LIMITATIONS Flashcards
(179 cards)
1
Q
Ramp weight
A
85,870
2
Q
Takeoff weight
A
85,517
3
Q
Landing weight
A
74,957
4
Q
Max ZFW
A
69,886
5
Q
FWD cargo
A
3,306
6
Q
AFT cargo
A
2,535
7
Q
Min RWY width
A
100ft
8
Q
Max altitude
A
41,000
9
Q
Max T/O and LND altitude
A
8,000
10
Q
Max&min T/O and LND
A
ISA +35
-40
11
Q
Max runway slope
A
+-2
12
Q
Max tailwind
A
15kts
13
Q
Max single pack alt
A
31,000
14
Q
Vmo below 8,000
A
300
15
Q
Vmo above 10,000
A
320
16
Q
Mmo
A
.82
17
Q
Va
A
240
18
Q
Gear speed
A
250
19
Q
Max tire speed
A
195
20
Q
RAT min
A
130
21
Q
Vb under 10,000
A
250
22
Q
Vb above 10,000
A
270/.76
23
Q
Max wiper speed
A
250
24
Q
Flaps 1
A
230
25
Flaps 2
215
26
Flaps 3
200
27
Flaps 4
180
28
Flaps 5
180
29
Flaps full
165
30
Max crosswind DRY
38
31
Max crosswind WET
31
32
Max crosswind compacted snow
20
33
Max crosswind standing contaminants
18
34
Max crosswind ICE
12
35
Standing takeoff not recommended with crosswind above __
30
36
Max SLAT/FLAP altitude
20,000
37
Min spoiler speed
180
| will auto stow
38
CAT II must land with FLAPS __
FLAPS 5
39
On ground starter limits
Start 1+2=90 seconds on 10 off
| Starts 3-5=90 seconds on 5 mins off
40
In flight starter limits
Start 1+2=120 seconds on 10 seconds off
| Starts 3-5=120 seconds on 5 mins off
41
Max fuel capacity
20,935
42
Max fuel imbalance
800 (794)
43
Min fuel tank temp
-37
44
APU max start alt
30,000
45
APU max operating alt
33,000
46
APU max pack op alt
15,000
47
APU max alt for engine start
21,000
48
APU start limits
Start 1+2=60 seconds off
| Start 3=5 mins off
49
Max pressure differential
7. 8 to 37,000
8. 34 above 37,000
- .5 NEG
50
Max differential pressure for takeoff and landing
+-.2
51
Min HYD reservoir TEMP
-18
52
Min autopilot engagement T/O
400
53
Min autopilot alt
50
54
Min autopilot alt on NPA
MDA
55
TAS, TAT, SAT reliable above what speed?
60
56
COM 1 transmitting the compass is deemed
Unreliable
57
BARO altimeter must be used for
NPA and CAT I ILS
58
Max frost underwing
1/8"
59
Min battery voltage
22.5
60
Anti-ice ENG
OAT 10-5C and contaminated or visible moisture/clouds below 1700
61
Anti-ice ALL
OAT less than 5C contaminated or visible moisture/clouds below 1700
62
Min oil PSI after start
25
63
Max window open speed
160
64
Max differential pressure
8.77
65
When flaps are selected to a pos greater than 0 while configuring for a landing will the ACMP's turn on?
Yes
66
Single engine taxi on engine 2. Which pumps are active?
ACMP 3A, EDP2
| ACMP 1 should be turned on
67
What is the purpose of the PTU?
Assist in gear extension or retraction should the right engine or right EDP fail
68
H-PBIT will run when all 3 systems are pressurized and?
HYD reservoir temp at above 10 or H-PBIT timer is at 0 hours
69
Which HYD sys handles the nosewheel?
2
70
If pump 3A fails on taxi will 3B automatically turn on?
No
71
How long does the PBE provide oxygen for?
15 mins
72
The crew oxygen mask provides how much O2?
22 mins in 100% and 98 mins in normal at 10,000
73
How will you identify a properly charged flashlight?
Flashing red light
74
Which color is normal for the PBE humidity indicator?
Blue
75
Will the APU automatically shut down for an in flight fire?
No
76
Max APU alt
33,000
77
How many separate air data systems are required to fly a CAT II approach?
2
78
Appropriate speed for SE driftdown?
green dot
79
What airspeed to retract flaps if F bug not present?
Green dot plus 10
80
Green dot provides __ g of protection
1.3
81
What color are advisory messages?
Cyan
82
What is the takeoff config OK button looking for?
Flap pos matches MCDU
Trim green
Parking brake
Spoilers
83
Can you scroll past WARNING MESSAGES on EICAS?
Hell naw
84
Can you discharge fire bottles with no power to the aircraft?
Yea
85
What happens if a fire is detected in the FWD cargo compartment?
Air circulation fan cuts out
Ventilation outflow valve closes
High rate bottle armed
Fire button illuminated
86
Will the APU auto shutdown for a fire in flight?
Nope
87
What are you checking for "check thrust"
N1 at target
ATTCS green
Engine parameters normal
88
When is flex takeoff prohibited?
Windshear reported or forecast
Contaminated RWY
Prohibited by procedure
89
With thrust levers set to TOGA when will ATTCS command RSV?
Difference in N1 more than 15%
Windshear
Eng fail on TOGA
90
FADEC eng abort start is any pilot action required?
Yes, FADEC does not close the Starter Control Valve
91
Engine abort oil pressure
No oil psi within 10 seconds of N2 rise
92
Engine abort N1
No indication before starter cutout
93
Engine abort light off
No light off within 30 seconds
94
Does the stick shaker disconnect the auto pilot?
yea buddy
95
AFCS FAULT displayed and erroneous air data
Turn on the ADSP heat
96
Single engine approach flap setting
5
97
Stab trim priority
Backup
CA
FO
98
AC ESS BUS items
3221
HYD pump 3A
AC fuel pump 2
Slat channel 2
Flap channel 1
99
How will you know if the RAT has deployed?
BATTERY DISCHARGING EICAS msg will go away
100
What is an ELECTRICAL EMERGENCY?
Loss of normal AC power to bus 1 and 2
101
With RAT deployed which electrical fuel pumps will we have?
ACMP2 and DC
102
Min fuel temp
-40
103
Water dump striper bar will extinguish when
Faulty drain mast heater indication in the aft FA control panel
Button pressed again
Empty
Gear extension
104
Max straight line taxi speed
30
105
When will pax mask auto deploy?
Cabin alt 14-14,750
| Good for 12 mins
106
Descent rate for DES NOW
1000
107
FMS speeds in single engine flight?
chill
108
When is the windshield automatically heated?
Two engines are fired up
109
What speed does TAT, SAT, TAS become valid?
60
110
Contaminated runway landing proc
Max revers and auto brake set to med
111
Max tire speed
195
112
MIC button must be selected to MASK to allow the microphone in the mask to work
truuuu
113
What does 22.5V on batteries give us?
10 mins power and 2 APU starts
114
APU auto shutdown on ground (SHELF)
```
Sensor fail
High oil temp
EGT overtemp
Low oil psi
Fire
```
115
Fire presses
At least 1 press
Add a press if non annunciated
Add a press for low rate on gnd
116
Cat A MEL
Specified
117
Cat B MEL
3 days
118
Cat C MEL
10 days
119
Cat D MEL
120
120
Order we do checklists (MEAN)
Memory
Emergency (QRH/QRC)
Abnormal (QRH)
Normal
121
"Nearest suitable airport" is Brazilian for
DECLARE AN EMERGENCY
122
AC power priority
Onside
Inside
Outside
Cross side
123
Only AC bus you have on batteries?
AC standby bus
| Has igniters on it
124
What does direct mode do?
Cuts FCM out of the loop
125
How long does the E PBIT take?
3 mins from when ac power was applied
126
Ways to fuck up the E PBIT
Run any HYD pump
Interruption of AC pwr
Flight control mode switches are cycled
127
H PBIT runs when
All 3 HYD sys running
| Takes 1 min
128
How to fuck up H PBIT
Move controls
129
ACMP will auto on when?
EDP fails
On takeoff (Flaps, TOGA, GS more than 50)
Landing flaps in
130
PTU must have
EDP 1 not failed
| At least 12% fluid in reservoir
131
When would you turn on ADS probe ht on the originating check?
less than -18
Contaminated probe
Freezing temps and visible moisture
Erroneous air data
132
Ground spoilers retract when
Wheel speed 45 or below for seconds
| TLA above 35
133
What happens at 60kts on takeoff
ADSP info becomes valid
| AT go to HOLD mode (disengages TL servos)
134
What happens at 100 kts on takeoff?
TRACK
135
What happens at 200ft on takeoff?
LNAV jumps the fence
| Wont turn until 400ft
136
What happens at 400ft on takeoff?
HOLD goes back to TO for AT
137
What happens at 1000ft on takeoff?
VNAV jumps the fence to FLCH
138
Valet bags weigh
30lbs
139
Ticketed bag weight
Same as child weight
| 80-82 depending on time of year
140
A child is between __ years old
2 and 13
141
Min temp for APU
-54
142
Height of tail
32'4"
143
Turbulence penetration speed below 10,000
250
144
Turbulent air penetration speed above 10,000
270/.76
145
What do you have during an electrical emergency?
```
Nav1
Com1
Irs1
Ccd1
Fms2
Mcdu2
1/2 dome lights
```
146
How long for RAT to deploy?
8 seconds
147
How is Vap calculated?
Half the steady headwind componet plus the gust factor
148
Landing distance to be used in emergency
Unfactored
149
Min and max Vap
Always at least 5 max 20
150
When should preview needles show up
150 miles
151
Can you get a low fuel msg for low collector tank fuel with good main tank fuel?
yea boi
152
What feeds the APU
DC on bat start
AC once started
Main ejector when engine running
153
How does a PATH mode descent start?
LNAV/VNAV
TOD displayed
Lower altitude selected
154
Can we fuel with pax on board?
Fuck yeah so long as engines are off
Main cabin door open
Or direct communication with the fueler
155
What does AUTO on battery 2 do?
Allows us to start on DC GPU
156
After one minute of APU fire on ground what illuminates?
Fire push
157
When does the fuel quantity turn amber?
1320
158
Does HYD3A do anything different when powered by the RAT?
Flow limiter
159
When does the PTU come on?
Flaps greater than 0
OR
Gear not up and locked
160
What does pressure dump do?
Packs off
Re-circulation fan off
Outflow valve open
2000fpm descent to 12,400
161
Max differential up to FL37?
7.8
162
Max differential above FL37?
8.4
163
When does auto ice prot turn off?
When no ice has been detected in the last 2 minutes
164
A/I from 10-5 includes
ENG
165
At what temp does ALL A/I start?
4 and below
166
When does wing anti ice turn on on takeoff?
40kt wheelspeed
167
Must have HYD warm up if tank is below
-18
168
When to make config changes in windshear?
1500ft
| Clear windshear and terrain
169
Airspeed trend line
10 seconds
170
Altitude trend line
6 seconds
171
If emergency release used will we have NSW steering?
No
172
Auto brake disengage
20% toe brakes
| Push back more than 5kts
173
When does auto brake begin on takeoff?
60kt
174
Locked wheel prot over what speed?
30kt
175
When will locked wheel prot cut out a brake
difference in 33 perent
176
What speed does antiskid become active?
10
177
Min fuel
2250
178
Emergency fuel
1500
179
What should the FO take with on an evacuation
CRASH AXE!!!
Flash light
And pin card
