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Line Training Questions Flashcards

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1
Q

Fuel will be added to the Centre Tank above approximately what level? (All variants)

A

Approximately 12 Tonnes

A320ceo = 12.2 Tonnes
A321ceo = 12.1 Tonnes
A321neo = 12.1 Tonnes

FCOM DSC28-10-20

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2
Q

Is an APU fire test required if the APU is already running?

A

No, it is not. An APU fire test is only required if the APU is not running on the first flight of the day/duty.

FCOM PRO>NOR>TSK>Preliminary Cockpit Preparation

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3
Q

If a LO PR warning occurs with less than 200kg in the centre tank, is
this a real threat? When would this be real?

A

A LO PR warning can be considered spurious if there less than 200kg in the centre tank.

At these times the centre tank pumps should be selected off and the mode selected to MAN. Consider turning pumps back ON /AUTO once established in stable flight in cruise. If unsuccessful, turn the pumps OFF / MAN and treat the remaining fuel in the centre tank as unuseable.

FCOM PRO>NOR>JSS>FLIGHT>Overhead Panel

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4
Q

What conditions might a manual start be recommended?

A

After aborting a start, because of:
* Engine stall, or Engine EGT overlimit, or LO START AIR PRESS, or no N1 Rotation, or hung start.

When expecting a start abort, because of:
* Degraded bleed performance, due to hot conditions, or high altitude
* An engine with a reduced EGT margin, in hot conditions, or high altitude
* Marginal performance of the external pneumatic power group
* Tailwind greater than 10kts

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5
Q

If you lost comms with the ground crew on pushback, how would you
attempt to regain contact?

A

If a loss of communication occurs, flight crew will attempt to regain contact by:
- Flashing taxi/landing lights
- Contacting company on VHF
Also use the above methods to re-establish contact after disconnect

FCOM PRO>NOR>JSS>FLIGHT>Pushback

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6
Q

On initial climb out, what is thrust reduction/acceleration altitude?

A

800/800ft HAA

FCOM PRO>NOR>JSS>Flight>Initial Climb Profile

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7
Q

When is the earliest the CM can contact the flight deck to announce cabin secure for take-off?

A

After the aircraft is observed by the CM to be taxiing.

OM12 Page 208

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8
Q

When may acceleration altitude be raised?

A

Acceleration altitude may be raised in the following circumstances, with intermediate altitudes permitted:

  • Speed restrictions below Green Dot below 3000ft HAA
  • Climb gradient requirements exceed 6%
  • Windshear or turbulence is expected
  • Local procedures specify NADP1 or a higher acceleration altitude (i.e Hobart RWY 30 ALL ENG PROC)

FCOM PRO>NOR>JSS>Flight>Initial Climb Profile

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9
Q

On a 30m runway, what are the crosswind limits for take-off/landing, both wet, and dry?

A

Need to confirm this with a training captain

38kts dry / 33kts wet
(includes gusts)

A320 only. A321 aircraft are not approved for 30m width runway ops.

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10
Q

When is it appropriate to accept a non-standard FL?

A

To meet specific operational requirements and maintain schedule integrity. I.e. in order to:

  • Minimise fuel burn if standard flight levels are not available
  • Avoid departure delays
  • Facilitate traffic flow and minimise altitude blockages
  • Avoid turbulence or anticipated wx
  • Operate on one way routes

FCOM PRO>NOR>JSS>FLIGHT>Standard Flight Levels

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11
Q

What is the fuel capacity of the A320ceo?

A

18,729kg

FCOM DSC28-10-20

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12
Q

Can we accept block levels?

A

Yes, to seek favourable winds or to avoid turbulence.

*Only when there is a distinct operational advantage to be gained, and only when all FCM can remain vigilant with respect to adhering to the block

Australian, New Zealand, Oakland and Singaporean FIRs in controlled airspace only. Good communications must exist to accept the clearance. HF is not considered a good medium*

FCOM PRO>NOR>JSS>FLIGHT>Standard Flight Levels

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13
Q

If we accept block levels, what do we set on the FCU?

A

When climbing, set the upper clearance limit of the block on the FCU. When descending, set the lower clearance limit of the block.

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14
Q

When should the wing anti-ice test be conducted?

A

When the ANTI ICE p/b is set to ON after start, the anti-ice valves open for 30 seconds for a self-test sequence, then close for as long as the aircraft is on the ground.

FCOM>PRO>NOR>SOP>AFTER START

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15
Q

At what FL or below is it acceptable to be managed/managed in a
high-speed descent?

A

Approximately FL260

In order from TOD:

  • Avoid using DES mode when commencing descent and whilst descending through the higher/mid flight levels (reducing risk of overspeed due to target speed range).
  • The use of DES mode combined with managed speed once in the lower FLs (below approximatelly FL260) is acceptable once margin from VMO/MMO is established.*

FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>DESCENT SPEEDS AND RATES OF DESCENT

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16
Q

What is the company speed limit/height on descent?

A

250kts below 5000ft HAA

FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>DESCENT SPEEDS AND RATES OF DESCENT

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17
Q

If ATC request a high-speed descent below our company limit, can we accept this?

A

No.

FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>FLIGHT>DESCENT SPEEDS AND RATES OF DESCENT

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18
Q

At what altitude is the cabin prep PA to be made, and how long does this allow the cabin crew to secure the cabin?

A

**At (or prior to) FL200.
**
The intent is to allow the cabin crew 5 minutes to secure the cabin for landing prior to the seatbelt sign being switched on.

FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>FLIGHT>Descent Preparation

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19
Q

In a CTAF, if joining for a straight in approach, JQ aircraft are to join
no closer than xx miles to the runway threshold?

A

5nm.
The radio transmission must also be made no later than 5nm

FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>FLIGHT>Operations at non-towered airports

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20
Q

In non-radar airspace, what is the speed requirement below 10,000ft?

A

250kts

FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>FLIGHT>Operations at non-towered airports

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21
Q

Is it allowable to use PAL, or do we need PAL+AFRU?

A

NEED TO CHECK WITH TRAINER
Yes, if AFRU is installed at the aerodrome but is temporarily unservicable?????

FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>FLIGHT>Operations at non-towered airports

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22
Q

When can we accept PAL only?

A

NEED TO CHECK WITH TRAINER
If AFRU is installed at the aerodrome but is temporarily unservicable?????

FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>FLIGHT>Operations at non-towered airports

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23
Q

When should PAL be activated for arrival/departure?

A

Prior to taxiing on departure and within 15nm of the airport and at or above the LSALT on arrival.

FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>FLIGHT>Operations at non-towered airports

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24
Q

Can CA/GRS provide separation or control services?

A

No they can’t. The service provides additional information to crew, including AAIS, known conflicting traffic and other operational information.

FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>FLIGHT>Operations at non-towered airports

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25
At what height or below is it prohibited to use open descent?
1500ft HAA ## Footnote FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>FLIGHT>Terminal Area Operations
26
What is the glide slope interception from above technique?
* Arm LOC (Must be established on LOC to apply procedure) * Configure in the level segment to setup for a high drag descent from above * Wind the FCU altitude above the aircraft's current altitude * Press the APCH P/B to arm the approach * When cleared for the approach, Pull V/S and set between -1500 and -2000fpm * At G/S*, set G/A Altitude
27
During instrument approach procedures in IMC, when must the aircraft be established on the required vertical path?
By the final approach fix/final approach point (FAF/FAP) ## Footnote FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>FLIGHT>Terminal Area Operations
28
In conducting a visual approach, when is the aircraft required to intercept the nominated vertical profile?
By 1000ft HAA ## Footnote FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>FLIGHT>Terminal Area Operations
29
When conducting an approach using visual approach slope indicators (PAPI/T-VASIS), when should you transition to a visual aim point?
300ft HAA (I think). ## Footnote FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>FLIGHT>Approach Slope Guidance
30
Where is the normal aiming point runway marker set?
1500ft (300m) or the second set of markers on any runway. ## Footnote FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>LANDING>Touchdown Zone FSO 036/24
31
Under what conditions may we continue to an aerodrome with an inoperative visual approach slope indicator system? (3 things)
* EGPWS is servicable * The flight crew review the terain and obstacles in vicinity of the aerodrome and relevant runway * The visual approach slope indicator system is not specified as an essential requirement for the approach to be flown (refer approach chart and or OM2A) ## Footnote FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>FLIGHT>Approach Slope Guidance
32
Can you hand fly an approach in IMC?
No. Automatic flight shall be used when possible for all instrument approaches when IMC. ## Footnote FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>Instrument Flight Operations>General
33
If in IMC and the outer marker/height check on a CAT I ILS is not available, what must the minima be increased to?
The minima must be raised to the 'no glide path' minima. ## Footnote FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>Instrument Flight Operations>ILS Category I Approach
34
What temperature or below do cold weather corrections need to be made?
ISA-15 or Airport Temperature of -10C?
35
Is baulked landing protection available with an RNP approach? What about an RNP-AR?
Only proprietary RNP-AR approaches provide baulked landing protection available with an RNP approach. ICAO RNP-AR approaches do not, neither do RNP approaches. ## Footnote FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>Instrument Flight Operations>A320/321 RNP-AR Procedures
36
If there is no temperature range specified on the chart, and the OAT is lower than ISA -15c, what type of vertical navigation must be used?
F-G/S or Selected vertical navigation. ## Footnote FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>Instrument Flight Operations>Instrument Approach
37
During a visual approach, when must aircraft tracking be on the extended centreline/all manoeuvring completed?
Unless specified in a published procedure, 500ft HAA. ## Footnote FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>Instrument Flight Operations>Visual Approach
38
What is the maximum performance criteria tolerance for an RNP approach?
0.3nm? or 0.11nm? Depends on how you read the question?
39
If the RNP is lost or downgraded, a missed approach must be conducted unless which conditions are met?
Unless the conditions for a visual approach are satisfied. ## Footnote FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>Instrument Flight Operations>RNP APCH LNAV or LNAV/VNAV Approaches (RNAV-GNSS)
40
What is the maximum X-Track error for an RNP approach?
The maximum X-Track error is 0.3nm. If this is exceeded prior to commencing the approach an alternative instrument approach must be conducted. If it is exceeded during the approach, the approach must be disnontinued or a missed approach conducted. ## Footnote FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>Instrument Flight Operations>A320/321 RNP-AR PROCEDURES
41
Should a NAV ACCUR LOW alert occur during cruise, crew may continue provided that?
Should a NAV ACCUR LOW alert occur during cruise, descent or RNP1 STAR, crew may continue provided that the EPE remains less than the required RNP for the current phase of flight. ## Footnote FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>Instrument Flight Operations>A320/321 RNP-AR PROCEDURES
42
Crew must not commence an RNP-AR unless nav accuracy HIGH at what point?
Initial Approach Fix ## Footnote FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>Instrument Flight Operations>A320/321 RNP-AR PROCEDURES
43
LDEV scales do not display in which circumstances? (four things)
* In a holding pattern * On a 'direct to' (DF) leg * When the current RNP > 0.3, and * When on the ground and more than 90 degrees from departure runway magnetic heading ## Footnote FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>Instrument Flight Operations>A320/321 RNP-AR PROCEDURES
44
When conducting an RNP-AR approach, unless the NNDP is stated on the approach chart, what point is considered the NNDP?
Unless the NNDP is specifically annotated on the approach chart, the IAF (Initial Approach Fix) should be used as the NNDP. If vectored - the latest intercept point becomes the NNDP. ## Footnote FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>Instrument Flight Operations>A320/321 RNP-AR PROCEDURES
45
Conducting a planned OEI RNP-AR approach is permitted to not below which minima (RNP 0.xx)?
0.15nm ## Footnote FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>Instrument Flight Operations>A320/321 RNP-AR PROCEDURES
46
If an engine fails below the OEI RNP-AR minima, the approach may be continued using what minima?
The approach may be continued to the planned minima. ## Footnote FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>Instrument Flight Operations>A320/321 RNP-AR PROCEDURES
47
What is considered a 'significant outage period' for RAIM?
More than 5 minutes. ## Footnote FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>Instrument Flight Operations>A320/321 RNP-AR PROCEDURES
48
With the call for both flight directors off, what must the PM check on the FMA before announcing 'both flight directors off'?
The PM must select both FDs off, check the FMA to confirm that both FDs are off and Speed mode is annunciated when A/T is engaged. ## Footnote FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>Approach Procedures>General
49
What are the FO limits for ceiling and visibility on an approach?
200ft of the mimina or 2000m of the required visibility. ## Footnote FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>Approach Procedures>Operational Application
50
What is the min oil temperature before start? | Same for all engine types
-40C ## Footnote FCOM>LIM>ENG>OIL
51
Under normal circumstances, a missed approach due to weather should be limited to how many attempts?
Two. A third approach should not be immediately attempted unless the PIC believes there is a high probability of a successful approach and landing or a greater emergency exists. ## Footnote FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>Approach Procedures>Missed Approach Policy
52
What constitutes a configured approach by 1000ft HAA
* Established on the correct lateral and vertical path, with only small changes required to maintain * Aircraft in the planned configuration for landing * Sink rate less than 1000fpm * Thrust appropriate to acheive or maintain approach speed * All briefings complete ## Footnote FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>Approach Procedures>Stable Approach
53
What constitutes a stable approach by 500ft HAA (in addition to configured)
* Landing checklist complete * Airspeed not more than +10 or -5 of the target ## Footnote FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>Approach Procedures>Stable Approach
54
When and how would you turn off the ROW/ROPS function if necessary?
In the case of landing on a runway that is not validated for ROPS, along the scheduled route. ROPs may be inhibited (TERR pb set to OFF on GPWS panel) when the aircraft is less than 15nm from the airfield. ## Footnote FCOM>LIM>ROW_ROP
55
If the aircraft appears likely to touchdown beyond the touchdown zone, and the PIC deems the landing safe to continue, what must the PF do to ensure the A/C stops within the LDA?
Maximum full reverse thrust and sufficient braking to ensure the aircraft stops within the LDA. ## Footnote FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>LANDING>TOUCHDOWN ZONE
56
After reverse thrust has been initiated, can you go around?
After reverse thrust has been initiated, a full stop landing MUST be made. ## Footnote FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>LANDING>TOUCHDOWN ZONE
57
By day/night, what LAHSO may be conducted?
**Day**: Simultaneous take-offs and landings **Night**: Simultaneous landings only ## Footnote JEPPS AIRWAY MANUAL-PACIFIC>AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL>STATE RESULTS AND PROCEDURES> DEPARTURE,APPROACH AND LANDING PROCEDURES> LAND AND HOLD SHORT OPERATIONS
58
When should the brake fans be selected on after landing?
No earlier than 5 minutes after landing, unless: * Turnaround time is short or any brake temperature is likely to exceed 500 degrees. * Approaching the gate ## Footnote FCOM>PRO>NOR>SOP>AFTER LANDING
59
What must be briefed prior to conducting LAHSO.
* Action to be taken in a go-around * Action in the event of an inability to hold short, as required * Action in the event of another aircraft failing to hold short ## Footnote FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>Landing>LAHSO
60
LAHSO markings: How many occulting lights are there, how often do they flash and what colour are they?
6 white occulting lights - unidirectional occulting at approximately 30 times per minute. ## Footnote Jepps Pacific > Airports and Ground Aids
61
Can you hand fly an RNP approach?
Yes, under the following conditions: * Not IMC, Night or a Queenstown RNP-AR * Visual reference can be maintained * RNP-AR Lateral and vertical tolerances applied * Approach is coded to the runway threshold and is runway aligned * RNP 0.3nm is used * FD is used * The intention to hand fly should be included in the approach breifing
62
When is maximum reverse thrust recommended?
* On a wet runway * when autobrake MED or maximum manual braking is used. * Wherever required throughout the landing roll (below 70kts unless a greater emergency exists) ## Footnote FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>LANDING>LANDING ROLL REVERSE THRUST
63
When is idle reverse on landing recommended?
On a dry runway or where state requirement exists (noise abatement). ## Footnote FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>LANDING>LANDING ROLL REVERSE THRUST
64
When would a single engine taxi be permitted, and who is permitted to taxi?
* Anticipated taxi or standoff time will be greater than 3 minutes * The planned taxi route doesn't cross any active runways * Tarmac is dry and relatively flat * No tight turns * Jet blast will not be directed towards loose equipment etc. * Procedures are only commenced once established on a straight taxiway clear of nay runways or intersecting taxiways Single engine taxi in is to be conducted by the captain only. ## Footnote FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>AFTER LANDING>TAXIING
65
How long should the battery remain on after switching off the APU?
2 Minutes after the APU AVAIL light goes out (AVAIL light can stay illuminated for 120 seconds for cooldown if bleed air was being used)
66
Flight parameters during approach: SPEED, SINK RATE, BANK, PITCH?
Speed: -5 to +10kts SINK RATE: -1000fpm BANK: 7 degrees PITCH: -2.5 or +10 LOC & GLIDE: 1/2 a dot (ILS) X-TRACK: 0.1nm (RNP) ## Footnote FCOM>PRO>NOR>STANDARD CALLOUT>FLIGHT PARAMETERS
67
Flight parameters during RNP approach: LAT-DEV, VDEV, SINK, RATE, BANK?
Speed: -5 to +10kts SINK RATE: -1000fpm BANK: 30 degrees PITCH: -2.5 or +10 LDEV: 1/2 Dot VDEV: 1/2 Dot ## Footnote FCOM>PRO>NOR>STANDARD CALLOUT>FLIGHT PARAMETERS
68
What are the additional JSS visual approach criteria?
* The AP is not used * Both FDs are off * The use of FPV is recommended * The use of A/THR is recommended with managed speed
69
What are the JSS visual approach criteria by NIGHT?
70
What are the Class D speed limitations?
200 kts within 1nm of the airspace below 4500ft?
71
What are the dispatch weather conditions that require an alternate (Non-ETOPS)
Use ALTERNATE minima, based off available runway/approach * Greater than scattered cloud below cloud minima * Visibility below alternate minima
72
What are all the considerations to determine if you need to plan an alternate?
73
EDTO: What is the distance equivalent for ‘not greater than 60 minutes single engine diversion distance’? (A320, A321, A321neo) What category of airport must be inside this distance?
A320: 427nm A321ceo: 405nm A321neo:396nm From an adequate airport. | Calculated at OEI LRC
74
What is the minimum time limit from high thrust operations to shut-down?
3 Minutes.
75
Can you hand fly an RNP-AR?
Yes, under the following conditions: * Not IMC, Night or a Queenstown RNP-AR * Visual reference can be maintained * RNP-AR Lateral and vertical tolerances applied * Approach is coded to the runway threshold and is runway aligned * RNP 0.3nm is used * FD is used * The intention to hand fly should be included in the approach breifing
76
To avoid a high rate of closure on climb to an intermediate altitude, what should you reduce your ROC to, and within how many ft of the assigned altitude?
Less than 1000fpm, within 1000ft of the assigned altitude.
77
When must you declare a fuel emergency?
Crew shall declare ‘MAYDAY MAYDAY, MAYDAY FUEL’ when the predicted fuel available upon landing at the nearest aerodrome available for a safe landing will be less than planned fixed reserve. OM1 Section 12.10 Fuel Emergency
78
What is the window for COBT?
Pushback must commend within -5/+15mins of assigned COBT. (Departing Perth -5/+10mins) ## Footnote Jepps Pacific>ATC>State Rules and Procedures Australia>Flight Planning>Air Traffic Flow Management
79
If non-compliant early/late with COBT, what are the in-flight holding times?
Non-compliant flights will be allocated the next available slot time up to a maximum delay as follows: a. Early non-compliant – 60 min; or b. Late non-compliant – published traffic holding delay. ## Footnote Jepps Pacific>ATC>State Rules and Procedures Australia>Flight Planning>Air Traffic Flow Management
80
During the conduct of a visual departure, a pilot must what? (3 things)
81
What are the climb gradients for the four take-off segments?
From V1 to 35ft (or 15ft if wet) 35ft to Landing gear up.
82
If ATC give instructions for you to climb/descend to a particular level, how long do you have to commence the change of level?
****WIP**** You must change of level as soon as possible but not later than 1 minute after receiving that instruction from ATC, unless that instruction specifies a later time or place. Jepps Pacific>
83
How is LSALT calculated?
84
At what flight levels is RVSM conducted, and what vertical separation is provided?
FL290 to FL410. 1000ft separation
85
What are the wake turbulence times for following a super or a heavy?
**SUPER**: From the same holding point: 3 minutes Departure point > 150m down the same runway as preceding aircraft: 4 minutes **HEAVY**: From the same holding point: 2 minutes Departure point > 150m down the same runway as preceding aircraft: 3 minutes
86
What are the wake turbulence distances following a super and a heavy?
87
What obstacle clearance do the 10nm and 25nm MSA’s provide?
The 25 NM and 10 NM MSA provide 1000 ft obstacle clearance. ## Footnote Jepps Pacific>ATC>State Rules and Procedures Australia>Australia - Rules and Procedures>General
88
At a CTAF, when will the windsock light continuously flash to alert that the PAL lighting will extinguish?
10 minutes remaining. ## Footnote Jepps>Pacific Airway Manual>ATC>Australia-State Rules and Procedures>PAL
89
GS Mini is active whenever?
* Speed is managed * FMS is in the approach phase | *Ground Speed Mini does not correct Green Dot, S and F speeds* ## Footnote FCOM>DSC>22_30-60>Managed Speed/Mach>Ground Speed Mini Function
90
Can we accept a pilot waiver of wake turbulence separation?
Wake Turbulence Pilot Waivers are not to be sought or accepted under any circumstances. ## Footnote FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>GENERAL>Wake Turbulence Considerations.
91
If during pushback/tow the shear pin is broken, what action must be taken?
* A broken shear pin requires engineering inspection. * The Aircraft is not to be moved until engineering has completed an inspection and deemed the aircraft safe to taxi or to be towed. * The aircraft must then return to the bay for any further engineering inspections and a tech log entry is to be completed by the engineers before the aircraft can be released into service. ## Footnote FCOM>PRO>NOR>JSS>FLIGHT>PUSHBACK
92
When must you declare minimum fuel?
**Minimum Fuel** Crew shall advise ATC of a minimum fuel state by declaring ‘MINIMUM FUEL’ when, having committed to land at a specific aerodrome, any change to the existing clearance may result in landing with less than planned fixed reserve fuel. This declaration will not result in increased priority for landing, but indicates to ATC that an emergency situation could occur should there be any further delay. ## Footnote OM1 Section 12.10 Fuel Emergency
93
In cruise, if you require deviation (more than 5nm) from your current track due weather but cannot obtain a clearance from ATC in time, what can you do?
94
If fuel leaks onto the ground while refuelling/defuelling/due to a fuel leak, what constitutes a quantity large enough to create a fire hazard and contact the fire services?
95
The weather radar should be set so that what appears at the top of the screen? Ie. what kind of returns should you see at the top:
96
If a fuel spill occurs, what actions must the PIC take?
97
What is the max altitude recommended for assisted engine start in flight?
98
What is the procedure for an engine failure in the cruise?
99
In what order does the fuel burn from each tank?
100
What is the minimum fuel required for dispatch?
101
Explain ground speed mini?
102
What are the rough SGR’s/SAR’s for A320ceo
103
What are the wing tank fuel pumps fitted with, to ensure that when all pumps are running, the center tank pumps will deliver fuel preferentially?
104
How can the LP fuel valve be closed (2 ways)?
105
What are your actions in the event of a tailpipe fire?
106
During automatic refuelling, how is fuel loaded?
107
What height above/below is considered ‘on path’ for the weather radar?
108
In what conditions does the pack flow control valve automatically close? (4 possible conditions):
109
When will the pack flow automatically select HI flow?
110
What is the safety relief valve max/min PSI?
111
The cabin altitude pressure warning will go off at approximately what cabin altitude?
112
The EEC’s prevent the engine stabilising between what approximate % range N1 (The keep-out zone)?
113
What are Airbus’ golden rules?
1. Fly, Navigate, Communicate 2. Understand the FMA at all times 3. Use the appropriate level of automation at all times 4. if things aren't going as expected, take control 5.
114
There are two types of circuit breakers, green, and black. What is the difference?
115
What does the flight augmentation computer (FAC) control? (3 things)
116
What does a ‘pulsing’ indication on an ECAM SD page mean?
An ADVISORY level has been reached.
117
What do the two dots on certain PB lights on the overhead panel mean?
118
If you made the PA “Would the CM report to the flight deck immediately”, and there was no response, what button would you press?
119
If you had to use the secondary means of warning the cabin crew to resume their seats immediately, what button/switch would you use, and how many times?
120
If you had to use the secondary means of warning the cabin to brace, what button/switch would you use, and how many times?
121
Do the FWD/AFT cargo compartments have fire extinguishing systems, or just smoke detecting systems?
122
What do the SEC’s control?
123
At what speed do the ground spoilers become effective?
124
Which fuel tank supplies the APU, and how many kg would you expect to burn per hour?
Left inner, ......kg
125
What are the requirements for refuelling with passengers on board?
126
What may cause the fuel ‘LO LVL’ ECAM warning to be triggered on a steep descent?
127

JSS SOP (1 decks)

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