrated tuberculocidal activity
37
'Office' in the tattoo laws refers to what
Health licensing Office
38
What attributes does a container have to have to be considered a 'sharps' container
puncture-resistant, leak proof, labeled with a biohazard symbol
39
how many hours are part of the tattoo licensing program
360 hours consisting of 210 theory hours and 150 practical hours
40
what does a completed procedure mean
a tattoo which has been finished on a live human being, including any touchups or additional work following initial healing, and the client is released from service
41
how long is a tattoo license active for
1 year
42
what documents does one have to have to apply for a tattoo license
completed application, bb pathogen training certificate, cpr/first aid training certificate, government issued ID, second form of ID, high school diploma or GED and training from a tattoo program approved by the higher education coordinating comission
43
how long is a temporary tattoo license good for
not to exceed 30 consecutive calendar days
44
how man times in a 12-month period can one person apply for a temporary tattoo license
2
45
how often does a license tattoo artist need to renew their license
once a year
46
A license can be inactive for how long before it is considered an expired license
3 years
47
how many hours of continuing education does a licensee have to complete in 1 year
10 hours
48
how many hours of continuing education can be self-study
5 hours
49
cpr, first-aid, and bb pathogens training can be counted as continuing education in which instance
Never, this is a condition of renewal
50
how many hours of continuing education can be carried forward to the next renewal cycle
8 hours
51
how long does a licensee have to submit proof of continuing education if they receive an audit letter from the Health Licensing Office
30 calendar days from the date of issuance
52
In what instance can you used expired ink in a tattoo procedure
this is always prohibited
53
where must a tattoo artist buy inks, dyes, or pigments from
a commercial supplier
54
if not using disposable stencils, how must one clean a plastic or acetate stencil
the licensee must thoroughly clean, rinse, and immerse in high-level disinfectant according to the manufacturer's instructions
55
Prior to beginning the procedure, a client's skin must be thoroughly clean with what type of chemical
an antiseptic
56
once a tattoo procedure is complete, what must be used to clean the skin
a single use paper product saturated with an antiseptic solution
57
what must be used to cover the tattoo once the procedure is complete
a clean absorbent material or bandage intended to cover the wounds to prevent the spread of blood or other potentially infections materials
58
in what instance can a person under the age of 18 get a tattoo
the person must have a physician's statement for a medical tattoo procedure (ex; scar camouflaging)
59
when should you do a tattoo on a person showing signs of being inebriated or appears to be incapacitated from the use of drugs or alcohol
this is never to be done
60
in what instance would it be permitted to tattoo someone that comes into the facility with a sunburn?
only if the sunburn is not at all in the area of the tattoo placement
61
when is it permitted to tattoo a person under the age of 18 that does not have a physician's statement?
never
62
if a client comes in wanting for the licensee to remove a tattoo, in what instance is this permitted?
only if the tattoo artist is licensed in the appropriate field of practice
63
when the health licensing office comes into the facility for an inspection, if they find something worthy of being cited for, who is responsible and receives the citation?
all license holders within the facility may be cited for violations found in the common area
64
who is responsible for maintaining all equipment and instruments that tattoo in the facility?
Every artist that uses the equipment
65
how are chemicals to be stored in the facility?
in labeled and closed containers
66
when tattooing a client, we are required to use what items that are single use only?
paper products, needles, gloves, and any other single use only products?
67
when is it permitted to use a restroom sink as the main hand washing station within a facility before proceeding with a service?
this is strictly prohibited
68
when is the use of towels and linens permitted during a procedure?
this is strictly prohibited
69
when a tattoo is completed, how should the waste be disposed of?
all waste material related to a service must be enclosed in a bag, then disposed of in a covered container with a garbage liner following every service on a client
70
when should service related waste be disposed of in a common area, such as the lobby or waiting area?
this practice is strictly prohibited
71
all sharp objects must be disposed of in a sharp's container, which item would NOT need to be disposed in a sharps container?
razor blade with the original blade cover
72
when does a waste receptacle require a biohazard label or red biohazard bag?
The waste receptacles in the service area that will be utilized to dispose of biohazard waste from the service
73
what animals are permitted to be in the facility?
service animals recognized by the American with disabilities act, fish in aquariums, or nonpoisonous reptiles in terrariums
74
in what instance can a licensee use a stainless-steel reusable tube on more than one client?
once it has been sterilized using the ultrasonic and autoclave, and stored properly until the next use
75
in what instance can a licensee use a disposable tube on more than one client
this is strictly prohibited
76
when should you rinse bottles, grips and clip cords be covered?
for every single tattoo procedure being done in the facility
77
when is it permitted to use regular tap water in the rinsing bottles
This is strictly prohibited
78
when diluting inks, dyes, or pigments; what can be used as a diluting agent?
distilled or sterilized water
79
how should inks, dyes, or pigments be stored?
in a closed cabinet or drawer
80
when is eye protection, shields, or a mask required?
only when splattering is possible while providing a service
81
what must happen with all substances used during procedure once it is completed?
all substances must be dispensed in a single use container and discarded at the end of each procedure to prevent cross contamination
82
in what instance can a licensee reuse a container or applicator used during a procedure?
this is strictly prohibited
83
A licensee must use how many pairs of gloves for each step of the procedure
1
84
how many total pairs of gloves are required for each procedure
4
85
what are the proper steps to washing your hands
thoroughly washing your hands in warm running water with liquid soap using friction on all surfaces of the hands and wrists, then rinsing hands and drying hands with a clean, disposable paper towel
86
when must a licensee wash their hands
before and after every service is provided
87
in what instance can bar soap be utilized in a facility
this is strictly prohibited
88
when must gloves be used during the sterilization process
new gloves must be worn during any step of the sterilization process
89
the ultrasonic must operate at what kilohertz
40-60
90
when is an ultrasonic and autoclave not required in a facility
when every licensee in a facility is utilizing all disposable products that are obtained from suppliers or manufacturers
91
How often must a biological monitoring system (spore test) be done on an autoclave
Monthly
92
what must all sterilization pouches have
a color changing indicator strip
93
how must instruments be sterilized
using an autoclave sterilizer, steam, chemical or gas that is registered and listed with the FDA
94
biological spore tests should be saved for how long
2 years
95
how long can an instrument sit in storage after being sterilized before it will need to be sterilized again
1 year
96
what must be done if a sterilized pouch is compromised either by being breached, gets wet, stained, or the expiration date is exceeded
all pouches affected must be opened and go through the entire sterilization process once more
97
what must be done should a positive result one the spore test comes back from he lab
the autoclave must not be used again until it is serviced, and a negative spore test result is recorded. then all instruments must be put through the entire sterilization process once the negative result is on file
98
what information is required to be on every client record/release form
name, address, telephone number, date of birth, date of service, procedure location on the body, name and license number of licensees providing the service, medical history of client, any complications during the procedure, any sensitivities to medicines or topical solutions, special instructions regarding medical or skin conditions, and signature from the client
99
what proof of age is required to proceed with the service
a government issued photographic identification must be obtained and kept with client record/release form
100
how long must client records be kept at the facility
90 days
101
how long must client records be kept in case HLO needs access to a specific release form
3 years
102
how can client records be stored after 90 days
physically or electronically
103
what must the facility license holder be
a natural person
104
how long is a facility license active for
1 year
105
in what instance can a facility license be transferred
a facility license is never transferrable
106
what must an individual applying for a facility license submit
completed application, proof of been at least 18 years of age, a map or directions if in a rural area, provide a list of licensees providing services, proof of business registration, include an Assumed Business Name filing if not using true name
107
how long is a temporary facility license good for
15 consecutive calendar days
108
how long is a mobile facility license
15 consecutive calendar days at one physical location
109
what can a mobile facility license be transferred from person-to-person
a mobile facility license is never transferrable
110
when is it possible for a mobile facility to be in motion while performing services in the field of practice
a mobile facility is never permitted to be in motion while performing services
111
how long before performing services must a mobile facility submit written notification to the Health Licensing Office for a new location
24 hours
112
what information must be provided to each client receiving services at a mobile facility
each client must be given the mobile facility name, mobile facility license number, license number and name of person providing service, and the permanent address and phone number that is on file with the Health Licensing Office
113
what information must be on the outside of the mobile facility and easily visible from the street
the mobile facility name that is on file with the health licensing office
114
what is the purpose of an event facility license
this license allows a facility to operate a facility on an irregular basis outside and away from a permanent physical location for conventions, educational, demonstration, and exhibition purposes
115
what is the time allotted for an event facility license
15 consecutive calendar days
116
what must be present always while services are being provided at an event facility
a representative of the event faclilty
117
what is something that the event facility owners must provide
a hot and cold running water station for every 10 licensed individuals
118
how many licensees can provide services in a 10 feet by 10 feet booth
2
119
what must be done to avoid delinquency penalties when renewing a facility or mobile facility license
the renewal must be made prior to the license entering inactive status
120
how long can a license be inactive before it enters expired status
3 years
121
where does a facility license need to be stored
public view
122
when can a licensee work in a facility with an inactive license
a licensee can never work with an inactive license
123
when should a privacy screen be used to block the view of the deletion area, waiting area, or public view
when services are conducted upon breast, nipples, genitals, or buttocks
124
when can a licensee impede on a facility inspection or investigation
a licensee can never impede a health licensing office representative
125
where must a sterilization room be located
the sterilization room must be separated from public areas, service areas, and restrooms
126
what kind of surfaces must be in areas where decontamination and sterilization of reusable instruments are performed
nonporous surfaces
127
If a licensee works in a cosmetology facility, where must the tattoo services take place
separated from any cosmetology services by a solid barrier to prevent contact with irritants
128
how far away from the door does anyone smoking have to stand
10 feet
129
what must a facility located in a residence have
an identifying house number or a sign; equipped with all the same structures, accommodations, and equipment that the Health Licensing Office requires for all facilities; the living area must be separated from the facility by solid walls extending from floor to ceiling
130
how much does a license renewal cost
$50
131
what does it cost to get a facility license
$100
132
what is the 1st offense fine if a licensee performes services while their license is inactive
$200
133
what is the first offense fine if a licensee performs services outside of a licensed facility
$500
134
what is the 1st offense fine if a licensee fails to post a valid licensee in public view
$100
135
what is the 1st offense fine if a licensee fails to sterilize all instruments that come in direct contact with a client's skin
$1000
136
what would a licensee have to pay if they were fined for failing to use an approved mode of sterilization
$1000
137
if a licensee fails to keep the required monthly biological (spore) test results on the premises, what would the first offense fine be
$1000
138
what would the first offense fine be for failing to collect and maintain complete client records for each client
$500
139
what does tattooing mean
the process by which a live human being is marked or colored by insertion of nontoxic dyes or pigments to form indelible marks for ornamentation or decoration
140
how does a licensee let the health licensing office know when they change places of business
in writing
141
how often does the tattoo board meet
once per year
142
what does PPE stand for
Personal Protective Equipment
143
What are blood borne pathogens
microorganisms that can cause disease when transmitted from an infected individual to another individual through blood and certain body fluids
144
what is hepatitis B
Hepatitis B is a liver disease caused by the hepatitis B virus (HBV)
145
what is Hepatitis C
a liver disease that is the most common chronic bloodborne infection in the US
146
where are sharps containers required to be
must be in each room that sharps are used
147
where does a high-level disinfectant have to be registered
Environmental Protection Agency
148
what must be present on all waste receptacles that bio waste is discarded in
biohazard label
149
how often does every licensee have to renew their CPR certification
2 years
150
what does pathogen mean
an agent of disease; pathogens include bacteria such as staph, viruses such as HIV, and fungi such as yeast
151
what is an ECP
Exposure Control Plan
152
What does an ECP consist of
exposure determination, implementation details, and the procedure for the evaluation of circumstances surrounding exposer incidents
153
How often does the ECP need to be updated
it must be reviewed and updated annually and whenever jobs / tasks/ procedures have changed
154
what is universal precaution
an approach to infection control that treats all human blood and certain human body fluids as if they are infectious for HIV, HBV, and other blood borne pathogens
155
which item is NOT considered personal protective equipment
hair net
156
when moving a sharps container, what must be done first
the container must be closed immediately
157
what piece of PPE must be worn when moving a full sharps container
Gloves
158
what should be on any container that contains any blood or hazardous material
a biohazard label
159
what must all client's records be first and foremost
confidential
160
how many hours of practical theory does a tattoo student need before completing the tattoo program
150 hours
161
when does a tattoo license become inactive
a tattoo license is good for one year and becomes inactive on the last day of the month one year from the date of issuance
162
what level of education must be proven before the health licensing office will issue a license for tattooing
high school diploma or equicalent
163
where must a tattoo artist perform services
a licensed facility
164
what are examples of connective tissue
cartilage, bone and adipose
165
which is NOT a connective tissue
Muscle
166
what is epithelial tissue of epithelium
this tissue covers the body surfaces, line its cavities, and forms the major portions of many of the human glands
167
what is the muscle tissue associated with
the movement of the body
168
what is the nervous system composed of
cells that are adapted to receive and relay signals, respond to stimuli, and coordinate conscious and unconscious activities
169
what is a mucous membrane
tissue lining the surfaces of passageways leading to the outside of the body
170
what are the top 5 layers of skin
stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, and stratum basale
171
what does the arrestor pili muscle do
this muscle can contract and cause the hair to become more perpendicular to the skin surface, also known as goose bumps
172
what is a sudoriferous gland
sweat gland
173
what is a sebaceous gland
a gland that produces sebum (protective oil for skin)
174
in what order are 3 major skin groups (outermost layer first)
epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue
175
what is melanin
the dark pigment formed by melanocytes; it imparts color to the skin and hair
176
which is NOT a function of the skin
synthesizes vitamin B from sunlight
177
how does the body regulate its temperature
the skin allows the body to lose heat by evaporation, radiation, convection, and conduction
178
which is not a major function of the skin
synthesizes vitamin G
179
which layers of skin are in the dermis
papillary and reticular layers
180
what is sebum
consists primarily of lipids and oils to keep the hair supple and the skin soft and pliant, while preventing water loss from the epidermis
181
what are the two major components of whole blood
plasma and cells
182
what is the most common form of skin cancer
Basel cell carcinoma
183
what type of skin is more likely to be diagnosed with skin cancer
fair skin with light hair
184
what causes 95% of all cases of basal cell carcinoma
overexposure to sunlight
185
what is a cyst
a closed cavity or sac containing a liquid or semisolid material beneath the skin
186
what is dermatitis
a group of inflammatory conditions of the skin
187
what does a dermatologist specialize in
diagnosing and treating skin problems
188
what is dermatofibroma
a benign tumor, a nodule, arising from connective tissue cells
189
what is dermatology
the study of a vast field of knowledge about the physiology and pathology of the skin, hair, nails, sweat glands, and oil glands
190
what is the medical term for a bruise
ecchymosis
191
what is a crack or split in the skin referred to as
a fissure
192
what is the disorder of keratinization called
follicular hyperkeratosis
193
what is folliculitis
inflammation of the hair follicle
194
what is impetigo
a superficial skin infection most commonly found in children, caused by streptococcal or staphylococcal bacteria
195
what are large permanent scars that develop after injury to the sin
keloids
196
what is keratin
protein containing high amounts of sulfur that is primary component of the outermost layer of the skin, nails, horny tissue, and hair
197
what is a common benign tumor that is composed of mature fat cells that almost never become malignant called
lipoma
198
what is a macule
a flat spot on the skin, visible only differing color that is less than 1 or 2 cm in diameter
199
what is the deadliest form of skin cancer
melanoma
200
what does ecchymosis mean
the medical term for a bruise
201
what is the name of the second layer of skin
dermis
202
what layer are the sebaceous (oil) glands found in
reticular layer
203
what glands creates sebum
sebaceous glands
204
what causes our skin to detect pain
free nerve endings
205
how do we know when we are being touched or are in pain
the sensations are relayed via nerve impulses to the brain from the area with the pain, pressure, or vibrations
206
what is one way a cyst of the skin can form
blocked duct leading from a fluid-forming sebaceous gland to the skin
207
what are milia
small, firm white papule are usually found in clusters on the upper cheeks and around the eyes
208
a birthmark or skin malformation characterized by too much (or not enough) normal epidermal, connective, adnexal, nervous, or vascular tissue is called what
nevus
209
a nodule is
a solid mass of tissue larger than 1 cm in diameter that may protrude from the skin or occur deep underneath the surface
210
what is a small, solid slightly raised area of the skin less than half an inch in diameter
papule
211
what type of lesion is commonly found in acne and lichen planus
papule
212
what is a purpura
group of disorders characterized by purplish or reddish-brown areas of discoloration, visible through the skin and caused by bleeding within the underlying skin
213
what is the product of inflammation
pus
214
what is a pustule
a small pus-containing skin blister found on skin that may or may not be caused by infection
215
what is pus
the product of inflammation, this is a pale yellow or green creamy fluid composed of millions of dead whit blood cells, fluid, partly digested tissue, bacteria, and other substances found at the site of a bacterial infection
216
what is the cancer of the connective tissue, blood vessels, or the tissue surrounding and supporting organs called
sarcoma
217
what is a scab
a crust that forms on a healing superficial skin wound or infected area
218
an area of fibrous tissue left behind on the skin after damaged tissue has healed is called what
a scar
219
how old should a scar be before you tattoo over it
2 years
220
what does the sebaceous gland secrete
sebu or oil
221
what is a sebaceous gland
tiny glands that secrete a lubricating substance called sebum either into hair follicles or directly onto the skins surface
222
what is squamous cell carcinoma
this type of cancer begins in the squamous cells that compose most of the upper layer of skin
223
the second most common skin cancer is
squamous cell carcinoma
224
what causes staphylococcal infections
staphylococcal bacteria
225
what shape are cocci bacteria
round/sphere
226
what shape are bacilli bacteria
rod
227
what shape are spirilla bacteria
spiral/corkscrew
228
what is tinea
group of common fungus infections of the skin, also known as ringworm
229
what is an ulcer
an open sore on the skin caused by the destruction of surface tissue
230
ultraviolet radiation is what
the energy that comes to the earth from the sun is emitted as radiation of various wavelengths, called the electromagnetic spectrum
231
what is vitiligo
a common disease in which the skin loses pigment due to the destruction of pigment cells
232
what is a wart
harmless, contagious growths on the skin or mucous membranes caused by any of more than 50 varieties of papillomavirus
233
what is a wheal
a smooth, raised area of skin that is usually itchy, also known as a hive
234
what is the latin word for tattoo
stigma
235
what are the two most common types of needles
stainless steel and plain steel
236
what is the single needle size that most tattoo artists use
standard #12, .014 sharps needle
237
what does it mean when you have a hooked/barbed needle
the tip of the needle is bent back towards the other end of the needle bar
238
what does it mean when you have a bent needle
the end is bent at an angle
239
what can happen to your needle after extended use
it can become blunted
240
what instrument can you use to check your needles up close
eye-loupe
241
the needles that utilized the tight round configurations are called what
liners
242
what is the needle configuration called when the needles are in a row rather than grouped together
shaders or flats
243
what is the needle configuration that has two shader bars offset
mags
244
do mags have an even or an odd number of needles
odd
245
what does a mag needle configuration ALWAYS have
an odd number of needles
246
which row of needles goes on the top when making a mag needle configuration? the lower or higher number
the row with the fewer number of needles stacks on top of the row with more needles
247
what does a needle bar have at the end that attaches to the machine
a hook of loop that allows the needle bar to attached to the machine
248
shaders needle bars have a flat surface on one side of the bar for what reason
this is where the needle configuration is soldered to the bar
249
when pressing down on the armature bar, how far out of the tube should the needles be extended
1/16" to 1/8"
250
which direction should the opening on the tube be facing, away or towards the machine
away from the machine so you can see into the tube while tattooing
251
what does a textured needle mean
a type of needle that have many pits in it by design, this is thought to allow the needle to hold more ink that is then deposited into the skin
252
what does every needle configuration require
its own needle tube
253
are there different tubes for liners and shaders
not only are there different liner and shader tubes, there are different tubes based on the number of needles in the configuration
254
liner tubes come in what two shapes
round and square
255
what are the three parts of the stainless-steel tubes
tube, grip, and tip
256
what part of the stainless-steel tube does the tattoo artist hold onto
the grip
257
what does the grip wrap around
the tip and the tube
257
what does the grip wrap around
the tip and the tube
257
what does the grip wrap around
the tip and the tube
257
what does the grip wrap around
the tip and the tube
257
what does the grip wrap around
the tip and the tube
257
what does the grip wrap around
the tip and the tube
257
what does the grip wrap around
the tip and the tube
258
Why is the grip textured
to allow for less slipping
259
what does the coil on a traditional tattoo machine do
determines the amount of power the machine has
260
what do the springs do on a traditional tattoo machine do
allow the needle to bounce up and does, penetrating the skin
261
the contacts on the traditional tattoo machine allow what to happen when the machine is powered on
the contacts allow for the completion of the electrical current when connected
262
what is the soldering lug for
this is where the wires are soldered, allowing for better contact
263
what does the binding post hold
the contact screw
264
the armature bar has what function on a traditional tattoo machine
this part holds the needle bar and drives it up and down
265
when setting up a traditional tattoo machine, why does a tattoo artist put rubber bands on during the setup
the rubber band put tension on the needle bar, forcing them to not bounce around inside the tube. the book states... help hold the pieces in place and keep them steady
266
how many times can a tattoo machine cycle the needles in a second
a modern tattoo machine can cycle the needle up to 150 times each second
267
the majority of traditional coil machines fall into what coil count categories
the 8-coil, 10-coil, and the 12-coil categories
268
what does the capacitor do on a tattoo machine
the capacitor is the device that stores electrical charges, allowing an even flow of power going to the tattoo machine during use
269
other that the needles and tubes, what else is needed to set up the tattoo machine
power supply, clip cord, and the foot pedal
270
what does the clip cord do
this cord connect the power supply to the machine
271
the foot pedal serves what purpose
the foot pedal serves as the on/off switch for the machine, it connects to the power supply directly
272
what is the range of voltage to run a tattoo machine
anywhere from 5-12 volts
273
what should every tattoo artist do to their traditional coil machine before ever using the machine
break the machine down to smaller parts and rebuild it so that you can understand how it operates and how all the pieces fit together. most machines are similar, but not exactly the same
273
what should every tattoo artist do to their traditional coil machine before ever using the machine
break the machine down to smaller parts and rebuild it so that you can understand how it operates and how all the pieces fit together. most machines are similar, but not exactly the same
273
what should every tattoo artist do to their traditional coil machine before ever using the machine
break the machine down to smaller parts and rebuild it so that you can understand how it operates and how all the pieces fit together. most machines are similar, but not exactly the same
273
what should every tattoo artist do to their traditional coil machine before ever using the machine
break the machine down to smaller parts and rebuild it so that you can understand how it operates and how all the pieces fit together. most machines are similar, but not exactly the same
274
what should always be done to the tattoo artists machine after every use
always clean the machine after use
275
which step during set up should NEVER be skipped
all equipment, including cords, should be checked for wear and tear. cords can get ran over, stepped on, or wound improperly and should be checked to make sure they can not cause injury if used
276
what are the two main ingredients in tattoo ink
the pigment (color) and the carrier fluid
277
what does the pigment to for the ink
the pigment is what gives the tattoo ink its color
278
what kind of reaction can a person have to tattoo ink
allergic
279
what should the carrier fluid ALWAYS be before making your own pigments
sterile
280
why are stencils used in the art of tattooing
stencils are created to give the artist a guide from which to work
281
how must you create a stencil if you are hand making a stencil
in reverse, using a light table and carbon paper. this ensure the image is reading correctly on the skin
282
what type of paper can an artist use to make a hand stencil
carbon paper, also known as ditto or duplicating paper
283
what is the first thing you should do after placing a stencil on the body part to be tattooed
allow your client to check the placement of the design. once the client has approved the placement, then the tattoo can begin
284
when are times that the tattoo artist does NOT need to create a stencil
when a touch up of a previous design is being done or when the artist is free handing the design directly on the skin
285
what does the tattoo artist use to mark the skin if free handing the design
a single use skin scribe
286
what is a skin scribe
a single use non-toxic pen
287
when the skin isn't pulled tight or taut, the needles in the machine can do what
the needles can get caught in the skin or even bounce off it without penetrating and leaving any ink behind
288
does the tattoo artist stretch the skin the exact same way for different parts of the body
the skin needs to be stretched in different ways depending on the area of the body that is being tattooed
289
when starting a tattoo, where should one start in order to not smear or wipe away the stencil
on either the top or the bottom with your tattooing hand on the outside of the design. it is most common for tattoo artists to start on the bottom of the design
290
what is a weight of a line
he thickness of the line
291
which line would be thicker, a 7 liner or a 3 liner
the 7 liner
292
how often should you dip the needle in the ink to refill the reservoir
about every 15 seconds
293
what should the needles be doing when they are put to the skin
the machine should be in the on position also referred to as running
294
what type of pressure should the tattoo artist have during the tattooing process
even pressure
295
what may be the cause of faint line
the machine is running too slowly, the artist is moving the needle too quickly, too little ink in the tip, worn out needles, or the skin needs to be stretched more tightly
296
what could be the cause of the needles snagging in the skin
the machine could be running too slowly causing the needles to get caught or the skin needs to be stretched more to allow for better penetration
297
what is sweep or whip shading
this is a sweeping motion from the line out, the tattoo artist is starting the shading then lifting the machine in a fluid motion to give a gradient in the ink left behind in the skin from dark to light
298
when packing in solid color, what technique should be used
small, barely overlapping circles to fill in the appropriate areas of the tattoo
299
what should the tattoo artist do regularly to guarantee the coverage is full and even when packing color
wipe away the excess ink to be able to see the coverage underneath
300
what can happen to lighter colors if they are tattooed before darker colors
the lighter color can become muddled by the darker color
301
what should a completed tattoo be cleaned with before the bandage is placed on
antiseptic (green soap)
302
what MUST the artist give to the client before the client leaves the building
aftercare (verbally and in written form)
303
what is the quality by which we distinguish one color from another color know as
hue
304
what is the quality we use to determine light colors from dark colors
value
305
what are the primary colors
red, blue, and yellow
306
what colors are mixed together to create the secondary colors
primary colors
307
what colors are mixed together to create tertiary colors
secondary colors with primary colors
308
what colors can all other colors be mixed from
red, blue, and yellow
309
where do complementary colors sit on the color wheel
directly across from one another
310
what are analogous colors
they are colors that sit right next to each other on the color wheel
311
what is the complementary color to red
green
312
what is the complimentary color to blue
orange
313
what allows two elements of a tattoo to work both with and against one another in such a way that they are distinguished from one another
contrast created differences in the values and colors to allow for elements to stand out while others fade into the background
314
what colors can provide the most contrast in a tattoo design
complementary colors
315
what should be taken into consideration when palling the scale of a tattoo
location and placement on the body
316
what organ is the body's largest organ
skin
317
what is one of the most important functions of the skin
protection
318
what percentage of the body's weight does the skin account for
15%
319
what is the third layer of the epidermis
stratum granulosum
320
what is the fifth layer of the epidermis
stratum basale
321
what is the inability to make melanin referred to as
albinism
322
what is the thickening of the stratum corneum due to friction called
hyperkeratosis
323
what does your sebaceous glands produce
sebum
324
what do free nerve endings detect
Pain
325
what do Merkel's disks detect
touch
326
which corpuscles detect weak pressure and vibrations
Meissner's corpuscles
327
which corpuscles detect stronger pressure and vibrations
pacinian corpuscles
328
blood is considered a connective tissue
true
329
what percent of body weight does the blood take up on average
8%
330
what is a cyst
a closed cavity or sac containing a liquid or semisolid material beneath the skin
331
basal cell carcinoma in the ____ form of skin cancer
most common
332
what type of nodule is found most often on the arms and legs
dermatofibroma
333
what is the medical term for a blue or purple hemorrhage in the skin or mucous membrane
ecchymosis
334
what is a fissure
a crack or split in the skin
335
what is the inflammation of a hair follicle
folliculitis
336
what is follicular hyperkeratosis
a disorder of keratinization characterized by the thickening of the skin around and/or on hair follicles
337
what is a superficial skin infection most commonly found in children, caused by streptococcal or staphylococcal bacteria called
impetigo
338
what is a keloid
a large permanent and sometimes disfiguring scar that may develop after surgery or other injury to the skin
339
what is the definition of keratinization
the process by which cells become tough and horny due to deposits of keratin placed within them
340
what is lipoma
a common benign tumor that is composed of mature fat cells that almost never become malignant
341
what is the deadliest form of skin cancer that are brown, black, or multicolored patches, plaques or nodules with an irregular outline
malignant melanoma
342
what is a papule
a small solid slightly raised area of the skin less than half an inch in diameter
343
what is a group of disorders characterized by purplish or reddish brown area of discoloration, visible through the skin and caused by bleeding within the underlying tissue
purpura
344
what is a small pus-containing skin blister found on skin that may or may not be caused by infection
pustule
345
what is a scar
an area of fibrous tissue left behind on the skin after damaged tissue has healed
346
all wound should be ____ and kept slightly ____ during healing
clean and moist
347
what is an open sore on the skin caused by the destruction of surface tissue
ulcer
348
what is a common disease in which the skin loses pigment due to the destructions of pigment cells
vitiligo
349
what does 'Office' refer to in the Oregons Laws and Rules
Health Licensing office
350
If you move to a new residential address or change any of your information, how long do you have to notify the Health Licensing Office of the change
30 days
351
how must you notify the Health Licensing Office of the change
Both B & C, with are in writing or by email
352
what is a chemical agent, registered with the EPA, which has demonstrated tuberculocidal activity
high level disinfectant
353
when the test is referring to equipment used during tattooing services, what will they be called
instruments
354
what is the acronym for the Food and Drug Administration
FDA
355
what is the acronym for the Environmental Protection Agency
EPA
356
what kind of container must be puncture resistant, leak-proof, can closed, and have a biohazard label visible
sharps container
357
what is considered a completed procedure by the Oregon health licensing office
a tattoo which has been finished on a live human being, including any touchups or additional work following initial healing, and the client is released from service
358
how many completed procedures are needed to complete a tattoo artist licensing program
50
359
how many times can you take the state licensing exam and fail before you have to go back to school to complete more hours
3
360
how many hours do you have to complete if you fail the state licensing exam 3 times in a row
100
361
how many days do you have to wait to retake the state licensing exam if you fail it 3 times in a row
30 calendar days
362
is continuing education required even if your license is inactive
yes
363
if you have 20 hours of continuing education in one year, how many of those hours can be carried over into the next year
8
364
what must be clearly marked on all tattoo inks, pigments and dyes by law
expiration date
365
if an ink, pigment or dye is banned by the FDA, when is it permitted to be used in the skin
this is prohibited
366
when can an artist use expired ink in the skin
never
367
which is considered an antiseptic
green soap
368
what must the skin be cleaned with prior to the procedure
antiseptic
369
when is tattooing prohibited
open lesions are present in the area of the tattoo sunburn in the area of the tattoo rashes in the area of the procedure all of the above
370
how must all equipment/instruments be used
in a manner described in the manufacturer's instructions
371
when storing chemicals in the facility, how must this be done
in labeled, closed containers
372
ensure all _____ are kept at adequate strengths to maintain effectiveness
disinfecting solutions
373
when is it acceptable to use towels and linens
this is strictly prohibited
374
can you use the sink in the restroom to wash your hands before or after a tattoo
False
375
when a service is completed, what type of waste receptacle must the regulated waste be put into
all service-related waste must be enclosed in a glove or bag and disposed of in a covered container with a biohazard label that has a garbage liner
376
should biohazard labels or red biohazards bags be available on the facility premises
true
377
can a service animal that is recognized by the American with disabilities act be in the facility
true
378
is a poisonous snake permitted to be in the facility
no
379
how should all substances be dispensed
must be dispensed into a single use container and discarded at the end of each procedure
380
how many people are on the Board of Electrologists and Body Art Practitioners
7
381
How many tattoo artists are on the Board of Electrologists and Body Art practitioners
2
382
How long is a term that is served by a member of the board of electrologists and body art practitioners
4 years
383
how many consecutive terms can a member of the board of electrologists and body art practitioners serve
2
384
what should armature bars be made of
plain steel
385
what can cause your machine to rattle and deflect on the rear coil
dust, lint, and/or debris
386
how often should you clean the contact area on your tattoo machine
once a day
387
what should you clean the contact area with
alcohol
388
where can inks, pigments, or dyes be stored
in a closed cabinet or drawer
389
when must an artist wear protective eye wear
when spattering is possible
390
how should all substances be dispensed
must be dispensed into a single use container and discarded at the end of each procedure
391
what is the difference between ferrous and non-ferrous metals
ferrous metals contain iron while non-ferrous metals do not
392
what word means free of dirt, unsoiled, and unstained
clean
393
what word means to destroy disease germs
disinfect
394
which word means to destroy microorganisms in or on, usually by bringing to a high temperature with steam and heat
sterilization
395
how long do integrator strips need to be kept after use
60 days
396
when do integrator strips need to be used
in every cycle ran through the autoclave
397
how long do you need to keep spore test results
2 years
398
when is the expiration date for sterilized instruments, after the initial date of sterilization
one year from the date of sterilization unless the package is compromised
399
what does the steam sterilization integrator measure
time, temperature, and presence of steam during the sterilization cycle
400
what does the Rockwell Hardness Scale test measure
the Strength of the steel tested
401
What equipment used during the tattoo procedure is considered instruments
needles and tubes
402
how many years after renewing your license do you have to complete your continuing education
1 year
403
what agency is responsible for the safety of the inks/pigments tattoo artists use
FDA
404
what does OHA stand for
Oregon Health Authority
405
What is another name for the tube vise on coil machine
Crusher/Cruncher
406
What agency does high level disinfectant have to be registered with
EPA