Limitations

Question 1

Flt Maneuvering load Acceleration Limit

Flaps up

Answer 1

+2.5g to -1g

Question 2

Flt Maneuvering load Acceleration Limit

Flaps down

Answer 2

+2g to 0g

Question 3

Max runway slope

Answer 3

+/- 2%

Question 4

Maximum Takeoff and Landing tailwind component

Answer 4

10kts

Question 5

Max operating altitude

Answer 5

41,000 feet

Question 6

Max takeoff and landing altitude

Answer 6

8,400 feet.

Question 7

Maximum flight operating latitudes

Answer 7

82 degrees N and S with some small exceptions.

Question 8

Do standby altimeters meet altimeter accuracy requirements of RVSM airspace?

Answer 8

no

Question 9

Max allowable in flight difference between Captain and FO altitude displays for RVSM ops

Answer 9

200 feet.

Question 10

Max difference between CA and FO altitude readouts for RVSM:

sea level to 5000?
5000? to 10,000?

Answer 10

sea level to 5000?=50 feet

5000? to 10,000?=60 feet

Question 11

Max difference between CA OR FO and field elevation for RVSM?

Answer 11

75 all altitudes.

Question 12

MMO

Answer 12

.82 Mach

Question 13

Max gear retraction speed

Answer 13

235 kts

Question 14

Max gear extension speed

Answer 14

270 kts/.82 Mach

Question 15

Max gear operating/extended speed

Answer 15

320 knots/.82 Mach

Question 16

If severe turbulence is encountered at altitudes below ________ feet and the aircraft gross weight is less than the maximum landing weight, the aircraft may be slowed to ______ knots in the clean configuration.

Answer 16

15,000 feet; 250 knots

Question 17

True/False: PIlot are prohibited from operating with a QFE altimeter setting

Answer 17

true

Question 18

Max ground times after landing:

If landing weights exceeds the value in the Maximum Quick Turn Around Weight Limits table, wait at least:

Answer 18

67 Minutes (-700,-800,-900) Steel brakes. [Mx may use an alternate approved procedure to ascertain acceptable brake temps for dispatch]
48 Minutes (-900,-9ER) Carbon Brakes

Check wheel thermal plugs before making a subsequent takeoff.

Question 19

Standing Water/slush T/O Xwind component kts Blended Winglet/Split Scimitar Winglet

Answer 19

15/15 kts

Question 20

True/False: Takeoff with forward looking windshear warning or caution alert annunciated is not approved?

Answer 20

true

Question 21

T/F: Installation of handle covers on the over wing exits must be verified prior to dept whenver pax are carried.

Answer 21

true

Question 22

T/F: On revenue flights, the escape slide retention bar (girt bar) does not need to be installed during taxi, takeoff and landing.

Answer 22

False. It has to be installed.

Question 23

What is the minimum number of cabin portable oxygen bottles aboard?

Answer 23

At least one for each assigned FA (one FA for each 50 seats)

Question 24

Max cabin pressure differential?

Answer 24

9.1 PSI

Question 25

Max differential pressure for takeoff and landing

Answer 25

.125 PSI

Question 26

T/F: When engine bleeds are on, do not operate A/C packs in high for takeoff, approach and landing.

Answer 26

True.

Question 27

Maximum operating differential pressure: Above 37,000 feet

Answer 27

8.35 +/- .1 PSI

Question 28

Maximum operating differential pressure: 28,000-37000 feet

Answer 28

7.8 +/- .1 PSI

Question 29

Maximum operating differential pressure: Below 28,000 feet

Answer 29

7.45 +/- .1 PSI

Question 30

Max Cooling Duct Pressure

Answer 30

20-25 PSI

Question 31

Minimum duct pressure for 2 pack ops from one bleed source

Answer 31

20-25 PSI

Question 32

T/F: Takeoff in mod/heavy freezing rain or hail is prohibited

Answer 32

true

Question 33

Engine anti ice must be ON during all flight ops when icing condictions exist or are anticipated, expect during climb or cruise when the temp is below _____.

Answer 33

-40°C SAT.

Question 34

Engine Anti Ice must be ON prior to and during descents in all icing conditions, including temps below ______.

Answer 34

-40°C SAT.

Question 35

Engine ignition must be selected to _______ prior to and during engine anti-ice operation.

Answer 35

CONT

Question 36

Use wing anti-ice during all ground ops between engine start and takeoff when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, unless aircraft is or will be protected by the application of type ____ and type ____ fluid.

Answer 36

II and IV fluid.

Question 37

Window heat must be on ____ minutes before takeoff

Answer 37

10 minutes.

Question 38

Probe heat must be on before______.

Answer 38

takeoff.

Question 39

During takeoff do not use wing anti-ice until after the _____ thrust reduction.

Answer 39

first

Question 40

Use of the _______ with the autopilot engaged is prohibited.

Answer 40

aileron trim.

Question 41

Autoland capabilty may only be used to runways at or below ______ feet pressure altitude

Answer 41

8400

Question 42

The ILS autoland capability may only be used with flaps ____ and _____ with both engines operative

Answer 42

30 & 40.

Question 43

Max and min glideslope angles for autoland are _____ and ____ respectively.

Answer 43

3.25 and 2.5

Question 44

The autoland system shall not be used for _____ landings

Answer 44

Overweight

Question 45

Do not use the autopilot or the autothrottles for approach if the associated _________ is inoperative

Answer 45

radio altimeter

Question 46

T/F: autolands with the FO as PF are not authorized

Answer 46

true

Question 47

Do not use LVL CHG on final approach below ______ AFE.

Answer 47

1500ft

Question 48

Do not use _____ for ATC comm with ACARS operational.

Answer 48

VHF-3

Question 49

Max single engine drive generator load

Answer 49

75 KVA-215 amps

Question 50

Min battery voltage for APU start

Answer 50

23v

Question 51

Engine Ignition must be on for:

Answer 51

Takeoff Landing Engine Anti- ice ops Heavy Rain

Question 52

Min oil pressure

Answer 52

13 PSI. Oil pressure must be in normal for takeoof.

Question 53

Max engine oil temp

Answer 53

155ºc

Question 54

Max continuous oil temp

Answer 54

140ºc

Question 55

Max allowable engine oil temp

Answer 55

140°C - 155°C (45 minutes)

Question 56

Engine Max and min limits

Answer 56

Red line

Question 57

Cautionary range for engine limit display

Answer 57

amber arc

Question 58

Normal operating range for engine limit display

Answer 58

white arc

Question 59

Max EGT takeoff (5 minutes)

Answer 59

950ºc

Question 60

Max continuous EGT

Answer 60

925ºc

Question 61

Max EGT for Start

Answer 61

725ºc

Question 62

Normal Engine Starter Duty Cycle:

Answer 62

multiple consecutive start attempts are permitted. Each start attempt is limited to 2 min of starter usage. A min of 10 seconds is need

Question 63

RPM Maximums: N1 N2

Answer 63

104. 0% | 105. 0%

Question 64

Operations with assumed temp reduced takeoff thrust is not permitted with ________.

Answer 64

antiskid inoperative.

Question 65

Use of assumed temperature reduced takeoff thrust i snot permitted when the runway is contaminated with________,___,_____ or ______.

Answer 65

standing water, ice, slush, or snow.

Question 66

Both EECs must be either ____ or ____ for takeoff.

Answer 66

ON or ALTN

Question 67

Operation with assumed temperature reduced for takeoff thrust is not permitted with the EEC in _____ mode.

Answer 67

ALTN

Question 68

APU max altitude for bleed and electrical

Answer 68

10.000ft

Question 69

APU max altitude for bleed

Answer 69

17.000ft

Question 70

APU max altitude for electrical load

Answer 70

41.000ft

Question 71

Min eng oil quantity prior to engine start

Answer 71

60%

Question 72

Do not engage the starter above ______% N2.

Answer 72

20% N2.

Question 73

If starting an engine in ambient temps below _____, Idle engine ____ minutes before changing thrust lever position.

Answer 73

-35°C, 2 minutes.

Question 74

For both _____ and ______starts, _____ minute cooling is required after ______ start attempt.

Answer 74

ground, in-flight, 15 minu

Question 75

Operate the APU ______ minute before using APU bleed air.

Answer 75

1 min

Question 76

Wait a minimum of ______ seconds for APU shutdown cycle to complete, then turn battery switch to _____.

Answer 76

120 seconds, OFF.

Question 77

When must the APU bleed valve be closed?

Answer 77

Ground pneumatic air is connected and isol valve is open. Engine No. 1 bleed valve is open (eng 1 is running.) Isolation valve is open and Eng 2 bleed valve is open (eng #2 running). Note: APU bleed valve may be open during engine start but avoid engine power above idle.

Question 78

If black dots shown in lavatory fire extinguisher, what is required?

Answer 78

maintenance action is r

Question 79

Engine fire extinguisher bottle pressure

Answer 79

800 PSI at 70°F

Question 80

Holding in icing conditions with flaps extended is________.

Answer 80

prohibited

Question 81

In flight, do not extend the speed brake lever beyond _______.

Answer 81

FLIGHT DETENT.

Question 82

When extending or retracting the flaps with the __________ position switch, allow ______ seconds after releasing the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch before moving the switch again to avoid damage to the alternate flap motor clutch.

Answer 82

ALTERNATE FLAP, 15 sec

Question 83

Max airspeed to extend the flaps with alternate system.

Answer 83

230kts

Question 84

Speed brakes should not be deployed with flaps extended beyond flaps_____.

Answer 84

15

Question 85

Do not deploy the speed brakes in flight at radio altitudes less than ______.

Answer 85

1000 feet.

Question 86

Max speed for mach trim fail (both channels).

Answer 86

280 kts/ .82 Mach.

Question 87

Do not operate the weather radar during______, within ____ feet of a fuel spill, or within_____ feet of people except in test mode.

Answer 87

fueling, 50 feet, 15 feet.

Question 88

Localizer back course approaches are ________.

Answer 88

not authorized.

Question 89

Wing tank capacity

Answer 89

1288 U.S. gallons/ 8630 lbs

Question 90

Center tank capacity

Answer 90

4299 U.S. gallons/ 28,803 lbs

Question 91

Main wing tanks must be scheduled to be full if the center wing tank contains more than _________ of fuel.

Answer 91

1000 pounds.

Question 92

Lateral fuel imbalance between tanks 1 and 2 must be scheduled to be ______. Random fuel imbalance must not exceed ______ pounds.

Answer 92

Zero, 1000.

Question 93

Intentional dry running of a center fuel pump (LOW PRESSURE light illuminated) is ________.

Answer 93

prohibited

Question 94

Extended Range Ops: Perform an ops check of the fuel ________ valve during the last hour of cruise flight during each extended range operation.

Answer 94

crossfeed

Question 95

Min fuel for stationary ground operation of electric motor-driven hydraulic pumps is _______ pounds in the related main tank.

Answer 95

1675

Question 96

Min hydraulic quantity for dispatch is:

Answer 96

above RF

Question 97

Max tire groundspeed :

Answer 97

195kts

Question 98

Do not apply brakes until after

Answer 98

touchdown.

Question 99

Arming the ____ feature is required for all takeoffs, if operable. Position the ____ selector to OFF is the autobrake system is inop.

Answer 99

RTO, RTO.

Question 100

Brake wear indicators should extend beyond the _______ (with parking brake set).

Answer 100

brake flange.

Question 101

GPWS: do not use terrain display for ________.

Answer 101

navigation

Question 102

The use of look-ahead terrain alerting and terrain display functions are _______ within ___ NM of takeoff, approach or landing at an airport or runway not contained in the GPWS terrain database.

Answer 102

prohibited, 15 NM 109

Question 103

Pilots are authorized to deviate from their current ATC clearance to the extend necessary to comply with a TCAS _______.

Answer 103

resolution advisory.

Question 104

The use of terrain awareness and terrain display functions are prohibited when the FMC is in _________.

Answer 104

IRS only operation.

Question 105

For _______, the use of terrain awareness and terrain display functions are prohibted until position verification has been accomplished.

Answer 105

takeoff