Limitations Flashcards
(134 cards)
1
Q
What is the minimum flight crew requirement?
A
One pilot and one copilot
2
Q
What is the maximum landing weight?
A
78,600 lb / 35,652 kg
3
Q
What is the maximum ZFW (zero fuel weight)?
A
56,000 lb / 25,401 kg (Without SB) and
58,000 lb / 26,308 kg(With SB)
4
Q
What are the manuevering flaps 0/slats in load limit?
A
Slats/ Flaps retracted -1 G to +2.5 G
5
Q
What are the manoeuvring Slats / Flaps extended ?
A
0 G to +2 G
6
Q
What is the maximum runway slope approved for takeoff and landing?
A
+/- 2% uphill/ downhill
7
Q
Can the Global operate from unpaved, gravel or grass runway?
A
NO. AFM prohibits operation on unprepared surfaces.
8
Q
Wha is the visual eye reference for landing approach height for the Glbal 5000 and the Glbal 6000 aircraft?
A
- 40 ft /4.69M - 5000 and
15. 60 ft / 4.75M - 6000
9
Q
What pilot action must be taken for takeoff or landing near bodies of water when the airplane is above the maximum landing wight?
A
Requires the OFV #2 to be closed and
one PACK shutdown
10
Q
What is the wingspan
A
94 ft / 28.65
11
Q
What is the tail height
A
25 ft 6 in / 7.77 M
12
Q
What is the minimum 180 radius turn for the
Global 5000 / 6000
A
65 ft 4 in / 19.92M - 5000. and
68 ft / 20.73M - 6000
13
Q
What distance in front of the aircraft is required to clear the wingtip for Global 5000/ 6000
A
11 ft 6 in / 3.5M - 5000 and
10 ft 9 in / 3.32M - 6000
14
Q
What type is the APU
A
RE 220
15
Q
What is the maximum RPM for the APU
A
106%
16
Q
What is the Max alt operating for the APU
A
45.000 feet
17
Q
What is the minimum temp for starting a cold soaked APU on the ground
A
-40C
18
Q
How many start attempts are permitted for the APU
A
3 per Hour
19
Q
What is the maximum starting altitude for APU
A
37.000 feet
20
Q
What is the maximum OAT for bleed-air extraction from the APU for air conditioning
A
OAT 45C
21
Q
What is the maximum altitude for bleed air extraction from the APU
A
30.000 feet
22
Q
What is the maximum electrical load rating for the APU Gen
A
40 KVA
23
Q
What pilot action must be taken if the APU is powering an AC bus above 37.000 feet?
A
The associated hydraulic ACMP must be selected OFF
24
Q
How are electrical loads given priority?
A
APU FADEC cycles the load control valve LCV closed
25
When does the APU door position display on the EICAS?
When the FADEC detects an inlet door fault
26
When is it recommended to top up the APU oil reservoir?
When the STATUS page indication is lower than 4.5 quarts
27
What occurs when the APU run switch is returned to the RUN position prior to the 60 sec cool down period?
The APU rpm returns to 100%
28
Name one of the 3 conditions that would cause the manual operation of the APU LCV impossible
Anti-ice active,
Left engine Pressure Regulating Valve is manually opened.,
Right Engine Pressure Regulating Valve and crossbreed valve are manually opened
29
Name the 4 ways the APU can be shut down during an emergency
1 APU fire DISCH handle pulled
2 APU SHUT-OFF button - Ext Service Panel - pushed
3 BATT MASTER switch selected to OFF
4 APU SHUTDOWN SWITCH - APU compartment - pushed
30
What is the APU shutdown RPM requirement before turning off the BATT MASTER switch?
less then 70%
31
What is the limitation for replenishing the APU oil system?
A minimum of 15 min after APU shutdown and within 45 min of engine shutdown
32
When is use of the oil replenishment system use prohibited ?
When the OAT is less than or equal to -12C
33
What are the sources of aircraft-generated AC power?
4 variable freq gen VFGs,
1 APU GEN,
1 RAT
34
What is the electrical rating of the variable freq Gens, APU Gen, and RAT
4 VFGs - 40 KVA
APU GEN - 40 KVA
RAT - 9 KVA
35
How many AC buses are on the Global aircraft?
4 AC Buses - 1,2,3,4 ACPC
| 4 AC Buses - 1A, 2A, 3A, ESS (CCBP)
36
What is the purpose of the AC power centre ACPC
The ACPC protects, controls, and distributes AC power to the main AC Buses
37
In the event of a single Gen operation which AC buses remain powered
AC buses 1 and 4
38
How many engine Gen must fail before AC buses are load shed by the AC power centre ACPC
3
39
Where is external power receptacle located?
Aft Service Control Panel
40
What does the AVAIL light on the Ext AC switch/light on the aft Service Control Panel indicate
It indicates that the correct phase, voltage and Freq of the Ext AC Power is connected and available
41
What electrical services are powered in GROUND SERVICE mode?
4 primary AC buses, cabin feeders, APU battery charger and heater
AC3 (CCBP) than powers the avionics battery charger and heater.
42
What is indicated when both the AVAIL and ON lights on the Ext AC switch/lights illuminate simultaneously ?
Ground Service switch has been left ON
43
Why must the Ground Service switch be selected OFF prior to selecting normal external AC power?
TAT3 and the Right windshield heaters will remain inoperative
44
Where is the external DC power receptacle located?
It is located aft of the AFT equipment Comp Door
45
What is powered with the external DC power?
APU start contactor assembly ASCA provides power to start the APU, should the APU battery not be available
46
What is the purpose of the Gen switch / lights on the ELECTRICAL panel?
To reset or turn off the applicable generator
47
What is the normal source of DC power for the aircraft?
4 TRUs located in the unpressurised nose Comp,
| TRU1, TRU2, ESS TRU1, ESS TRU2
48
What are the 4 main DC buses?
DC Bus1, DC Bus2, DC ESS Bus, BATT Bus
49
In an emergency, how long will the aircraft batteries provide DC power?
Minimum of 15 min
50
In an emergency, what buses are powered by the batteries?
BATT Bus and DC EMER Bus
51
What EICAS message is displayed for a failed battery charger?
Advisory message
APU BATT CHGR FAIL or
AV BATT CHGR FAIL
52
Which DC buses are automatically load shed during single TRU operation?
DC Bus1 and DC Bus 2
53
What is the purpose of the EMER DC PWR OVRD switch?
Provides a bypass of a failed DCPC to provide power from ESS TRU 1 and 2 to the secondary power distribution assemblies SPDAs
54
Can a thermal CB be reset from the EMS CDU?
No. A thermal CB can only be physically reset at its location.
55
In cruise flight, when does the RAT automatically deploy?
14 sec after loss of all AC power
56
When would the RAT automatically and immediately deploy?
Loss of all AC power and
SLATS and FLAPS handle not IN and 0 or
Immediately after a dual engine failure
57
At what speed as the aircraft decelerates on the approach does the RAT GEN go OFF line
below 147 kts
58
Why is the RAT GEN taken OFF line as the aircraft decelerates on approach?
To ensure the RAT hydraulic pump has priority for flight controls
59
What does the EICAS warning message
| EMER PWR ONLY indicate?
RAT is powering the AC ESS BUS
60
If a GEN is reset after the RAT has deployed, how can the normal power be restored
Select the RAT GEN OFF with the RAT MANUAL RELEASE in the stowed position
61
Where are the fire detection sensing elements located on the engine ?
Accessory gearbox,
Engine core,
Fixed cowl
62
What type of extinguishing agent is used in the fire bottles
Halon
63
What are the cockpit indications of an engine fire
Respective L / R Fire Discharge Handle illuminates ,
L ENG FIRE or R ENG FIRE warning msg with Master Warning lights.
Fire annunciation in the respective ITT indicator
Aural warning "LEFT Engine Fire" or "Right Engine Fire"
64
Which are the 5 effects on the aircraft systems when the L / R Eng DISCH handle is pulled
```
1 Fuell SOV closes
2 Hydraulic SOV closes
3 Bleed-Air SOV closes
4 VFGs taken offline
5 Arms the Fire Bottles
```
65
Why is the ENG RUN switch selected OFF before pulling the Fire Handle during an engine fire?
Because the immediate shutdown is via the Eng Run, not the handle
66
If an APU fire is detected on the ground and no action is taken, what will the FADEC command after 5 SEC?
Automatic shutdown of the APU
67
Is an unattended APU operation permitted?
No. There is No provision for automatic fire bottle discharge
68
During an EMER EVACUATION, how are the fire DISCH handles operated?
Press the release button - manual override, under the handle and while pressing it pull the associated handle
69
What is the maximum number of smoke detectors the FIDEX can monitor?
8
70
How is the Fire Suppression in the baggage comp, Lavatories and cabin closets provided?
Portable Fire Extinguishers
71
What is the function of the APU lock out release pin
Prevents unintentional discharge of the 2nd extinguisher bottle into the APU
72
How is the Fire system Tested
EMS CDU pilot- initiated test
73
When a Fire Test detects a failure, what is the indication/
Appropriate EICAS Caution Message displays
74
How are the Primary Flight Controls controlled and actuated ?
Mechanically controlled and Hydraulically actuated
75
Which Hydraulic system powers the aileron power control units PCUs?
LEFT aileron - System 1 & 3
| Right aileron - System 2 & 3
76
How are the aileron control circuits separated in response to a jammed control system?
Operative control wheel overpowers the jam via a roll disconnect mechanism in the torque tube
77
One disconnected, can the ailerons be reconnected in flight?
NO
| the system must be rest by maintenance
78
How is the Pilot alerted if the aileron, rudder or stabiliser trim is out of the allowable range and the throttles are advanced for Takeoff?
Applicable EICAS warning message accompanied by the
| NO TAKEOFF voice message
79
When is the Yaw Dumper engaged by the flight guidance computer?
After the first engine start
80
Which hydraulic systems power the Rudder power control units PCUs
Hydraulic System 1, 2 and 3
81
Which hydraulic system power the Elevator power control units PCUs?
Left elevator 1 & 3
| Right elevator 2 & 3
82
What inputs activate the STAB trim?
Manual Trim - Capt overrides the Copilot
Auto Trim - Autopilot 1 or 2
MAch trim - Autopilot off
83
What does the master disconnect - MSTR DISC switch do when pressed
Provides a disconnect command to the AFCS disconnects Pitch Trim and Stall Pusher while the switch is held ( NO Pusher Disconnect for the EASA certified A/C)
84
Under which 2 conditions will the stabiliser in motion aural clacker sound?
Stabiliser runaway
| Stab Trim held for an extended period
85
How is the Slat / Flaps Operation controlled
By 2 independent Slat / Flap control Units SFCUs
86
Will a Flap failure prevent the operation of the Slats?
No. The Flaps and Slats are two independent dual motor assemblies
87
What is the purpose of the FLAPS switch on the TWAS / SMS panel?
Mute the Flap aural warning if the flaps are not in the correct landing configuration
88
How many spoiler panels are located on each wing?
4 Multifunctional spoilers MFS
| 2 Ground Spoilers GS
89
With Flaps extended, which MFSs are available?
Only 2 inboard pair of MFs
90
What are the functions of the Multi functionals spoilers MFSs?
1 Roll assist
2 Proportional lift dumping
3.Ground lift dumping
4 Combination: Roll assist and proportional lift dumping
91
How is symmetrical lift dumping ensured when an MFS panel failure is detected?
The opposite panel is automatically disabled
92
During landing, when will the ground spoilers deploy?
Throttles at idle or bellow and two of following conditions:
RA bellow 7 feet,
One main Landing Gear WOW,
One wheel speed greater than 16 knots
93
How does the pilot override in order to interrupt the stick pusher?
Pressing and holding the MST DISC
| Not certified for EASA
94
What is the Maximum permissible fuel imbalance on ground and during the TakeOff and Landing if the fuel quantity is more than 20.250 lbs (9186 kg)?
600 lbs (266 kg)
95
What is the Maximum permissible fuel imbalance on ground and during the TakeOff and Landing if the fuel quantity is less than 19450 lbs (8823 kg)?
1100 lbs (488 kg)
96
What is the Maximum permissible fuel imbalance in flight?
1100 lbs (488 kg)
97
What is the maximum usable fuel load for the wing tanks when using pressure refuelling?
15050 lbs (6825 kg) per wing tank
98
What is the maximums usable fuel load for the AFT fuel tank on the XRS or 6000?
2300 lbs (1025 kg)
99
According to AFM, which combination of the 2 conditions makes the Center Tank fuel unusable?
Each wing is NOT full at departure and planned cruise altitude is less than 30 000 ft
100
According to AFM, which combination of the 2 conditions makes the AFT Tank fuel unusable?
Each wing does NOT contain at least 5500 lbs (2495 kg) fuel at departure and planned cruise altitude is less then 30 000 ft
101
If the use of the centre / aft tank is planned what is the minimum required tank load?
500 lbs (230 kg) to ensure transfer pump reprime
102
What is the minimum go-around fuel?
600 lbs (266 kg) per wing with wing level and Max climb attitude of 10 nose up
103
What are the 2 limitations associated with fuel recirculation system?
Fuel recirculation is prohibited when using wide cut fuels, asymmetric operation is prohibited
104
Bellow which fuel temp is TakeOff prohibited?
Below +5C is prohibited
105
Is it permissible to takeoff and land with the XFEED SOV switch / light indicated OPEN?
NO
106
Which fuel tanks cannot be gravity refuelled?
Forward or Aft aux tanks
107
How is the positive fuel tank pressure maintained during flight?
NACA scoops provide ram air
108
When should the operation of the pressure relief valves not be tested?
When associated wing tank is above 1180 lb and the center tank above 8000 lb
109
What does the COMPAIRE FUEL QUANTITY indication in the FMS mean?
FMQGC and FMS fuel quantity differ by more than 2%
110
Under which combination of conditions does the fuel recirculation system automatically activate?
Above 34 000 ft and a single fuel temp sensor below -20C or
| Above 34 000 ft and average of temp sensors below -9C
111
When do the 2 AC boost pumps in each tank operate ?
Onside ENG RUN switch ON
112
Where is the SOV located and how is the valve closed?
Located behind the aft pressure bulkhead
| It is closed via the associated fire discharge handle
113
When does the fuel transfer from the centre tank to the wings ?
Wing tank quantity below 93% and continues until wing reaches full
(3% of volume maintained for fuel expansion)
114
What is the fuel quantity at which fuel transfers automatically from the AFT aux tank to the wing tank?
When either of the wing tank quantities reduces to 5500 lb
115
What will happen if one or both AC boost pumps fail?
Onside DC AUX pump automatically operates, providing engine fuel feed pressure
116
Under which 3 conditions would both DC Aux pumps automatically operate?
1 Flap position greater than 0
2 In flight with Landing gear down
3 600 lb in either wing tank
117
Under which condition is a lateral fuel imbalance automatically corrected ?
A wing imbalance of 400 lb and DC Aux pumps are not already running
118
What is the AFM Limitation for the fuel XFEED SOV?
Must be closed for takeoff and landing
119
What is the purpose of the XFEED SOV?
Single engine feed from Bothe wing tanks or both engine to be fed from a single tank
120
After an engine failure, why is the XFEED SOV open?
To ensure balanced fuel use both tanks avoiding any significant lateral fuel imbalance
121
Which fuel tank normally provides fuel for the APU?
The Right wing tank
122
Which fuel pumps have no pilot control?
Central tank transfer pumps
123
How is fuel automatically transferred to the central tank from the forward auxiliary tank?
XRS/6000
Transfer ejector or gravity flow
124
Which 4 conditions inhibit an automatic wing fuel transfer?
1 Flaps position greater than 0
2 In flight with Landing Gear extended
3 Low fuel condition - less than 600 lb in either wing
4 DC aux pump supplying fuel feed an engine (AC pump failure)
125
Why must manual operation of the wing transfer system be monitored?
Because no automatic shutdown or overfill protection is provided
126
What is the power source for the refuel / defuel panel?
APU Battery Direct Bus - to prevent APU battery drain, ensure the panel is selected OFF after use
127
During the refuel SOV test, what does the SOV FAIL message indicate?
Fuel flow will not stop when the tank is full
128
How many Hydraulic systems provide the aircraft with hydraulic power
3
129
How many hydraulic pumps are required for normal system operation?
One hydraulic pump for each system
130
Which hydraulic systems are powered by engine driven pumps ?
1 & 2
131
What is normal hydraulic operating pressure?
3000 psi
132
What hydraulic fluid is used in Global?
SKYDROL
133
Why is there a 2 sec delay between ACMP starts, when multiple hydraulic pumps are commanded on?
To prevent AC electric overload
134
When will the ACMP start with the hydraulic switch in AUTO
Either Slats / Flaps not IN / 0 position or when system low pressure detected
