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G550 > Limitations > Flashcards

Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

Minimum Flight Crew…

A

Minimum Flight Crew required is pilot and copilot.

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2
Q

An additional crewmember must be carried…

A

On all flights of 10 to 19 pax. Pilot and copilot cannot serve this function.

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3
Q

A runway is considered Wet…

A

When it is well soaked (there is sufficient moisture on the runway surface to cause it to appear reflective) but without significant areas of standing water.

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4
Q

A runway is considered Contaminated…

A

When more than 25% of the runway surface area (whether in isolated areas or not), within the required length and width being used, is covered by surface water more than 0.125 inch (3mm) deep, or by slush or loose snow equivalent to more than 0.125 inch (3mm) of water.

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5
Q

Continuous (airstart) ignition must be selected “ON” for takeoff and landing on runways…

A

With standing water, slush or snow.

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6
Q

Maximum slope approved for takeoff and landing operations are…

A

+2% (uphill) and -2% (downhill).

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7
Q

Maximum tailwind component approved for takeoff and landing is…

A

10 knots.

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8
Q

Maximum approved airport pressure altitude for takeoff or landing is…

A

10,000 ft field elevation.

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9
Q

For flight planning purposes, maximum IRS Navigation with out sensor updates is…

A

5.0 hours.

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10
Q

Flight in the North Atlantic Track-Minimum Navigation Performance Specifications (NAT-MNPS) …

A

Provided at least two FMSs are operating and receiving usable data from any combination of two GPSs and / or Inertial Reference Sensors (IRSs), or one FMS and one GPS and / or IRS for those routes requiring only one Long Range Navigation (LRN) sensor.

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11
Q

Polar Navigation is approved, provided…

A

TRUE Heading is selected prior to N73° and S60° Latitude.

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12
Q

Maximum operating altitude is…

A

51,000 ft.

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13
Q

Maximum altitude with a single air conditioning pack operating is…

A

48,000 ft.

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14
Q

Maximum altitude with yaw damper inoperative is…

A

45,000 ft.

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15
Q

Maximum operating altitude for extending landing gear or flying with landing gear extended is…

A

20,000 ft MSL.

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16
Q

Maximum operating altitude for extending landing flaps 39° (DOWN) or flying with landing flaps extended is…

A

20,000 ft MSL.

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17
Q

Maximum operating altitude for extending flaps to 10° or 20° or flying with the flaps extended to 10° or 20° is…

A

25,000 ft MSL.

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18
Q

Minimum Control Speed Air:

A

112 KCAS

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19
Q

Minimum Control Speed Landing:

A

110 KCAS

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20
Q

Minimum Control Speed Ground:

A

107 KCAS Sea Level 86 KCAS 15,000 ft

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21
Q

VMCG decreases linearly at the rate of approximately…

A

One knot per thousand feet from Sea Level to 15,000 ft.

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22
Q

Maximum deflection of flight controls, as well as maneuvers that involve angles of attack near the stall AOA, should be confined to speeds below…

A

206 KCAS.

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23
Q

Avoid rapid and large alternating control inputs, especially in combination with large changes in pitch, roll, or yaw (e.g., large sideslip angles), as they may result in structural failures at…

A

Any speed, including below VA.

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24
Q

FLAPS EXTENDED SPEEDS (VFE / MFE): 10°

A

250 KCAS / 0.60 MT

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25
Q

FLAPS EXTENDED SPEEDS (VFE / MFE): 20°

A

220 KCAS / 0.60 MT

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26
Q

FLAPS EXTENDED SPEEDS (VFE / MFE): 39°

A

170 KCAS / 0.60 MT

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27
Q

LANDING GEAR EXTENDED SPEED (VLE / MLE):

A

Do not exceed 250 KCAS / 0.70 MT with landing gear extended (gear doors open or closed).

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28
Q

LANDING GEAR OPERATION SPEEDS (VLO / MLO): Normal Operation…

A

Do not lower or raise landing gear at speeds in excess of 225 KCAS / 0.70 MT.

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29
Q

LANDING GEAR OPERATION SPEEDS (VLO / MLO): Alternate Operation…

A

Do not lower landing gear utilizing alternate system at speeds in excess of 175 KCAS.

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30
Q

The minimum holding speed in icing conditions is…

A

160 KCAS.

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31
Q

MAXIMUM OPERATING LIMIT SPEED (VMO / MMO):

A

Mach 0.86 @ 51.000 FT

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32
Q

YAW DAMPER INOPERATIVE SPEED Above 10,000 ft the maximum speed is…

A

260 Kts / 0.80 MT.

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33
Q

YAW DAMPER INOPERATIVE SPEED Below 10,000 ft the maximum speed is…

A

250 KCAS.

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34
Q

YAW DAMPER INOPERATIVE SPEED Above 20,000 ft the minimum speed is…

A

210 Kts.

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35
Q

YAW DAMPER INOPERATIVE SPEED Below 20,000 ft the minimum speed is…

A

in accordance with the schedule below until ready to configure for approach and landing. VREF as presented on the airspeed tape is the approach speed for landing in the current flap setting.

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36
Q

With both mach trim functions inoperative, or electric elevator trim inoperative, the maximum operating limit speed is…

A

0.80 MT.

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37
Q

TURBULENCE PENETRATION SPEED Altitude 10,000ft or Above:

A

270 KCAS / 0.80MT, whichever is less.

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38
Q

TURBULENCE PENETRATION SPEED Altitude Below 10,000 ft:

A

240 KCAS.

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39
Q

Maximum tire ground speed is…

A

195 kts.

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40
Q

Maximum speed with the emergency stabilizer armed, autopilot engaged and a jammed elevator is…

A

270 KCAS / 0.80 MT.

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41
Q

Flight Load Acceleration Flaps Up (0°):

A

-1 to 2.5 G for all weights up to maximum takeoff weight.

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42
Q

Flight Load Acceleration Flaps 10° or 20°:

A

0 to 2.0 G for all weights up to maximum takeoff weight.

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43
Q

Flight Load Acceleration Flaps 39°:

A

0 to 2.0 G for all weights up to maximum landing weight. 0 to 1.5 G for all weights above maximum landing weight.

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44
Q

MAXIMUM ZERO FUEL WEIGHT

A

54,500 lb. (24,721 kg)

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45
Q

MAXIMUM RAMP WEIGHT

A

91,400 lb. (41,458 kg)

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46
Q

MAXIMUM TAKEOFF WEIGHT

A

91,000 lb. (41,277 kg) Maximum takeoff weight, unless restricted by climb performance, brake energy, or tire speed for approved altitudes and ambient temperature or by field length.

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47
Q

MAXIMUM LANDING WEIGHT

A

75,300 lb. (34,155 kg) Maximum landing weight, unless restricted by climb requirements.

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48
Q

The allowable Center Of Gravity (CG) range is a function of gross weight as shown in the Zero Fuel Gross Weight Center Of Gravity Envelope chart that follows. Zero fuel gross weight CG must be within the allowable zero fuel gross weight CG envelope. The fueled airplane CG will then be within limits for all fuel loads.

A

The allowable Center Of Gravity (CG) range is a function of gross weight as shown in the Zero Fuel Gross Weight Center Of Gravity Envelope chart that follows. Zero fuel gross weight CG must be within the allowable zero fuel gross weight CG envelope. The fueled airplane CG will then be within limits for all fuel loads.

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49
Q

Maximum fuel imbalance for takeoff is…

A

1000 lb.

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50
Q

Maximum fuel imbalance in flight is…

A

2000 lb.

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51
Q

Proceed with fuel load balancing before the imbalance exceeds…

A

1000 lb.

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52
Q

When the fuel tank temperature is less than 0°C, fuel balancing shall be accomplished using…

A

The intertank valve and establishing a small sideslip (approximately 1⁄2 trapezoid). Move the rudder trim arrow in the direction of the “heavy” tank, which will create a slight wing down condition toward the “light” tank.

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53
Q

Maximum cabin pressure differential permitted is…

A

10.48 psi.

54
Q

Maximum cabin pressure differential permitted for taxi, takeoff or landing is…

A

0.3 psi.

55
Q

The internal baggage door shall remain closed above…

A

40,000 ft.

56
Q

Access to the baggage compartment above 40,000 ft is permitted provided…

A

The door is closed after exiting the compartment.

57
Q

If operating on single ECS pack, access to baggage compartment is allowed only…

A

At or below 45,000 ft.

58
Q

Time with the internal baggage door open above 40,000 ft is limited to…

A

5 minutes.

59
Q

The flight crew is required to insure that door is closed and message extinguished within…

A

5 minutes when above 40,000 ft.

60
Q

Mach trim must be ON during all flight operations except as provided for…

A

in Section 3-02-40: Mach Trim Failure.

61
Q

If Mach Trim is inoperative, MMO is reduced to…

A

0.80 MT.

62
Q

Single engine autopilot coupled go-around is…

A

Not approved.

63
Q

Autopilot Minimum engage height is…

A

200 ft.

64
Q

Autopilot Minimum disengage height is ___ from an ILS or MLS approach.

A

60 ft.

65
Q

Autopilot Minimum disengage height is ___ below MDA / DA from an LNAV / VNAV approach.

A

50 ft.

66
Q

Maximum demonstrated altitude loss for coupled go-around is…

A

60 ft.

67
Q

The use of HUD flight director symbology on the PFD is permitted with…

A

ASC 902.

68
Q

The use of HUD flight director symbology on the PFD is prohibited without…

A

ASC 902.

69
Q

Flight director and / or autopilot coupled approaches are limited to…

A

Category 1 minima.

70
Q

Maximum speed with the emergency stabilizer armed with the autopilot engaged and a jammed elevator is…

A

270 KCAS / M.80.

71
Q

Back course approaches are prohibited for airplanes SN 5001 and subs without…

A

ASC 901.

72
Q

Use of autothrottle during single engine approaches is…

A

Prohibited.

73
Q

The flight crew shall wear headsets with acoustical protection when operating the airplane in the…

A

“green” configuration.

74
Q

Communication / Navigation (COMM / NAV) Radio 3 is…

A

Inoperative.

75
Q

The Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) test function on the AV900 Audio Control Panel (ACP) is…

A

Inoperative.

76
Q

The Honeywell VHF Radios comply with…

A

The 8.33 kHz spacing requirements and all applicable standards of relevant FAA TSO’s, RTCA, and ICAO Annex 10 specifications for FM Immunity. 

77
Q

When the Standby Electrical Power System (HMG) system is in operation, speed brakes may be used provided…

A

Operation is slow (approximately three (3) seconds for full range movement).

78
Q

When operating on Standby Electrical Power System (HMG), consult the list of operative items in Section…

A

4-04-10: Dual Generator Failure.

79
Q

Do not operate the Standby Electrical Power System (HMG) system when normal AC power is available, except…

A

As provided for in Section 3-04-30: L (or R) ESS DC Bus Failure.

80
Q

The APU generator should be selected ON with APU running for takeoff until 5,000 ft AGL for airplanes…

A

SN 5001 thru 5031 without ASC 019 (FADEC 2.1 Software Upgrade).

81
Q

Both stall warning / stall barrier systems must be operative…

A

For takeoff.

82
Q

Operative stall barrier systems must be ON during all flight operations unless…

A

Required to be selected OFF for procedural reasons. Refer to Section 4-13-50: Stall Barrier Malfunction for additional information.

83
Q

Speed brakes are not approved for extension with flaps…

A

At 39° (DOWN) or with landing gear extended in flight.

84
Q

Takeoff is permitted with the automatic ground spoilers inoperative provided…

A

The anti-skid is operative, 20° flaps are used and the cowl and wing anti-ice systems are not used. Dispatch with reference to MEL.

85
Q

If a touch and go landing is to be performed, GND SPLR…

A

Must be OFF and manual spoiler landing distances must be taken into account.

86
Q

The usable fuel capacities Right Tank

A

20,650 lb. (9,367 kg)

87
Q

The usable fuel capacities Left Tank

A

20,650 lb. (9,367 kg)

88
Q

The usable fuel capacities Total

A

41,300 lb. (18,734 kg)

89
Q

It may be possible to upload fuel in excess of 41,300 lbs. This is permitted as long…

A

As the maximum ramp weight and / or the maximum takeoff weight is not exceeded, and the loaded airplane center of gravity is within limits.

90
Q

All operable boost pumps shall be selected ON…

A

For all phases of flight unless fuel balancing is in progress.

91
Q

When fuel tank temperature is less than 0°C, all boost pumps…

A

Shall remain ON.

92
Q

If fuel balancing is required when fuel tank temperature is less than 0°C…

A

Comply with 1-03-80: Fuel Load Balancing.

93
Q

Fuel temperatures of +54°C or greater will cause…

A

A red Fuel Tank Temperature message to be displayed on the Crew Advisory System (CAS).

94
Q

Fuel temperatures of -35°C to -36°C will cause…

A

An amber Fuel Tank Temperature message to be displayed on CAS.

95
Q

Fuel temperatures less than or equal to -37°C will cause…

A

A red Fuel Tank Temperature message to be displayed on CAS.

96
Q

When fuel tank temperature is at or below -30°C in flight with less than 5,000 lb. of total fuel remaining…

A

The airplane shall be descended to an altitude where SAT is -60°C or warmer and maintain a minimum speed of M .80.

97
Q

Maximum Reservoir Quantities (Pressurized) As Indicated On CAS: LEFT

A

4.8 gallons. Refer to placard in aft equipment bay.

98
Q

Maximum Reservoir Quantities (Pressurized) As Indicated On CAS: RIGHT

A

1.6 gallons. Refer to placard in aft equipment bay.

99
Q

Left & Right System Accumulator Pre-Charge:

A

1200 psi @ 70°F / 21°C ±25 psi per each ∆10°F / 5°C.

100
Q

Icing conditions exist when…

A

The SAT on the ground and for takeoff, or SAT in-flight is +8°C or below, and visible moisture in any form is present (such as clouds, fog with visibility of one mile or less, rain, snow, sleet and ice crystals).

101
Q

Icing conditions also exist when…

A

The SAT on the ground and for takeoff is +8°C or below when operating on ramps, taxiways or runways where surface snow, ice, standing water, or slush may be ingested by the engines or freeze on engines, nacelles, or engine sensor probes.

102
Q

Operation of wing anti-icing is required…

A

If icing conditions are imminent, or immediately upon detection of ice formation on wings, winglets, or windshield edges.

103
Q

Use of cowl anti-icing is required for taxi and takeoff when…

A

Static Air T emperature (SA T) is +8°C or below and visible moisture, precipitation, or wet runway are present.

104
Q

When taxiing or holding on the ground at low power in temperatures less than +1°C…

A

Engine operation of 40% LP for ten (10) seconds is recommended just prior to takeoff and at intervals of not more than sixty (60) minutes under these temperature and moisture conditions.

105
Q

Use of cowl anti-icing system is required in flight as indicated in Figure 1-4: Temperature Range For Cowl Anti-Icing, page 1-35, when…

A

Visible moisture or precipitation is present or when signs of icing are observed. Ice accretion may be observed on wings or windshield edges.

106
Q

Increase in engine vibration levels may develop in…

A

Icing. The fan should normally shed the ice and vibration will return to normal.

107
Q

To assist in shedding ice, if high vibration occurs and operational circumstances permit…

A

One engine at a time may be quickly retarded to idle, held there for five (5) seconds and then accelerated to 90% LP, the power lever may then be returned to its original position.

108
Q

Automatic anti-ice is inhibited above…

A

35,000 ft.

109
Q

If anti-ice protection above 35,000 ft is required…

A

It must be manually selected.

110
Q

Use of flaps in icing conditions is restricted to…

A

Takeoff, approach and landing only.

111
Q

Holding in icing conditions is limited to…

A

0° flaps only.

112
Q

The display of any video unrelated to the operation of the airplane is…

A

Prohibited. This would include any video feed from the cabin entertainment system. 

113
Q

The DISPLAY SYSTEM CONTROL ALT mode is…

A

Inoperative.

114
Q

The electronic checklist is…

A

Approved for use.

115
Q

Takeoff is permitted with anti-skid inoperative, provided…

A

The runway is dry, ground spoilers are operative, 20° flaps are used, and the cowl and wing anti-icing systems are not used. Dispatch shall be with reference to the MEL.

116
Q

There is no provision for IRS…

A

“Down Mode Align”.

117
Q

Honeywell HG2100AB Series IRS equipment installed in the Gulfstream G550 has been certified for alignment to…

A

78° Latitudes.

118
Q

For IRS alignment between 70° and 78° Latitude…

A

Fifteen (15) minute alignment time is required.

119
Q

For flight above 73° N and 60° S Latitude, EFIS heading information must be switched…

A

From magnetic (MAG) to TRUE due to loss of valid MAG heading from the IRS.

120
Q

There are no restrictions for IRS in air automatic realignment – Align in Motion (AIM). However, the AIM alignment time may be less than 10 minutes or more than 20 minutes, if any of the following conditions are present either alone or in combination:

A

• No change in heading during alignment • No changes in acceleration during alignment • An east to west flight trajectory such that the IRUs sensed rotational rates in inertial space is nearly equal to zero. NOTE: Airplane maneuvers involving changes in heading reduces alignment time. Alignment time increases with latitude, i.e., minimum time is at the equator and maximum is at the pole.

121
Q

Do NOT operate radar during…

A

Refueling of the airplane or when within 300 ft (92 meters) of other refueling operations.

122
Q

Do NOT operate radar within…

A

49 ft (15 meters) of ground personnel with 24” antenna installed.

123
Q

FMS Navigation above 89° North or South Latitude is…

A

Approved.

124
Q

Verify that the FMS database is current. If the database is out of date….

A

Flight may be continued providing the latitude / longitude of each waypoint is verified by the crew.

125
Q

A current database is required in order to fly…

A

GPS approaches.

126
Q

Verify that the navigation computer software version is…

A

NZ7.X or later approved version.

127
Q

Use of the TOLD Software ID V1.0 for takeoff and landing field performance…

A

Is permitted. TOLD calculations shall be checked for reasonableness. G550 AFM Section 5, Performance, shall be available for cross reference as necessary.

128
Q

TCAS OPERATING CONSTRAINTS With 7.0 software installed, all RA and TA aural messages are inhibited at a radio altitude…

A

Less than 500 ft ±100 ft climbing and descending.

129
Q

The pilot must not initiate evasive maneuvers based solely on information from a Traffic Advisory (TA).

A

Traffic Advisory information should be used only as an aid to visual acquisition of traffic.

130
Q

Compliance with TCAS Resolution Advisories (RA) is required unless…

A

The pilot considers it unsafe to do so. Maneuvers that are in the opposite direction of an RA are extremely hazardous and are prohibited unless it is visually determined to be the only means to assure a safe separation.

131
Q

Prompt return to the ATC cleared altitude must be accomplished when…

A

“CLEAR OF CONFLICT” is announced.

132
Q

SINGLE ENGINE INOPERATIVE AND TCAS With a single engine inoperative, select…

A

TA only as the TCAS operating mode.

G550 (4 decks)

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