Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

Runway Slope

A

+/- 2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Vmo/Mmo

A

340 KIAS / .82 M

Observe Vmo pointer and gear/flap placards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Severe Turbulence Airspeed

A

280 KIAS / .76M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Max Operating Altitude

A

41,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Max Takeoff/Landing Alt

A

8,400 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Max Flight Ops Latitude

A

82N and 82S

Exceptions:
80W - 130W —— 70N
120E - 160E —— 60S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Max Tailwind T/O

A

15 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Max Tailwind Landing

A

10 kts

(Ops Adv page [-7] may allow 15kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Max Demonstrated XWind

T/O and Landing

A

33 kts (NG)

32 kts (MAX)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Ground Wind Operating Envelope

A

XWinds > 43 kts : max thrust = taxi

Winds > 58 kts : idle thrust
except for setting T/O thrust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Max Taxi Weight

A

174,700 lbs

MAX-8 = 181,700

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Max Takeoff Weight

A

174,200 lbs

Max-8 = 181,200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Max Landing Weight

A

146,300 lbs

MAX-8 = 152,800

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Max Zero Fuel Weight

A

136,000 lbs

MAX-8 = 145,400

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

EVAC Systems:

Any time pax onboard one exit must be:

A

Open or Armed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

EVAC System:

On Rev Flights when must the girt bar be inserted in all brackets?

A

Taxi, Takeoff, and Landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

OVERWATER:

160 seat aircraft max occupants

A

168

160 seats + 2 Pilot + 1W + 6 FA = 169

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

OVERWATER:

Max occupancy on A/C with 172 seats?

A

NONE

Extra life rafts (3 -> 4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How often must the flight deck door and access system be checked?

A

Daily - prior to first flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When will the flight deck door access code be used?

A

Only in emergencies

Normal procedures for normal access

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How do you lock the door when DC Bus 2 unpowered?

A

POWER CUTOFF — OFF

DEADBOLT — LOCKED KEY INOPERABLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

With one or both engine bleeds on, do NOT operate the packs on HIGH under what conditions?

A

Takeoff / Approach / Landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Max Cabin Diff Pressure

A

9.1 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Max Alt for unpressurized flight (after inflight depressurization)

A

14,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Max Alt unpressurized- dispatched
10,000 ft
26
Icing Conditions - Ground & Takeoff - Inflight
Ground: OAT = 10*C Inflight: TAT = 10*C 1) Visible moisture in any form is present (i. e. clouds, fog w/ vis 1 mile or less, rain, snow, sleet, & ice crystals) 2) When operating on ramps, taxiways, or runways where surface snow, ice, standing water, or slush may be ingested by the engines or freeze on the engine or nacelles
27
When operating in icing, what is the limitation with regards to the Engine Ignitions?
They must be ON
28
Engine anti-ice must be on during all ground and flight operations when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, except during climb and cruise when the temp is BELOW ______
-40*C SAT DURD - must be on even
29
Can wing anti-ice be used in lieu of ground deice/ anti-ice?
NO
30
Do not operate wing anti-ice in the ground when OAT is ABOVE _____
10*C
31
Min Autopilot engagement for T/O
400’ AGL
32
Single channel AP min disengagement height
50’ AGL
33
Aileron trim with autopilot engaged is _______
Prohibited
34
Can we use dual channel AP for approach?
NO, prohibited
35
Do not use LVL CHG on final approach below ______
1,000’ AFE
36
If one HF radio is selected for transmission, what is the appropriate procedure?
Deselect other HF radio on all panels to prevent interference
37
Do not operate HF radios during _____ operations.
Refueling
38
When must the broadband switch be OFF?
Aircraft de-icing, taxing under skybridge, or while in hangar (PAX Oxygen switch is nearby)
39
Engine limit markings: Max/Min Cautionary Normal
``` Max/Min = red Cautionary = amber Normal = white ```
40
Engine Ignition Must be used when? (4 conditions)
AUTO or CONT: Takeoff Landing Anti-Ice Operation in Heavy Rain (CONT)
41
EECs in ALTN for Takeoff What are the limitations?
1) Both EECs in ALTN 2) 26K max thrust (27K if planned) ——TO for MAX-8 3) DO NOT use FMC N1 or QRH V-speeds 4) Auto-throttles use is PROHIBITED
42
When can 27K bump thrust be used?
If authorized by Dispatch and on load agent generated TPS. KSNA excluded
43
Intentional selection of REV thrust inflight is _________.
PROHIBITED
44
APU Bleed + Elec Load MAX ALT
10,000 ft
45
APU bleed only MAX ALT
17,000 ft
46
APU ELEC only load MAX ALT
41,000 ft
47
APU suggested starting ALT
25,000 ft
48
When must the APU bleed valve be closed? (3)
1) ground air CONNECTED and isolation valve OPEN 2) engine 1 bleed OPEN 3) isolation valve and engine 2 bleed OPEN *APU bleed may be open during engine start but limit thrust to idle
49
Cooling period between 3 consecutive starts of APU
15 min cooling period
50
Operation with Assumed Temperature Reduced T/O Thrust is not permitted with ________ INOP
Anti-skid
51
Min oil quantity for departure
12 qts MAX-8 = 17qts
52
MAX ALT with flaps extended
20,000 ft
53
Flap position when holding in icing
UP
54
Do NOT deploy speed brakes in flight with RA < ____ ft
1,000 ft
55
In flight do NOT extend speed brakes beyond ______ detent
FLIGHT
56
Avoid rapid and large alternating control inputs (esp in combination with large changes in pitch, roll, or yaw) as they may result in structural failure at any speed including below ______.
Va (maneuvering)
57
When extending or retracting via ALTERNATE FLAPS, how long should you wait between activations?
15 seconds
58
After complete extend/retract cycle (i.e. 0 to 15 to 0) what is the cooling period?
5 mins
59
Use of HUD (Head Up Display) with which RA INOP is prohibited?
RA 1
60
Max allowable in flight difference between CA and FO altitudes (RVSM) is:
200 ft
61
Max allowable on the ground difference between CA and FO altitudes for RVSM:
``` 50 ft (SL to 5,000’) 60 ft (5,001 to 10,000’) ```
62
MAX on the ground diff between CA or FO and field elevation for RVSM:
75 ft
63
Does the standby ALR meet altimeter accuracy requirements for RVSM?
NO
64
MAX tank fuel temp
49*C
65
MIN fuel tank temp prior to T/O and inflight
- 43*C OR 3*C above freezing point temp limit *higher is limiting
66
Random fuel imbalance limit
1,000 lbs
67
If center tank contains more than 1,000 lbs, what limit is there for main ranks 1 and 2?
They must be full of center tank has more than 1,000 lbs
68
Is ballast fuel authorized?
NO
69
Do NOT apply brakes until after ________.
Touchdown
70
Can EGPWS terrain display be used for navigation?
NO
71
To comply with a GPWS warning can pilots deviate from ATC clearances?
YES
72
When must EGPWS be inhibited (TERR INHIBIT)?
When directed by F4 message [Operations from/to runways and airports not in databases or approaches that have been identified as potentially producing false terrain alerts]
73
When must you not operate the Weather radar?
In Hangar and within 50’ of fueling ops, fuel spills, and people