Limitations

Question 1

Immediate Action Items for:

Cabin Altitude Warning or Rapid Depressurization / Emergency Descent

Answer 1

1. Oxygen Masks and Regulators - On, 100%
2. Crew Communications - Establish
3. Seatbelt sign - On

Ref: QRC

Question 2

Immediate Action Items for:

Engine Start - Aborted Start

Answer 2

Engine start lever (affected engine) - CUTOFF

Ref: QRC

Question 3

Landing Crosswind Component - Runway CC 6

Answer 3

37 knots

Ref: FM 1.20.7

Question 4

Landing Crosswind Component - Runway CC 5

Answer 4

37 knots

Ref: FM 1.20.7

Question 5

Takeoff Crosswind Component - Runway CC 6

Answer 5

33 knots

Ref: FM 1.20.7

Question 6

Takeoff Crosswind Component - Runway CC 5

Answer 6

25 knots

Ref: FM 1.20.7

Question 7

Maximum Cabin Pressure Differential

Answer 7

9.10 PSI

Ref: FM 1.30.3

Question 8

Minimum duct pressure for two pack operation from one bleed source

Answer 8

20-25 PSI

Ref: FM 1.30.3

Question 9

Icing conditions exist on the ground and for takeoff when:

Answer 9

OAT is 10C or below with visible moisture, standing water, slush, or snow

Ref: FM 1.30.4

Question 10

Icing conditions exist in flight when:

Answer 10

TAT is 10C or below with visible moisture

Ref: FM 1.30.4

Question 11

Window heat must be on ____ minutes prior to takeoff.

Answer 11

10

Ref: FM 1.30.5

Question 12

Autopilot minimum engagement height

Answer 12

400 feet AGL

Ref: FM 1.30.6

Question 13

Autoland maximum headwind

Answer 13

25 knots

Ref: FM 1.30.5

Question 14

Autoland maximum crosswind

Answer 14

15 knots

Ref: FM 1.30.7

Question 15

Autoland maximum tailwind

Answer 15

10 knots (except 900[401-412] with flaps 30)

Ref: FM 1.30.5

Question 16

Autopilot use prohibited ____ feet radio altitude at airport pressure altitudes above ____ feet.

Answer 16

100; 8400

Ref:

Question 17

Minimum altitude for autopilot use on approach for

• ILS/GLS coupled approaches
• Non-precision approaches

Answer 17

50 feet AGL
50 feet below MDA/DA

Ref:

Question 18

Maximum runway pressure altitude for autoland

Answer 18

8400 feet

Ref:

Question 19

Maximum and minimum glideslope angles for autoland

Answer 19

2.5 - 3.25 degrees

Ref:

Question 20

Do not use LVL CHG on final approach below ____

Answer 20

1000 ft AFE

Ref: FM 1.30.10

Question 21

Minimum battery voltage for APU start

Answer 21

23 volts

Ref:

Question 22

Minimum Oil Pressure for NG, MAX

Answer 22

NG - 13 PSI
MAX - 17.4 PSI

Ref:

Question 23

Maximum EGT for Start - NG, MAX

Answer 23

NG - 725C
MAX - 753C

Ref: FM 1.30.13

Question 24

Maximum continuous EGT - NG, MAX

Answer 24

NG - 925C
MAX - 1013C

Ref: FM 1.10.13

Question 25

Minimum Engine Oil Quantity for Start

Answer 25

70% Ref:

Question 26

Wait a minimum of ____ for APU shutdown cycle to complete, then turn ____ switch to OFF (NG)

Answer 26

120 seconds Ref:

Question 27

Maximum Flap Extension Altitude

Answer 27

20,000 feet Ref: FM 1.30.17

Question 28

In flight, the speed brake lever should not be extended beyond the _______ detent with greater than flaps ___ selected.

Answer 28

ARMED; 10 Ref: FM 1.30.18

Question 29

Maximum airspeed to extend the flaps with the alternate system

Answer 29

230 knots Ref: FM 1.30.18

Question 30

Maximum speed with Mach Trim Fail

Answer 30

280 knots / 0.82 mach Ref:

Question 31

Minimum inflight fuel temperature for Jet A and Jet A-1

Answer 31

-37C and -44C, respectively Ref:

Question 32

Maximum tire groundspeed

Answer 32

NG - 195 knots MAX - 204 knots Ref:

Question 33

Maximum Operating Pressure Altitude

Answer 33

41,000 feet Ref:

Question 34

Autobrake action for RTO occurs above ____ wheel speed.

Answer 34

90 knots for NG, 88 knots for MAX Ref:

Question 35

G Limits for Flaps up and Flaps down

Answer 35

Flaps up: -1.0 - 2.5 Flaps down: 0 - 2.0 Ref: FM 1.20.2

Question 36

Maximum takeoff/landing pressure altitude

Answer 36

10,000 feet Ref:

Question 37

Minimum Runway Width

Answer 37

100 feet Ref:

Question 38

Maximum Takeoff/Landing Tailwind Component

Answer 38

15 knots Ref:

Question 39

MMO

Answer 39

0.82 Mach Ref: FM 1.20.4

Question 40

Maximum Gear Retraction Speed

Answer 40

235 knots Ref:

Question 41

Maximum Gear Extension Speed

Answer 41

270 knots / 0.82 Mach Ref:

Question 42

Maximum Gear operating/extended speed

Answer 42

320 knots / 0.82 Mach Ref:

Question 43

Maximum severe turbulence penetration speed - cruise

Answer 43

TURB N1 setting from cruise page Ref:

Question 44

Recommended Severe Turbulence Penetration Speed - climb and descent

Answer 44

280 knots / 0.76 Mach Ref:

Question 45

Minimum Ground Time After Landing - Carbon Brakes

Answer 45

48 minutes Ref:

Question 46

Do not deploy the speed brakes at radio altitudes less than _____

Answer 46

1000 feet Ref:

Question 47

While extending or retracting the flaps with the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch, allow _____ seconds after releasing the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch before moving the switch again.

Answer 47

15 Ref:

Question 48

A fully charged battery can supply standby power for a minimum of _____ minutes.

Answer 48

30 Ref:

Question 49

The battery provides ____ volts DC.

Answer 49

28 Ref:

Question 50

Battery voltage range is ____ to ____ volts

Answer 50

22, 30 Ref:

Question 51

The Transformer Rectifiers convert ____ volt _____ to ____ volt ____

Answer 51

115 volt AC, 28 volt DC Ref:

Question 52

What busses are powered by the standby power system?

Answer 52

DC standby bus, AC standby bus, battery bus Ref:

Question 53

Fuel LOW Alert illuminates when fuel quantity is less than ______ lbs in the related main tank, and remains until fuel tank quantity is increased to ______ lbs.

Answer 53

2000, 2500 Ref:

Question 54

The Fuel CONFIG Alert displays when either engine is running, both center tank pump switches are OFF, and center tank fuel quantity is greater than ______ lbs.

Answer 54

1600 Ref:

Question 55

The Fuel IMBAL Alert displays when main tanks differ by more than ______ lbs and remains until the imbalance is reduced to ____ lbs.

Answer 55

1000; 200 Ref: