Limitations Flashcards
(143 cards)
1
Q
Length, height and wingspan?
G500
A
92 x 26 x 88
2
Q
Length, height and wingspan?
G600
A
97 x 26 x 95
3
Q
Maximum Weights? RAMP TAKEOFF LANDING ZERO FUEL
A
G500:
- 80.000 lbs
- 79.600 lbs
- 64.350 lbs
- 52.100 lbs
G600:
- 95.000 lbs
- 94.600 lbs
- 76.800 lbs
- 57.440 lbs
4
Q
Max approved weight in baggage compartment?
A
G500: 2.250 lbs
G600: 2.500 lbs
5
Q
Max passengers?
A
19 (depending on floor plan)
6
Q
Min Taxi strip for a 180 turn
A
G500: 60
G600: 65
7
Q
Cruising altitudes?
Initial
Max
A
FL430
FL510
8
Q
High speed cruise!
A
0.90M
9
Q
Internal baggage door altitude restriction?
A
Shall remain closed above 45.000ft
10
Q
Max Fuel weight?
G500
G600
A
G500: 30.250 lbs
G600: 41.500 lbs
11
Q
Max approved airport pressure altitude for takeoff and landing?
A
15.000lbs
12
Q
Max runway slope for takeoff and landing operations?
A
+- 2%
13
Q
Max tailwind component for takeoff and landing?
A
10 kt
14
Q
Crosswind limit for static takeoff?
A
30 kt
15
Q
Max demonstrated crosswind for takeoff and landing?
A
G500: 33 kt
G600: 30 kt
16
Q
Max tailwind component for landing with Flaps 10 or less?
A
0 kt
17
Q
Max crosswind component for landing (including gusts)?
A
22 kt
18
Q
Use of autopilot during single engine go-around?
A
Prohibited
19
Q
Use of autothrottle during single engine approach OR approach and landing with flaps 10 or less?
A
Prohibited
20
Q
Turbulent air penetration speed?
A
Above 10.000 ft: 270 kt/ 0.85M
Below 10.000 ft: 240 kt
21
Q
Max operating speed?
A
0.925 M
22
Q
Don’t operate weather radar within____ft of refueling ops OR within____ft of ground personnel
A
50 ft
11 ft
23
Q
Autopilot minimum engage height?
A
200 ft AGL
24
Q
Autopilot minimum disengage height from ILS or LPV approach?
A
G500:
Flaps 39: 90 ft AGL
Flaps 0/10/20: 130 ft AGL
G600:
90 ft AGL for all flap settings
25
Autopilot minimum disengage height for all other operations?
200 ft
26
Max demonstrated altitude loss for coupled go-around?
50 ft
27
Use of VOR Approach (VORAP) Mode?
Prohibited if VOR station overflight is required during any portion of intermediate or final approach segments, excluding the missed approach point
28
When should Terrain be inhibited?
For airports not contained in EGPWS database
29
Use of SFD (Standby Flight Display) declutter mode?
Prohibited
30
Starting the APU using external DC power source?
Prohibited
31
Max Flap Extended Speed - Vfe
Flaps 10
Flaps 20
Flaps 39
250 kt
220 kt
180 kt
32
Max operating altitude for extension/ flight with Flaps extended 10 or 20?
25.000 kt MSL
33
Max operating altitude for extension/ flight with Flaps 39?
20.000 ft MSL
34
When is the use of speedbrakes prohibited on G500?
Not approved for extension with
| Flaps 39 OR with landing gear extended in flight
35
Restrictions when operating in other than normal mode?
1. Max Speed: 285 kt / 0.90M
2. crosswind for landing: 10kt
3. Flight into know icing conditions is prohibited
36
Maneuvering speed (Va)?
206 Kts
37
Max Speed if any primary flight control surface or speedbrake panel is failed due to component malfunction(s) or hydraulic system failure?
285 kt/ 0.90 M
38
Flight attitudes
Negative and Zero G operations Limited to?
7sec of operation
39
Max operating altitude for extending landing gear or flying with landing gear extended?
20.000 ft MSL
40
Max speed for extending or retracting landing gear?
Vlo 225 kt
41
Max speed for flying with landing gear extended?
Vle 250 kt
42
Max speed for flying with landing gear extended after alternate extension?
225 kt
43
Max nose wheel and pedal steering authority?
Nose 82
| Pedal 40
44
Max cabin pressure differential permitted for taxi, takeoff or landing?
0.30 psi
45
Max normal differential pressure?
10.69 psi
46
ECS duct temperature limit during manual zone temperature control?
200 F
47
APU starter duty cycle?
Limited to max of 3 consecutive start attempts with a one minute cool down period between attempts.
After three start attempts, observe a 1 hour cool down period before attempting another start.
48
APU max start altitude?
37.000 ft
49
APU max operating altitude?
45.000 ft
50
Altitude at which APU can provide starter-assist for main engine start?
30.000 ft
51
When is takeoff with APU operating prohibited?
OAT > 45 C
52
Max TAT for APU inflight operation?
47 C
53
Engine starter duty cycle?
Three start attempts of up to 3 min per start cycle, with 15 sec between start cycles, followed by a 10 min cooling period.
54
Max crosswind and tailwind component for engine ground start?
Cross 40kt
| Tail 25kt
55
Min oil temp for ground start?
-40C
56
Max start TGT?
975C
57
Use of takeoff thrust?
Limited to 5 min with all engines operating OR 10min for one engine in the event of engine failure
58
Max takeoff TGT?
965C for 5 min
59
Max continuous TGT?
G500: 950C
ASC 022: 956C
G600: 956C
60
Speed for cancelling reverse thrust?
Initiate to be at reverse idle by 60kt
61
Requirement if reverse thrust used to bring airplane to halt in emergency?
Record and report for maintenance action
62
Use of thrust reversers for power back?
Not approved
63
When is use of both thrust reversers prohibited?
< 10 kt
64
Temperature at which cowl anti-ice required for taxi and takeoff with visible moisture, precipitation, or wet runway present?
+10C or less
65
When is takeoff prohibited?
With frost, ice, snow, or slush adhering to wings, control surfaces, engine inlets or other critical surfaces
66
Where does automatic anti-ice feature work?
Between 400 ft AGL and 35.000ft
67
Use of wing and cowl anti-ice?
Select when entry into icing conditions is imminent or immediately upon detection of ice formation on wings, winglets or windshield edges
68
Flight with Flaps or Landing Gear extended in icing conditions?
Restricted to takeoff, approach and landing only.
Select WAI ON and confirm normal operation prior to flap extension when icing conditions exist or may exist during approach or landing
69
Use of Flaps in icing > 10min
Don’t retract flaps < 10 deflection until verifying that flap leading edge is clear of ice
70
Extended operations in icing conditions
Limited to Flaps 0 configuration
71
Operation in forecast or reported severe icing?
Prohibited
Exit as soon as possible if severe icing is encountered and verify anti-ice is ON
72
Ops with WAI on in Flaps 0 configuration?
Maintain minimum of 200 kt until ready to configure for landing
73
When select WAI to ON if required for takeoff?
At least 4 min prior to setting takeoff power
74
Boost pump operation?
All boost pumps should be ON for all phases of flight unless balancing fuel
75
Max fuel imbalance?
- takeoff
- inflight
1000 lbs
2000 lbs
76
Range?
G500: Speed .85/ .90M
G600: Speed .85/ .90M
G500
.85M: 5.200nm
.90M: 4.400nm
G600
.85M: 6.500nm
.90M: 5.100nm
77
ELT activates with how many Gs impact?
2.5 G
78
How does the ELT transmit?
406MHz for 24 hours
| 121.5 MHz and 243.0 MHz until Batterie depletion
79
Maximum Payload?
G500
G600
5. 250lbs
| 5. 970lbs
80
Max tire ground speed?
195kt
81
Min Holding Speed in icing conditions?
200kt
82
Vmo below 8.000ft?
| Vmo above 10.000ft?
300kt
340kt
83
Max operating altitude with rudder failure or jam?
35.000ft
84
Max operating altitude on Single Pack?
48.000ft
85
AC POWER is supplied to the aircraft by what?
- 2 IDGs (1 on each engine)
- APU Generator
- Ram Air Turbine (RAT) Generator
- External AC Power Cart
86
DC POWER is normally supplied to the aircraft by what?
- 5 TRUs which convert AC to DC
- 2 Main Ship Batteries
- EBHA Battery
- UPS Battery
- 2 E-Batts
- DC Power Cart
87
AC and DC electrical power distribution is controlled by?
- 2 BPCUs
- SPDS (the Secondary Power Distribution System distributes power to multiple aircraft systems. Protection is provided by electro-mechanical circuit breakers and Solid State Power Controllers SSPCs)
88
Main Battery Switches Legend Amber ON when? (Switch IN)
- AUX Pump Operation
- > 2 min Limit Airborne Prior to Reset
- APU Start
- If ESS DC Buses have no other source of power
-> Minimum of 10 min of power following 2 APU
Start Attempts
89
Main Battery Switches Legend amber ON when? (Switch in OUT position)
External Battery Switch Selected ON
90
Main Batteries (essential) power
- OHPTS 1 & 2
- Both SFDs
- DUs 1 & 4
- Landing gear lights
- All TSCs
91
When is deployment of RAT prohibited?
When normal AC power is available EXCEPT during emergency conditions and as directed by abnormal or emergency procedure checklist.
92
TRU load limits during ground operations?
```
80%:
Left Main
Left Essential
Right Main
Right Essential
```
40%:
Auxiliary
93
Takeoff Run (SL,ISA, MTOW)
G500
G600
G500: 5.200ft
G600: 5.700ft
94
Why does transfer of power between External AC and APU result in a Break Power Transfer?
APU generator and External AC are not frequency controlled by GCU and the BPCU
95
What’s the purpose of GCUs?
They work with aircraft electrical system to provide quality power
96
How can a GCU be reset?
By removing power from the GCU or by recycling the associated Generator Control Switch
97
What causes the AC LEGEND of AC/DC RESET switch light to activate?
- Fault within Main AC Bus or EMER AC
- logic fault within BPCU
- relay or component failure
98
Heated Fuel Return.
| Prerequisites to operate:
- Fuel Return Switch Auto
- Fuel Temperature less than 0 C
- Altitude greater than 30.000ft
99
Heated Fuel return is inhibited for the following reasons:
- Fuel Temperature > 10C
- Low Fuel Pressure
- Low Fuel Quantity
- Engine Fire Handle pulled / not stowed
- Crossflow Valve open
- Fuel Return Switch selected OFF
- Engine Power below idle or high power
- Engine Fuel Filter blocked
- Abnormal Engine Condition
100
The maximum allowable Fuel temperature supplied to the Engines is ______C up to 40.000ft decreasing linearly to _____C at 51.000ft.
55
| 34
101
Minimum Fuel Tank Temperature:
> 5.000lbs total Fuel
< 5.000lbs total Fuel
- 37C
| - 30C
102
What’s the purpose of the Fuel Tank Ventilation System?
It allows air and fuel vapor to flow freely in order to prevent over and under pressurization
103
What’s the capacity of each hopper?
G500
G600
1. 100lbs
| 1. 170lbs
104
What’s the purpose of the Fuel Ejector and how does it operate?
It keeps the hopper full.
| It’s a low-pressure high-volume jet pump with no moving parts.
105
PTU automatic operation
- PTU switch armed
- left system pressure <2.400psi
- Right System Healthy
106
AUX Pump automatic operation
- AUX pump armed
- AUX pump not overloaded or
overheated
- left system pressure <1.500psi, fluid available
and not hot.
- Flap handle position doesn’t match flap position
Or landing gear handle doesn’t match gear position
- On ground: left system and inboard accumulator
Pressure <1.200psi and brake pedals depressed
107
Hydraulic reservoir quantities:
G500
G600
L2.4 gallons / R1.3 gallons
L2.9 gallons / R 1.4 gallons
108
Hydraulic system accumulator precharge:
1.200psi at 21C
| +- 25psi per each 5C difference from 21C
109
What’s the purpose of the PTU?
It provides operational redundancy to the left hydraulic system
110
What items can be powered by the AUX hydraulic pump?
- Flaps
- Landing Gear
- Inboard Brakes
- Inboard Parking Brakes
- Cabin Door
- Nose Wheel Stearing
111
ECU Electronic Control Unit controls what? (APU)
- Inlet Door
- Starting
- Speed governing
- Load sequencing
- Surge protection
- Stopping
- Protective Shutdowns
112
APU Master selection does what?
- ECU performs a PBIT
- Commands APU air inlet door to open
- Command APU fiel shutoff valve to
open
- Selects NAV lights on
- Selects Left Main Fuel Pump ON
- TROV opens
113
APU Max permissible EGT is
Start 1.050C
| Running 732C
114
APU minimum temperature for ground start is:
-40C
115
Which BUS is NOT powered by RAT?
L MAIN AC BUS
| R MAIN AC BUS
116
What would power R ESS DC BUS if both ESS TRUs have failed?
Main Batteries
117
How many Flight Control Actuators?
16
9 Hydraulic Actuators
7 Electrical Backup Hydraulic Actuators
118
Min required for NORMAL MODE?
- 1 IRS agreeing with 1 AHRS
OR
- 2 IRSs
119
FLT CTRL RESET switch when pressed resets?
- Both A and B channels in both FCCs
| - All 16 flight control surface actuators
120
Where does AHTMS capture information from?
- CAS
- CMC
- FDR
121
Describe MAU?
They’re the main computers and processors that control most avionics related applications on aircraft
122
What does the Aircraft reference symbol (or Boresight symbol) represent on HUD?
Projected centerline of aircraft (boresight)
123
What’s the difference between HUD UNCAGED and CAGED modes?
In UNCAGED mode FPV is free to roam horizontally and vertically. In CAGED mode FPV is free to move vertically however it’s locked in horizontal center. In CAGED mode FPV indicates planes heading and ghost FPV represents track. In UNCAGED mode boresight represents heading and FPV represents track
124
When do engines go to approach idle?
Gear extended or Flaps 39
125
What’s the purpose of secondary power distribution system?
It takes power from primary power system and distributes it to various aircraft loads
126
SPDS is composed of two ESCs and 14 MPTs (4 for AC and 10 for DC). What is the difference between ESCs and MPTs?
ESCs perform system control functions and interface with other aircraft systems. MPTs perform power routing and circuit protection functions using AC and DC SSPC.
127
What does RAT power once it reaches operating speed (usually 5-8sec)?
It powers FCC UPS BUS and EBHA BUS through EMER AC BUS, and both ESS DC BUSES through L and R ESS TRUs
128
When is AUX DC BUS load shed or not powered?
During single generator operation, R A T generator operation, battery only operation, or when AUX TRU is powering another DC BUS. Load shed feature is in inhibited it on ground
129
Describe the purpose of the fifth or AUX TRU
It serves as a back up to primary TRUs. We’re not serving in back up role, AUX TRU powers AUX DC BUS which provides 28 VDC power to cabin loads
130
What’s AUX TRUs priority?
ESS before MAIN
| L before R
131
What’s the purpose of the AUX PUMP?
Primarily designed for ground and maintenance operations
132
How many Hydraulic Accumulators are there and what’s the preflight requirement?
There are two accumulators: one for each system. Check for 1.200psi at 70F nitrogen pre-charge on preflight
133
How does AUX pump operate differently in air when selected on ground?
It operates regardless of hydraulic quantity or temperature; however it automatically shuts off after two minutes to prevent inadvertent depletion of the batteries
134
What’s the purpose of APU load control valve?
It opens to provide bleed air from APU while aircraft is on ground, as well as in-flight if needed, for main engine start. It’s controlled by APU bleed air switch
135
What effect does loss of one hydraulic system have on flight controls?
Loss of one spoiler pair
136
How many computers control the fly by wire flight control system?
Three computers:
- 2 FCCs for normal operation
- 1 Backup Flight Control Unit in case both flight control computers fail
137
What’s the purpose of Backup Flight Control Unit?
It’s designed to provide what Gulfstream calls “get home capability” if both primary FCCs fail
138
Describe Electric Backup Hydraulic Actuator EBHA
It’s a special actuator with self-contained electric motor/pump and hydraulic reservoir
139
What type of sensor input is provided to FCCs?
Input from:
- IRSs
- AHRS
- ADSs
- RAs
140
What happens if all 4 FCC channels are invalid?
Flight control system reverts to direct mode
141
What happens if all 4 FCC channels are unable to compute the control law?
BFCU activates to provide GET HOME capability
142
Normal mode has 4 primary operating sub modes. What are they?
- On ground
- In flight
- AOA limiting
- High Speed Protection
143
Which component, driven by accessory gear box, is dedicated source of power to EEC when the engine is running?
PMA Permanent Magnetic Alternator
