Limitations Flashcards
0
Q
What is the G limit with slats and or flaps extended?
A
0g to + 2g
1
Q
What is the maximum G in clean configuration?
A
-1g to + 2.5g
2
Q
What is the maximum taxi weight of the A320?
A
75,900 kg
3
Q
What is the maximum take off weight of the A320?
A
75,500 kg
4
Q
What is the maximum landing weight of the A320?
A
64,500 kg
5
Q
What is the maximum zero fuel weight of the A320?
A
61,000 kg
6
Q
When is an immediate landing above MLW acceptable?
A
In exceptional circumstances (inflight turn back or diversion).
7
Q
What is the mean runway slope limit?
A
Plus or minus 2%
8
Q
What is the maximum runway altitude?
A
9,200 feet
9
Q
What is the nominal runway width?
A
45 meters
10
Q
What is the maximum cross wind for take off or landing?
A
38 kt
11
Q
What is the minimum runway width?
A
30m
12
Q
When is use of a 30m runway not allowed?
A
Dispatch from / to narrow runways is not allowed in the case of
- NWS INOP
- 1 brake or more INOP
13
Q
Is auto land permitted on a 30m runway?
A
No.
14
Q
What is the maximum tail wind for takeoff?
A
15kt
15
Q
What is the maximum tailwind for landing?
A
15kt
16
Q
What is the maximum tailwind for automatic landing and rollout?
A
10kt
17
Q
What is the maximum wind speed for passenger door operation?
A
65kt
18
Q
What is the maximum wind speed for cargo door operation?
A
40kt
19
Q
What is the maximum wind speed for cargo door operation with the nose into wind or cargo door on the leeward side?
A
50kt
20
Q
What is the maximum wind speed before the cargo door must be closed?
A
65kt
21
Q
Under what contaminated runway conditions is takeoff NOT recommended?
A
- wet ice
- water on top of compacted snow
- dry snow or wet snow over ice
22
Q
What is VMO?
A
350kt
23
Q
What is MMO?
A
M 0.82
24
What is the maximum speed in config 1?
230 kt
25
What is the maximum speed in config 1 + F?
215 kt
26
What is the maximum speed in config 2?
200kt
27
What is the maximum speed in config 3?
185kt
28
What is the maximum speed in config FULL?
177kt
29
What is the maximum speed with landing gear extended?
VLE = 280kt / M0.67
30
What is the maximum speed at which the landing gear maybe extended?
VLO extension = 250kt
31
What is the maximum speed at which the landing gear may be retracted?
VLO retraction = 220kt
32
What is the maximum altitude at which the landing gear may be extended?
25,000ft
33
What is the maximum tyre speed?
Ground speed = 195kt
34
What is the maximum speed for using wind shield wipers?
230kt
35
What is the maximum speed with the cockpit window open?
200kt
36
What is the maximum cornering speed when the taxi weight is higher than 76,000kg?
20kt
37
What is the maximum differential for opening the RAM air inlet?
1psi
38
When using LP ground air what must not be used?
The packs (to avoid chattering of the non return valves)
39
When using HP ground air what must NOT be used?
APU bleed to avoid bleed system damage.
40
What is the maximum positive differential pressure?
9psi
41
What is the maximum negative differential pressure?
-1psi
42
What is the safety relief valve setting pressure?
8.6psi
43
What is the maximum and safety valve setting tolerance?
+/- 7hPa or 0.1psi
44
In AVEC normal config, what is the no limitation OAT?
49*
45
What is the minimum height for use of autopilot on takeoff with SRS mode?
100 ft AGL
46
What is the minimum time after liftoff before FMGS logic will allow autopilot engagement?
5 seconds
47
What is the minimum height for use of autopilot for straight-in NPA?
Applicable MDA (MDH)
48
What is the minimum height for use of autopilot for in straight-in LNAV/VNAV approach normal?
Applicable DA
49
What is the minimum height for use of autopilot for circling approach?
MDA/MDH -100ft
50
What is the minimum height for use of autopilot for ILS approach when CAT2 or CAT3 is not displayed on the FMA?
160 ft AGL
51
What is the minimum height for use of autopilot or flight director engagement during a go-around?
100ft AGL
52
What is the minimum height for use of autopilot in all other cases?
500 ft AGL
53
The FCU altitude must be set above what for use of AP or FD in OPEN DES or DES mode during approach?
MDA (MDH) or 500ft, whichever is higher.
54
What must be checked before NAV mode may be used after takeoff?
FMGS runway updating
55
For what approach types may NAV or NAV and FINAL APP mode be used?
- VOR
- VOR/DME
- NDB
- NDB/DME; or
- RNAV
56
FINAL APP mode guidance capability with GPS PRIMARY has been demonstrated down to a barometric MDH/DH of ____ ft?
250 ft
57
For GPS approach, what must be available?
GPS PRIMARY
58
NAV mode may be used in the Terminal area provided:
- GPS PRIMARY is available; or
- HIGH accuracy is displayed and the appropriate RNP is checked or entered on the MCDU; or
- NAVAID raw data is monitored
59
What is the minimum ILS CAT II decision height?
100ft AGL
60
If conducting an automatic approach WITHOUT autoland, what is the minimum height for disconnecting the AP?
80ft AGL
61
What is the minimum decision height for ILS CAT3 fail passive?
50ft, and A/THR must be used in selected or managed speed
62
What is the ILS CAT3 DUAL alert height?
100ft
63
What is the minimum CAT 3 A DH?
25ft
64
What is the minimum CAT3B RVR?
75m
65
In what configuration/s is OEI CAT II or CAT III fail passive autoland available?
FULL, but only if engine out procedures are completed by 1000ft in approach
66
What are the maximum wind limits for autoland?
- HW: 30kts
- XW: 20kts
- TW: 10kts
67
What is the authoritative source for wind information when doing an autoland?
ATC reported wind is the authoritative source and ND indicated wind may be disregarded.
68
What must be done if ATC report a surface wind that exceeds the autoland limit?
The autoland must be discontinued and CAT I minima used for a manual landing or go-around
69
What is the minimum and maximum ILS beam slope that can be used for autoland?
-2.5* to -3.15*
70
What is the maximum demonstrated autoland weight?
MLW
71
What is the maximum airport elevation for autoland?
6,500ft in the FCOM but 2,500ft in Part A!!!
72
What is the maximum demonstrated wind correction for autoland?
15kts
73
For what runway surface conditions has autoland been demonstrated?
Dry and Wet
- Performance on snow covered or icy runways has not been demonstrated
74
What is the max continuous load per generator?
100% (90kVA)
75
What is the max continuous load per TR?
200A
76
What is the maximum operating altitude with slats or flaps extended?
20,000ft
77
With full tip tanks, what is the maximum allowed imbalance with the other inner tank full?
1500kg (under normal conditions)
78
What is the maximum outer tank imbalance?
690kg
79
What are the Jet A1 temperature limits?
-43* to +54*
80
At what fuel quantity will the WING TK LO LVL warning be triggered?
750kg in each tank (total 1,500kg)
| - Takeoff is not permitted with the WING TK LO LVL warning displayed
81
What is the normal operating pressure of the Hydraulic system?
3000psi +/- 200psi
82
What is the maximum brake temperature for takeoff with fans OFF?
300*C
83
What should be done if the brake temperature indicates >150*C before takeoff with the fans ON?
Delay Takeoff for cooling below 150*C
84
By what methods may the A/BRK be disengaged?
By pressing the push button of the armed mode; or
| By applying sufficient pressure to the brake pedals
85
With one tyre deflated on one or more gears, what is the taxi speed limit for turning?
7 kt, but only after an external inspection
86
How many tires may be deflated for taxi?
One on each gear with a 7kt speed limit for turning
87
If two tires are deflated on the same main gear (with the others not being deflated) what is the the taxi speed limit?
3 kt
88
What is the NWS limit with two tires deflated on one main gear?
30* (with a speed limit of 3 kt)
89
What is the NWS hand wheel steering limit?
75 degrees
90
When must the ISIS bug function not be used?
If both PFD's are lost
91
Below what indicated Oxygen pressure must the dispatch requirements be checked?
1,500psi (Part A 8.8.1.1 P233)
92
Oxygen pressure above the minimum for dispatch guarantees NORMAL diluted oxygen pressure during an emergency descent for all cockpit members for how many minutes?
13 minutes (based on a sealed mask, may be shorter with a beard)
93
Oxygen pressure at or above the minimum for dispatch guarantees how many minutes of cruise at FL100 in the NORMAL diluted setting?
107 minutes (based on a sealed mask, may be shorter with a beard)
94
The minimum flight crew oxygen pressure guarantees all cockpit members 15 minutes of oxygen at what cabin altitude?
8000ft (based on a sealed mask, may be shorter with a beard)
95
How many hours may the APU be started and operated with the LOW OIL LEVEL ECAM advisory displayed?
10 hours
96
How many consecutive APU starter duty cycles be attempted?
3
97
After 3 APU starter duty cycles, how long must you wait before attempting another three cycles?
60 minutes
98
What is the APU operation and restart limit?
41,000ft
99
What is the APU battery start limit? (EMER ELEC CONFIG)
25,000ft
100
What is the maximum APU generator load?
100% / 90kVA
101
What is the maximum altitude for 100% APU ELEC power extraction at ISA +35*C?
25,000ft (same as the BATT start limit)
102
When is APU bleed available for WAI?
It is not permitted
103
Below 150kts, APU bleed is available for engine start up to what altitude?
15,000ft
104
What is the maximum altitude that the APU can be used to start an engine above 150kt?
20,000ft
105
What is the maximum altitude that APU bleed may be used to supply one pack?
20,000ft
106
What is the maximum altitude that APU beed may be used to supply both packs?
15,000ft
107
What limitations are imposed on the use of TOGA for takeoff or go-around?
- 5 mins @ 635*C
| - 10 mins @635*C if OEI
108
What limitations apply to the use of MCT?
- Time = unlimited
| - EGT = 610*C
109
What is the minimum oil temperature prior to exceeding idle?
-10*C
110
What is the minimum oil temperature prior to takeoff?
50*C
111
What is the max continuous oil temperature?
155*C
112
What is the max transient oil temperature?
165*C (For 15 minutes)
113
What is the minimum starting temperature?
-40*C
114
What is the minimum oil quantity for flight?
11 quarts + 0.3qt/hr of estimated flight time
- FCOM PRO-NOR-SOP-06 P16/20
115
What is the minimum oil pressure?
60psi
116
What is the max engine N1?
100% dependent on ambient conditions and engine air bleed configuration which may induce a lower limit.
117
What is the maximum N2?
100%
118
What are the starter duty limit cycles?
- 2 x two minutes + 1 x one minute with 15 sec pauses; or
| - 1 x four minute continuous crank
119
After reaching the engine starter duty limit how long must the system be allowed to cool?
30 minutes
120
What are the engine starter running engagement limits?
- 10% N2 on the ground; or
| - 18% N2 in flight
121
What limitations apply to the use of MAX reverse thrust under normal conditions?
- Must not be used in flight
- Must not be used to back the aircraft up
- Should not be used below 70kt (or when IAS starts to fluctuate)
- Idle reverse may be used down to a stop
122
What is the maximum FLEX takeoff thrust reduction?
25%
123
What is the maximum T-FLEX temperature?
ISA +55*C (T MAX FLEX)
124
The assumed temperature must not be lower than:
- The flat rating temperature; or
| - The current OAT
125
What runway conditions apply to the use of reduced thrust for takeoff?
Not permitted on contaminated runways
126
Is a reduced thrust takeoff permitted with inoperative items affecting the performance?
Yes; if the associated performance shortfall has been applied to meet all performance requirements at the takeoff weight with the engines operating at the thrust available for the flex temperature.
127
What is the maximum crosswind for starting engines on the ground?
35kt
128
What is the NWS tiller angular limit?
±75°
129
What is the towing and pushback NWS angular limit?
±95°
LIM-32 P1/2
