Livestock Respiratory Disease Flashcards

(339 cards)

1
Q

Why do ruminants develop SQ emphema, more easily that other species

A

1) Very few inter-alveolar pores, which normally allow for connection between alveoli and pressure equilibration.
2) Pressure can build up more easily
3) Rupture of alveoli and development of emphysematous bulla
4) Pneumomediastinum and air tract up the medaistinum to the dorsum to get SQ ephysema

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1
Q

Why do ruminants suffer from respiratory disease really rapidly

A

1) their lung is lobulated and they have a very minimal reserve capacity (unlike horses and dogs)

2) Histologically, very few inter-alveolar pores, which normally allow for connection between alveoli and pressure equilibration.
Pressure can build up more easily leading to pneumomediastinum and air tract up the medistinum to the dorsum to get SQ ephema

3) Hyper-reactive lungs - hypoxia, inflammatory, and histamine sensitive

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2
Q

What are ruminant lung hyper-reactive to

A

1) Hypoxia- pulmonary arterial constriction and subsequent pulmonary hypertension
2) Inflammatory process- macrophages and mast cells release mediators that cause disease to alveoli and interstitium
3) Histamine sensitive- significant histamine release

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3
Q

What occurs when there is degranulation of mast cells with anaphylaxis in ruminants

A

there is resulting bronchoconstriction and vasoconstriction
-resulting in pulmonary edema

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4
Q

How do chronic and acute respiratory disease in ruminants affect the rumen

A

there is decreased function of the rumen and the ability to eructate- resulting in gas bloat- distension on the rumen, pressure on diaphragm and pressure on the lungs

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5
Q

Why are the lungs smaller in ruminants

A

the rumen takes up the majority of the space
lungs are pushed cranial and smaller relative to other species

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6
Q

Ruminant lung anatomy

A

multiple lobes and within those there are lobules, which are differentiated by septal areas

Septal regions form a barrier to prevent expansion of bacterial bronchopneumonia into other areas of the lung -can have stark demarcation of disease and normal lung

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7
Q

What is significant about the ruminant lung anatomy and the distribution of bronchopneumonia

A

Septal regions form a barrier to prevent expansion of bacterial bronchopneumonia into other areas of the lung -can have stark demarcation of disease and normal lung

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8
Q

Maxillary sinuses in the ruminants

A

over the upper cheek teeth (premolars and molars)

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9
Q

What sinus connects to the cornual sinus in ruminants

A

the frontal sinus

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10
Q

What developmental condition of the upper respiratory tract is common in camelids

A

Choanal atresia

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11
Q

Choana

A

where the nasal passage opens into the nasopharynx

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12
Q

What are signs of upper respiratory disease in livestock

A

1) Nasal discharge- serous, mucopurulent
2) Sneeze
3) Cough
4) Stridor - intense musical breath sounds over upper airway, particularly the larynx, extrathroacic
5) Stertor- sonorous snoring breath sounds over the upper airway- extrathoracic
6) Decreased nasal airflow
7) Foul smelling breath
8) Facial asymmetry
9) Laryngeal swelling
10) Nasal hyperemia
11) Expanding cheeks on exhalation
11) Ocular discharge
12) Conjunctivitis
13) Respiratory distress
14) Salivation- minimally swallowing
15) Head shaking
16) Epistaxis
17) Fever
18) Quidding, dysphagia
19) Hypxemia

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13
Q

intense musical breath sounds over upper airway, particularly the larynx, extrathroacic

A

Stridor

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14
Q

sonorous snoring breath sounds over the upper airway- extrathoracic

A

Stertor

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15
Q

What are signs of lower respiratory disease in livestock

A

1) Fever
2) Cough
3) Abnormal breath sounds
4) Respiratory dyspnea- restrictive breathing pattern
5) Hemoptysis
6) SQ emphema
7) Hypoxemia
8) Bloat- inflammation of vagal nerve or enlargement of mediastinal LN putting pressure on esophagus and preventing normal eructation

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16
Q

Why do you see bloat of ruminants with lower respiratory disease

A

inflammation of vagal nerve or enlargement of mediastinal LN putting pressure on esophagus and preventing normal eructation

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17
Q

irritation and inflammation of mucous membrane inside the nose

A

rhinitis - clinical signs: sneezing, intense pruritis, nasal discharge *usually serous), stertor

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18
Q

What are common etiologies of rhinitis in cattle * know this

A

BHV-1 (IBR) *
BVDV *
PI-3 *
BRSV *
Coronavirus
MCF

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19
Q

What are clinical signs of cows with rhinitis

What about chronic*

A

sneezing, intense pruritis, nasal discharge *usually serous), stertor

chronic: lacrimation, blepharospasm, granuloma formation

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20
Q

What is Atopic rhinitis in cattle

A

allergic rhinitis
-acute, summer snuffles
-type I (IgE) allergic reaction
-older cattle
-Channel Island Breeds (Jersey, Guernsey) and Holsteins

signs: difficulty breathing, sneezing, stertor
nasal discharge (usually serous)
pruritis

chronically- develop into enzootic nasal granuloma

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21
Q

What cattle breeds do you see atopic rhinitis in?

A

Channel Island Breeds (Jersey, Guernsey) and Holsteins

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22
Q

What causes Atopic Rhinitis in cattle

A

Type I (IgE) allergic reaction

repeated exposures can lead to type IV

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23
Q

What causes acute summer snuffles in cattle

A

Atopic rhinitis- allergic rhinitis
caused by Type I (IgE) allergic reaction

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24
What is the pathogenesis of Atopic Rhinitis in cattle
1) Antibodies (IgE) to antigen produced 2) Subsequent exposures result in type I hypersensitivity reactions 3) Repeated exposures can lead to type IV
25
What are the clinical signs of atopic rhinitis in cattle
difficulty breathing, sneezing, stertor nasal discharge (usually serous) pruritis
26
What occurs if atopic rhinitis develops into chronically
Enzootic Nasal Granuloma -Chronic form -Firm raised white granulomatous nodules
27
When do you see enzootic Nasal granuloma in cattle
When atopic rhinitis develops chronically you see firm, rasied, white granulomatous nodules in the nasal passages
28
What are differential diagnosis for atopic rhinitis
-fungal -foreign body -tumor -irritant
29
How do you diagnose atopic rhinitis
-Endoscopy* -Culture (rule out) -Biopsy -Cytology (eosinophils)
30
How do you treat atopic rhinitis in cattle
-Remove allergen -Antihistamine- often not helpful -Corticosteroids - key treatment and useful. make sure they are not pregnant or they will abort *
31
What does fungal infection in the nasal passages of ruminants result in
delayed type IV hypersensitivity and nasal granuloma formation
32
Mycotic nasal granuloma in cows
Fungal infection leading to upper respiratory signs -Delayed Type IV hypersensitivty forming a granuloma Dx: endoscopy, biopsy, cytology, culute Treatment: Surgery, Sodium Iodide, Antifungals
33
How do you treat Mycotic Nasal Granuloma in cattle
Surgery Sodium iodide (IV) Antifungals - expensive and there is a withdrawal times (contact FARAD)
34
What causes sinusitis in livestock
-dehorning -tooth root infection (maxillary) -horn injury -respiratory disease -nasal tumor -actinomycosis (lumpy jaw) -sinus cyst -lymphosarcoma
35
What bacteria commonly cause sinusitis in livestock
Trueperella pyogenes Pasteurella multocida but any of the respiratory tract bacteria can cause it
36
What are the clinical signs of sinusitis in livestock
Acute: nasal discharge, fever, lethargy, anorexia, percusson Chronic: nasal discharge, percussion, stertor, stridor, foul odor - ozena and/or halitosis, bone distortion, exopthalmos, neurological signs, unusal head carriage
37
If there is dehorning injury or broken horn, where does the sinusitis develop
cornual sinus that connects with the frontal sinus
38
How do you diagnose sinusitis in cattle
Clinical signs Percussion Radiograph- soft tissue density over the area of the maxillary sinus Sinus centesis
39
How should you change your dehorning practices to prevent sinusitis
1) make sure you do not dehorn at later ages when the horn is communicating with the frontal sinus 2) Avoid dehorning in bad weather 3) Bandage for a prolonged time otherwise not a lot to prevent sinusitis (esp of maxillary)
40
How do you treat sinusitis in cattle
Trephination- drilling a hole into the sinus and then aspirating a sample to aid in diagnosis can use for culture .Submit for aerobic and anaerobic Aspiration Lavage Surgery Antibiotics- PPG (T. pyogenes) NSAIDs (flunixin meglumine or PO meloxicam) Tooth extraction
41
Upon trephination of a cattle with sinusitis you get a sample to culture. What culture do you order
aerobic and anaerobic (although mostly aerobic)
42
How do you treat sinusitis in a ruminant caused by T. pyogenes
PPG - but it needs to be given twice daily and at a large volume
43
What is critical for the treatment of maxillary sinusitis
tooth extraction - can sometimes remove tooth orally. otherwise may need to do a maxillary surgery to remove the tooth
44
making a hole from the exterior into the infected sinus to allow for drainage and lavage. Use of Steinmann pin, drill
Sinusotomy (Trephination)
45
What bacteria is usually associated with frontal sinusitis in livestock
Trueperella pyogenes secondary to dehorning Tx: Penicillin
46
What is the most common isolate with frontal sinusitis NOT associated with dehorning
Pasteurella multocida treat with penicillin or oxytetracycline
47
What should you treat pasteurella multocida caused frontal sinusitis in livestock
penicillin or oxytetracycline
48
oestrus ovis
nasal bots of sheep lifecycle: spring to early fall Signs: nasal discharge, sneezing, nose rubbing, stridor, stertor, decreased airflow (cheeks) treatment: Ivermectin
49
What is the lifecycle of oestrus ovis
spring to early fall 1) Adult deposits eggs on nostrils 2) Migrate to the sinuses and go through development 3) Mature larvae migrate back down and out nostril 4) Larvae is on the ground, pupates and turn into adult fly *Causes irration to the nasal pasages
50
How do you treat Oestrus ovis in sheep
Ivermectin
51
What is the nasal bot that occurs in llamas
Deer pharyngeal bot (Cephenemyia)
52
Deer pharyngeal bot (Cephenemyia)
nasal bot that occurs in llamas
53
What causes viral rhinitis in cattle ***
BHV-1 (IBR) * BVDV * PI-3 * BRSV * Coronavirus MCF
54
What causes ovine nasal adenocarcinoma
Retrovirus
55
Ovine nasal adenocarcinoma
Retrovirus Nasal signs- serous discharge, stridor/stertor, anorexia, inspiratory dyspnea, open mouth breathing, dilating/puffing out cheeks progressive, locally invasive, not metastatic starts unilateral but progresses to be bilateral
56
What is a primary sign of ovine nasal adenocarcinoma
inspiratory difficulty- some degree of open mouth breathing livestock prefer nasal breathing but if the force mouth closed you will see them pushing their cheeks out
57
What is the treatment on ovine nasal adenocarcinoma
no successful treatment for it clients may request surgery however ultimately it is locally invasive and there is no cure Can do endoscopy and biopsy to diagnose it
58
rhinitis and atrophy of turbinates seen in young pigs <3weeks Caused by Bordetella bronchiseptica and pasteurella multocida Signs: nasal discharge, sneeze, nose rubbing +/- mild cough, nose asymmetry
Porcine Atrophic Rhinitis
59
What causes porcine atrophic rhinitis
Bordetella bronchiseptica and pasteurella multocida
60
What age of pigs does atrophic rhinitis affect
Young pigs <3weeks
61
Bordetella bronchiseptica and pasteurella multocida cause
rhinitis and atrophy of the turbinates of piglets < 3 weeks of age
62
How do you treat/prevent for porcine atrophic rhinitis
1) ID and remove carriers animals 2) Vaccination (dams immunized so there is some colostral immunity) and vaccinate piglets starting at 1-2 weeks of age. antibiotics might not work
63
the location where embryologically as the nasal passage develops rostral to caudal and the pharynx develops caudal to rostral the two come together to meet
Choana
64
What species is choanal atresia common in
camelids - congenital condition
65
What are the clinical signs of camelids with choanal atresia
difficulty breathing, respiratory distress, open mouth breathing
66
What happens in crias with choanal atresia
crias will go to nurse and nurse vigorously and then because it is not breathing while nursing will pass out will begin to regain consciousness
67
How can you diagnose choanatal atresia
1) Endoscopy 2) Radiographs with contrast- sternal. you will see pooling of contrast in the caudal aspect of the nasal passage (cannot pass through) 3) Pass a catheter
68
How do you treat choanal atresia
surgical options- often unsuccessful better prognosis if just membranous choanal atresia- rather than bony as they grow, it remains close and they need a corrective surgery heritable so do not keep in the breeding pool
69
metastatic pneumonia in livestock
primary disease in other organ system (liver abscesses, jugular phlebitis, endocarditis (tricuspid valve), metritis, mastitis, foot rot hematogenous spread to the lung
70
What can lead to metastatic pnenumonia in cattle
primary disease in other organ system (liver abscesses, jugular phlebitis, endocarditis (tricuspid valve), metritis, mastitis, foot rot via hematogenous spread
71
What are typical causes of metastatic pneumonia in cattle
Fusobacterium necrophroum (Gram negative anaerobe) Trueperella pyogenes (gram positive anaerobe)
72
T/F: metastatic pneumonia is frequently fatal with sporadic occurence
True
73
caudal vena caval thrombosis
septic thromboemboli originate from an abscess at the hilus of the liver often starts in GI (rumen acidosis, rumenitis, abomasal ulcers) showering CVC leads to septic emboli within pulmonary abscessation Abscesses erode into bronchial wall and aneurysms can rupture into AW
74
Primary infection of the caudal venal caval thrombosis in ruminants is _________
often starts in GI (rumen acidosis, rumenitis, abomasal ulcers)
75
What is the clinical presentation of CVCT in ruminants
*Epistaxis, hemoptysis, anemia +/- dynpea 3 categories 1) Sudden death 2) Acute respiratory distress syndrome 3) Chronic bronchopneumonia
76
What are the 3 categories of clinical presentation of CVCT
1) Sudden death 2) Acute respiratory distress syndrome 3) Chronic bronchopneumonia
77
How do you control for CVCT
re-evaluate nutrition/feed management need to prevent rumen acidosis, ruminitis, and abomasal ulcers
78
How do you treat CVCT in ruminants
long term penicillin, supportive care poor prognosis
79
Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis in cattle
Extrinsic allergic alveolitis / Bovine Farmer's Lung Allergic response (Type I and IV) to dust, moldy hay, grain, plant matter -spores: thermophilic actinomycetes (Micropolyspora faeni) most common in dairy cows ( confined), outbreaks in winter clinical signs: decreased milk production, appetite, weight loss, coughing, crackles on thoracic auscultation Diagnosis: titers (exposure), identify fungi in feed treatment: glucocorticoids, improve hay management (bailing when dry), feed hay outside, improve ventilation
80
How do you treat hypersensitivity pneumonitis in cattle
glucocorticoids, improve hay management (bailing when dry), feed hay outside, improve ventilation
81
How do you diagnosis hypersensitivity pneumonitis in cattle
Diagnosis: titers (exposure)- uncommon, identify fungi in feed
82
What causes hypersensitivity pneumonitis in cattle
Allergic response (Type I and IV) to dust, moldy hay, grain, plant matter -spores: thermophilic actinomycetes (Micropolyspora faeni)
83
What is the major target organ in Type I hypersensitivity
the lung- shock organ
84
Clinical signs of anaphylaxis develop within
10-20 min
85
What are the clinical signs of anaphylaxis in cattle
often to vaccine, milk, drug (penicillin), insects, bee sting with signs onset of 10-20 minute severe acute dyspnea, flaring of nostrils, extension of head and neck, open mouth breathing, urticaria (hives), pharyngeal edema
86
How do you treat anaphylaxis (Type I) in ruminants
1) Epinephrine (1:1000)- life saving bronchodilation (B2 agonist) 2) Corticosteroids (not in pregnant animals)- antiinflamamtion and antiedema 3) Antihistamine 4) NSAIDs- milking out/drying off (if there is a milk allergy)
87
Acute/Atypical Interstitial Pneumonia (AIP)
commonly non-infectious secondary to inhalation or ingestion of toxin usually no clinical indication of sepsis abnormal peripheral lung sounds diffusely *Little response to antimicrobial therapy (toxin affect) Necropsy: -lungs fail to collapse when thorax opened -firm, rubbery texture with diffuse interlobular emphysema and pathcy interstitial edema -Histo: alveolar hyaline membrane, type II pneumocyte proliferation
88
What are the necropsy findings of cattle with Acute/ Atypical Interstitial Pneumonia (AIP)
-lungs fail to collapse when thorax opened -firm, rubbery texture with diffuse interlobular emphysema and pathcy interstitial edema -Histo: alveolar hyaline membrane, type II pneumocyte proliferation
89
How do you treat Acute/ Atypical Interstitial Pneumonia (AIP)
Little response to antimicrobial therapy (toxin affect)
90
What is the etiology of Acute/ Atypical Interstitial Pneumonia (AIP)
commonly non-infectious secondary to inhalation or ingestion of toxin usually no clinical indication of sepsis abnormal peripheral lung sounds diffusely
91
What is a severe clinical presentation of AIP in cattle
Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) sudden onset, severe dyspnea associated with gross and histological findings of AIP Oxygenation of arterial blood to fraction of oxygen in inspired air (PaO2/FiO2) is <400 Indicates poor oxygen echange (intersitial edema) Severe diseases fit into the AIP or ARDS category -Acute Bovine Pulmonary edema and emphysema (fog fever) -moldy sweet potato -perilla mint -feedlot AIP -other toxic plants, gases
92
Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) in cattle
sudden onset, severe dyspnea associated with gross and histological findings of AIP Oxygenation of arterial blood to fraction of oxygen in inspired air (PaO2/FiO2) is <400 Indicates poor oxygen echange (intersitial edema) Severe diseases fit into the AIP or ARDS category -Acute Bovine Pulmonary edema and emphysema (fog fever) -moldy sweet potato -perilla mint -feedlot AIP -other toxic plants, gases
93
What causes Acute Bovine Pulmonary Edema and Emphysema (ABPEE)
Fog fever- lush grass that is high in L-tryptophan Rumen converts to 3-methyllindole (3-MI) 3-MI is absorbed and circulated (pneumotoxic)- causes AIP
94
What are the clinical signs of Fog fever *
Develop within 2 weeks of pasture change -tachypnea, dyspnea, frothing at mouth *NO coughing mortality up to 30%
95
What produces 4-Ipomeanol
Fusarium solani 1) Ingestion of sweet potatoes infected with Fusarium solani (sweet potatoes are used as an energy source in beed cattle diets (palatable) 2) F. solani produces 4-ipomeanol which is a pneumotoxin 3) Develops AIP/ ARDS
96
What is the toxicity of Moldy Sweet Potato toxicity in cattle
Fusarium solani 1) Ingestion of sweet potatoes infected with Fusarium solani (sweet potatoes are used as an energy source in beed cattle diets (palatable) 2) F. solani produces 4-ipomeanol which is a pneumotoxin 3) Develops AIP/ ARDS
97
What are the clinical signs of Moldy Sweet potato toxicty (4-Ipomeanol)
Occur within 1 day of exposure -tachypnea, dyspnea, expiratory grunt, coughing*, harshlung sounds death 2-5 days after ingestion (high mortality)
98
T/F: Coughing is seen with 4-Ipomeanol toxicity *
True
99
T/F: Coughing is seen with 3-methylindole toxicity *
False
100
What are the causes of pharyngeal trauma and abscess in cattle
Causes: Trauma, Iatrogenic, Sharp Feed Bacteria: Trueperella pyogenes * F. necrophorum * Actinobacillus Pasteurella Strep E Coli
101
What are the clinical signs of pharyngeal trauma and abscess in cattle
Stertor, stridor respiratory distress salivation, quidding, dysphagia Nasal discharge, oful odor pharyngeal swelling +/- bloat +/- systemic signs
102
How do you diagnose pharyngeal trauma and abscess
-Signs -Oral exam under sedation (Xylazine, ket-stun) -Endoscopy -Radiographs -U/S -Needle Aspiration- if abscess submit for cytology and culture
103
How do you treat pharyngeal trauma and abscess in cattle
1) If there is an abscess then will want to drain and lavage - if deep make sure you dont go into jugular, carotid, or vagosympathetic trunk *Drain with needle 2) Antibiotics- PPG 3) Anti-inflammatory agents 4) +/- tracheotomy - if severe 5) +/- rumenotomy - if rumen bloat is so severe
104
a very common disease of calves that is a necrotic inflammatory process of the larynx
Necrotic Laryngitis/ Laryngeal Necrobacillosis/ Calf Diphtheria
105
What is the pathogenesis of necrotic laryngitis
Start by different factors 1) Viral upper respiratory infection- all the viruses discussed for viral rhinitis 2) Primary bacterial- F. necrophorum and T. pyogenes are associated (also M. haemolytica, Pasteurella and other respiratory) 3) Trauma/irritation from medication admin, feed, feeding too hot of mil
106
What are the clinical signs of necrotic laryngitis
-Excessive salivation (wet chin) -Moist painful cough -Fetid odor -Inappetance (painful to swallow) -Stertor/ Stridor -Respiratory distress -Swollen larynx
107
What are differentials for necrotic laryngitis
Trauma IBR Haemophuilus Oral abscess Pharyngeal paralysis Tumor
108
How do you treat Necrotic Laryngitis *
antimicrobials (penicillin, sulfa) anti-inflammatory drugs (IV flunixin meglumine and then switch to oral meloxicam) supportive care +/- tracheotomy use a low. stress weaning prevention: vaccination protocol and prevent trauma
109
What antibiotics work well fornecrotic laryngitis
Penicillin works well for necrotic laryngitis (but the downside is that it is a large volume injected and must be given twice a day) Sulfa antimicrobials also work well for this. Oxytetracycline works okay and NuFlor can also be used
110
Where are laryngeal abscesses commonly located on
arytenoid cartilage(s) trueperella pyogenes is most commonly
111
What is the most common bacterial cause of laryngeal abscesses in cattle
Trueperella pyogenes
112
What might cause a cause a lesion that looks like laryngeal abscess in cattle
congenital lesions of arytenoids
113
How do you treat laryngeal abscesses in cattle
1) Long term antibiotics 2) option for surgical therapy would be to do an arytenoidectomy or other airway surgery
114
laryngeal papillomatosis in cattle
Warts on the larynx due to Bovine Papilloma Virus (type 4) Feedlot Clinical Signs- respiratory distress, stertor, cough Diagnosis- oral exam, endoscopy Treatment- vaccination and surgery Diagnosis- oral exam and endoscopy treatment: vaccination and surgery
115
How do you treat laryngeal papillomatosis
generally these warts will resolve on their own, but they can cause problems for temporary period. vaccine might help increase rate of resoliton but need two doses 3 weeks apart Do surgery to debulk the wart Can give NSAIDS and may consider antimicrobial if there is evidence of necrosis to reduce the risk of secondary bacterial infection
116
What causes red nose
Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis (IBR) BHV-1
117
Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis
IBR (Rednose) caused by BHV-1 Multiple clinical syndromes (upper respiratory, lower respiratory, reproductive, and possibly neurologic) Diagnosis- nasal/nasopharyngeal swab (PCR or VI) Treatment: anti-inflammatory and antimicrobial for secondary bacterial infection Prevention: vaccination
118
How do you diagnose IBR
do a nasal or nasopharyngeal swab and submit it for PCR or virus isolation
119
What are the clinical signs of tracheal collapse in cattle
-Stridor- often loudest at the thoracic inlet (level of tracheal collapse) -Cough -Exercise intolerance -Respiratory distress
120
How do cattle get tracheal collapse
-Commonly acquired at birth due to trauma a) dystocia results in rib fracture (1st and 2nd) at the level of the tracheal inlet. Healing callus will put pressure on the trachea resulting in extraluminal tracheal collapse/ compression - Static collapse with both inspiratory or expiratory stridor b) Congenital tracheal collapse but this is quite rare (more common in calves)
121
How might dystocia result in tracheal collapse in cattle
dystocia results in rib fracture (1st and 2nd) at the level of the tracheal inlet. Healing callus will put pressure on the trachea resulting in extraluminal tracheal collapse/ compression - Static collapse with both inspiratory or expiratory stridor
122
Dystocia results in_________ (static or dynamic) tracheal collapse
Static tracheal collapse dystocia results in rib fracture (1st and 2nd) at the level of the tracheal inlet. Healing callus will put pressure on the trachea resulting in extraluminal tracheal collapse/ compression - Static collapse with both inspiratory or expiratory stridor
123
What does static tracheal collapse mean
it is staying collapsed regardless of inspiration/ exhalation example: rib fracture with dystocia/ traumatic birth
124
How do you diagnose tracheal collapse in cattle
Radiographs- dorsoventral collapse Endoscopy
125
How do you treat tracheal collapse in cattle
Surgical- prostehtic extraluminally around the trachea and suture the trachea to this device and pull the trachea open- not done very commonly, varied success with this surgical treatment Conservative Medical Therapy- NSAIDs, rest, antibiotics
126
What is the prognosis of tracheal collapse in cattle
good if they can breathe well enough to allow fractures to heal and the animal to grow go more conservative medical care
127
Tracheal Edema Syndrome (Acute Honker Syndrome)
Acute Honker Syndrome Southern feedlots inflammatory condition of the upper airways that results in edema and collapse of airways. believed to be caused by either irritants or allergens in sensitized animals results in obstructive breathing pattern with a long, slow, and deep inhalation Clinical signs: Sudden onset of respiratory distress Stertor, stridor Differentials: all other causes of partial obstruction TreatmentL antimicrobial, steroids, +/- tracheostomy
128
Where is acute honker syndrome typically
southern feedlots
129
What are the clinical signs of tracheal edema (honker) syndrome in cattle
Sudden (acute) onset of respiratory distress Stertor, stridor
130
inflammatory condition of the upper airways that results in edema and collapse of airways. believed to be caused by either irritants or allergens in sensitized animals occurs in southern feedlots
a Tracheal Edema Syndrome - Acute Honker Syndrome treat with antimicrobials, steroids, +/- tracheostomy
131
What happens when a cow with tracheal edema syndrome (acute honker syndrome) attempts to inhale
the tracheal tissue is pulled further into the lumen and the trachea collapses down these animals have an obstructive breathing pattern with a long, slow, deep inhalation
132
How do you treat tracheal edema syndrome (Acute Honker) in cattle
Generally NSAIDs dont really work well Treat with corticosteroids, often start with injectable dexamethasone and then oral prednisolone if there is an inflammatory component to it or suspicions of bacterial infection, then use antimicrobials
133
What is Chronic Polupoid Tracheitis
A tracheal edema syndrome that occurs at Western Feedlots Clinical signs are continuous dry, hacking nonproductive cough Differentials: pneumonia Diagnosis: history, clinical signs, endoscopy Treatment: none
134
Where is chronic polypoid tracheitis
Western Feedlots
135
What are the two tracheal edema syndromes of cattle
1) Acute Honker Syndrome- Southern feedlots and present with sudden onset of respiratory distress, stertor, stridor Treat with Corticosteroids (dexamethasone and then pred) 2) Chronic Polypoid Tracheitis- Western Feedlots, rpesent with continuous dry hacking nonproductive cough and have no treatment
136
What is the treatment for Chronic Polypoid tracheitis in cattle
there is not a lot to do for these cases
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How does colonization resistance occur
1) Direct microbe-microbe inhibition 2) Indirect stimulated host immunity Host epithelium also maintains mucociliary apparatus
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What is the pathogenesis of BRD
Multifactorial 1) Central dogma: immunocompromised host risk factors -> virus causes directi njury to mucociliary apparatus, tracheal epithelium, immunosuppression where the upper respiratory tract commensal overgrow leading in nasopharyngeal bacteria to invade lower airways 2) Expanded to have immunocompromised host, environment, risk factors and viral infection leads to a dysbiosis between URT and LRT Pathobionts dominate the niche leading to pathogenic behavior expression of virulence factors: leuktoxin, endotoxin
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pathobionts
commensal / mutualistic behavior colonization resistance where there is dysbiosis of URT and LRT leading to pathogenic behavior
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What are the risk factors for BRD
*Complex -Reduce host immunity (FPI and stress) -Genetics, sex -Viral infection -Group housing -Poor airquality -Dehydration -Weaning -Weather -Transport -Cominging -Nutritional deficiencies -Surgical procedures
141
What is the BRD epidemiology in the dairy industry
Preweaned calves (<56 days of age) endemic (up to 30% in most herds) differentiate between aspiration vs BRD Weaned calves (most common 2-5 months) enzootic calf pneumonia viral exposure, stress (mixing groups) Replacement heifers and cows: more commonly sporadic, metastatic
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What is enzootic calf pneumonia
BRD in calfs after being weaned (most common 2-5 months) due to viral exposure, stress (mixing of groups)
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What is the BRD epidemiology of beef cattle
1) Cow-calf: up to 10% pre=weaned calves (3-5 months) nadir of IgG, short calving interval leads to herd immunity low 2) Weaned Calves (shipping fever) transport from farm of origin to stocker/feedlot. Highest morbidity during 1st 21 days after arrival 3) Finishers (Feedlot) Cows: Sporadic outbreaks, interstitial pneumonia route out high altitidue pulmonary hypertension
144
When is the highest morbidity of BRD in weaned calves
during the 1st 21 days after arrival "Shipping fever"
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BRD in older animals (finishers in beef and replacement heifers/cows in dairy) is often
sporadic outbreaks
146
What is the epidemiology of cow-calf beef BRD
up to 10% pre-weaned calves (3-5 months) nadir of IgG short calving interval leading to low herd immunity
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What does the pathophysiology of BRD in the lungs depend on
dominant pathobiont and/or infectious agent and passive transfer status (IgG) innate immune system is stimulated through pattern recognition receptors (PRRs)- toll like receptors, neutrohphils, and alveolar macrophages pro-inflammatory cascade- increases oxidative host damage secondary invaders, opportunists- consolidation of airways, pulmonary abscess, pleuropneumonia
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Mannheimia hemolytica
Gram -, Aerobic Rod Normal nasopharyngeal inhabitant Dysbiosis allows for niche takeover by pathogenic serovars (A1, A6) and viral co-infection increases severity Virulence factors: leukotoxin: cytolysis of ruminant leukocytes endotoxin/LPS: pro-inflammatory (neutrophil chemostaxis) causes lobar pneumonia leading to necrotizing fibrinous pleuropneumonia peracute rapidly consolidating syndrome emerging antibiotic resistance of field strains
149
What are the virulence factors of Mannheimia hemolytica
Virulence factors: 1) leukotoxin: cytolysis of ruminant leukocytes 2) endotoxin/LPS: pro-inflammatory (neutrophil chemostaxis)- generates oxidative damage
150
What organism is commonly associated with shipping fever
Mannheimia hemolytica
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What are the pathogenic serovars of Mannheimia
A1 and A6
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Mannheimia hemolytica causes ______________
necrotizing lobar fibrinous pleuropneumona
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Pasteurella multocida (cattle)
Gram -, aerobic coccobacilli. Normal nasopharyngeal inhabitant (A 3 most commonly pathogenic) Opportunistic virulence factors: 1) Endotoxin (can lead to systemic endotoxemia/bacteremia) Pathology: purulent lobar bronchopneumonia, less likely fibrin and necrosis often dark red cranioventral lung consildation
154
T/F: unless there is a co-infection Pasteurella is not as severe in cattle as Mannheimia
True
155
What pathology does Pasteurella cause in cattle
purulent lobar bronchopneumonia, less likely fibrin and necrosis often dark red cranioventral lung consildation
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What bug is associated with endemic disease in groups of housed calves "enzootic pneumonia"
Pasteurella multocida
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Bibersteinia trehalosi (cattle)
Gram - aerobe Normal nasopharyngeal inhabitant (pathobiont) occasional opportunist in the lungs Similar to Mannheimia hemolytica as it causes sporadic outbreaks in feedlots Presentation: outbreaks with high mirtality, may lack clinical signs and lead to sudden death
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Histophilus somni (cattle)
Gram -, aerobic rod or coccobaccilus normal nasopharyngeal inhabitant that is and opportunisit in the lung and extrapulmonary sites* Virulence Factors (dictate systemic severity) 1) LOS: induce inflammatory cascade causing apoptosis of endothelial cells (vasculitis/ thrombosis) and induce IgE, histamine (hypersensitivity leading to increased permeability of bronchial epithelium) 2) Evasion of opsonization (outer membrane protein)
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**Know this: Histophilus somni is an opportunist. of the lung and ___________
extrapulmonary sites
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What are the virulence factors of Histophilus somni
opportunisit in the lung and extrapulmonary sites* Virulence Factors (dictate systemic severity) 1) LOS: induce inflammatory cascade causing apoptosis of endothelial cells (vasculitis/ thrombosis) and induce IgE, histamine (hypersensitivity leading to increased permeability of bronchial epithelium) 2) Evasion of opsonization (outer membrane protein)
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What are the extrapulmonary signs of Histophilus somni **
1) sepsis 2) thrombotic meningoencephalitis 3) Otitis 4) Mastitis 5) Polyarthritis 6) Myocarditis 7) Abortion 8) Endometritis *important pathology includes vascultis and thrombi
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What pathology does Histophilus cause *
Bronchopneumonia (common in feedlots_ Extrapulmonary sites: 1) sepsis 2) thrombotic meningoencephalitis 3) Otitis 4) Mastitis 5) Polyarthritis 6) Myocarditis 7) Abortion 8) Endometritis *important pathology includes vascultis and thrombi
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What BRD bacteria has extrapulmonary sites
Histophilus somni
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What is the significance of treating BRD infections with Mycoplasma bovis *
It is a facultative anaerobe with no cell wall. Will not respond to antibiotics that target cell wall
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Mycoplasma bovis/ dispar (cattle)
No cell wall, facultative anerobe (wont respond to antibiotics that target the cell wall) Primary pathogen or opportunist at pulmonary and extrapulmonary sites Virulence factors 1) Vsp A, B, C for immune evasion 2) Adhesins associated with virulence - to adhere to synovium or inner ear to persist longer times Pathology: fibrinosuppurative or caseonecrotic pneumonia, peribronchial lymphoid hyperplasia -cranioventral nodules that contain abscesses of coagulation necrosis -"cuffing pneumonia: lymphoid hyperplasia around the airways
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What pathology is seen with Mycoplasma bovis
fibrinosuppurative or caseonecrotic pneumonia, peribronchial lymphoid hyperplasia -cranioventral nodules that contain abscesses of coagulation necrosis -cuffing pneumonia: lymphoid hyperplasia around the airways
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What are the virulence factors of Mycoplasma bovis
1) Vsp A, B, C for immune evasion 2) Adhesins associated with virulence - to adhere to synovium or inner ear to persist longer times
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What pathogen should be high on your differential list if you cut through the bovine lung and see a lot of abscesses/ foci of coagulation necrosis
Mycoplasma bovis
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What are the clinical signs of Mycoplasma bovis
Pneumonia Otitis (preweaned calves) Arthritis Tenosynovitis (weaned calves) other signs: mastitis, conjunctivits, myocarditis, pericarditis, abortion Important transmission route: milk and colostrum
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What is an important transmission route of Mycoplasma bovis? *
Milk and colostrum
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Trueperella pyogenes
gram + anaerobic coccobacillus opportunistic pathogen secondary or tertiary invader (co-infection is common) Indicator of chronicity is pulmonary abscess Virulence factor: Pyolysin: cytolytic toxin that aids in adherence
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What bacteria of BRD is gram +
Trueperella pyogenes
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T/F: Trueperella causes acute cases of BRD
False- it is often a secodnary or tertiary invader (co-infection is common)
174
What bacteria are associated with the BRD complex
1) Mannheimia hemolytica 2) Bibersteinia trehalosi 3) Pasteurella multocida 4) Trueperella pyogenes 5) Histophilus somni 6) Mycoplasma bovis
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What is the pathogenesis of BHV-1 causing bronchopneumonia
1) Direct contact/ aerosol 2) Surface glycoproteins allow for host attachment and cause direct injury to epithelial cells and immunosuppresion (decrease MHC 1 expression) 3) facilitates binidng of leukotoxin (Mannheimia hemolytica) 4) Latency related transcript allows for survival of infected cells beyond message of apoptosis and latency is important for spread (recurdescence from ganglia)
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BHV-1 causes direct immunosuppression by __________ which allows ____________
decrease MHC class 1 expression facilitates binding of leukotoxin (Mannheimia hemolytica)
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What bacteria is associated with viral infection of BHV-1
Mannheimia hemolytica
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What is the prognosis of BHV-1 primary respiratory disease
HIgh morbidity- common in feedlots of weaned steers low mortality unless co-infection (Mannheimia hemolytica)
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What is the pathogenesis of Bovine Respiratory Syncytial Virus (BRSV)
1) Direct contact, aerosl 2) G glycoprotein induces attachment 3) Epithelial cells fuse forming multinucleated cells, syncytia 4) Suppress function of macrophages 5) Develop atypical interstitial pneumonia (emphysema, bullae)
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What does BRSV cause
it causes epithelial cells to fuse (multinucleated cells, synctia) causes an atypical interstitial pneumonia
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What is the virulence associated with BRSV *
BRSV-specific IgE (mast cell degranulation and eosinophil influx) - vaccine induced disease? Lymph node infection (tracheobronchial, mediastinal) may allow for persistance
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Why might a herd with BRSV have reaction to vaccination
BRSV-specific IgE (mast cell degranulation and eosinophil influx) - vaccine induced disease?
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BRSV most commonly infects
Calves <6months of age presentation often acute and confined to respiratory tract
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How do cows with BRSV typically present
Calves <6months of age presentation often acute and confined to respiratory tract Peracute presentation (severe dyspnea) -Hypersensitivity (immune mediated) -Pneumothorax (ruptured bullae)
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What is the pathogenesis of Parainfluenza Virus Type 3 (PI-3) in cattle
1) direct ocntact, aerosol 2) Direct injury to ciliated epithelial cells, mucus layer, mucociliary apparatus 3) Infection of alveolar macrophages (decreased finction) Causes immunosupression that predisposes to secondary invader
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PI-3 in cattle causes
immunosupression that predisposes to secondary invader via infecting epithelial cells, mucus layer and mucociliary apparatus infect the alveolar macrophage and decrease function *Disease is often mild/subclinical unless secondary bacterial infection
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How does BVDV affect the respiratory tract
impairs host immunity and associated with outbreaks of BRD coinfections with Mannheum, Mycoplasma bocis, and BRSV
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What a viruses that are associated with BRD
1) BHV-1 * 2) BRSB * 3) PI-3 * 4) BVDV 5) Bovine coronavirus 6) Influenza D 7) Bovine Reovirus 8) Bovine Rhinovirus 9) Adenovirus
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How do you prevent BRD
1) Colostrum management (quality and quantity) * 2) Ventilation (group housing), shelter (weather protection) 3) Nutrition (volume and quality) 4) Transport management (water access) 5) Reduce stress and reduce mixing in vulnerable age groups ** 6) Herd surveillance, Treatment approach * 7) Vaccination, Herd immunity
190
What is important regarding the vaccination timing of cattle for BRD prevention
MLV vaccine may have lower evidence -Stress is immunosuppressive and leads to poor vaccianre response -Maternal inference is no no -Preconditioning: administration of vaccine prior to weaning -Any vacine given at arrival period leads to a suboptimal response
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What are the two major risk factors in dairy and beef that contribute to BRD
1) Inadequate colostrum 2) Host immunity are major factors
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What MLV vaccine has the most evidence for reducing BRD i nweaned beef cattle *
BVDB- superior to killed vaccines
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What signalment and history best describes cattle at high risk for BRD? A) 8 month Angus steer on a feedlot that arrived 6 weeks ago B) 21 day old Holstein Heifer calf housed indoors within group pens C) 2yo Holstein first lactation heifer that freshened 10 days ago D) 6month old Hereford steer that was weaned 5 days ago E) both B and D F) Both A and D G) All of the above
Both B and D A) Feedlot is a risk but 6 weeks is beyond the time where BRD is typically developed (within the first 3 weeks of arriving) B) is correct because 3 weeks is within the early pre-weaned range and also in a group pen which increases C) Stress from first lactation but outside the common range- would have been more D) Is correct because of weaning
194
A gram positve associated with BRD, commonly a secondary or tertiary invader has pyolysin *
Trueperella pyogenes
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A gram negative associated with BRD has leukotoxin* and endotoxin associated with viral co-infections and causes shipping fever
Mannheimia hemolytica (A1 and A6)
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A gram negative associated with BRD, has endotoxin and causes enzootic calf pneumonia
Pasterella multocida (A3)
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What strain of Pasteurella is pathogenic in cattle
A3
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A gram negative associated with sporadic feedlot outbreaks
Bibersteinia trehalosi
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A gram negative that is associated with BRD has LOS, IgE and causes apoptosis of endothelial cells leading to vasculitis and extrapulmonary disease
Histophilus somni
200
What are challenges with diagnosing BRS
-Imprecise case definitions- interpreting sequencing data requires an accurate phenotype -thoracic auscultation may be sensitize -Anatomic localization (URT and LRT) -Clinical vs subclinical- does subclinical warrant treatment (judicious use of antimicrobials)
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What is DART
A herd surveillance technique used in cattle for BRD -Depression -Appetite Loss -Respiratroy character change -Temperature elevation Low sensitivity (higher risk of false negative) High specificity
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How do you detect pathogens associated with BRD
-Nasal swabs (least ideal for bacteria) Deep nasopharyngeal swabs - are better for bacteria but still challenging to interpret because it is polymicrobial -Transtracheal wash/ aspirate - not as practical for cattle -Bronchoalveolar lavage fluid (non-endoscopic is typically used or endoscopic)
203
Deep Nasopharyngeal Swabs used for BRD
captures respiratory and associated lymphoid epithelium of nasopharynx High risk for contamination- double guarded and cleaned nares to reduce this Aerobic culute: often polymicrobial and challenging to determine antibioitc plan Mycoplasma is good at getting a single positive for culture young calves and small ruminants, placement in ventral nasal meatus is challenging
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When is lower airway sampling (Transtracheal wash and BALF) contraindicated in livestock *
If the animals a dyspneic
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What are potential complications of doing transtracheal wash or BALF in livestock
Subcutaneous emphysema Wound infection Tracheal tear Dyspnea (inadequate fluid return)
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What is important when doing sample analysis of BRD pertaining to Mycoplasma bovis
It needs to be cultured in very specific condition PCR is more sensitive
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A 3 week old pre-weaned dairy calf with a cough reduced milk consumption and a head tilit. On lung ultrasound you find lobar consolidation. The producer is concerned about BRD in their calves and would like you to definitively diagnose a pathogen to determine an optimal treatment protocol A) Nasal swab: submit for Mycoplasma culture and mutiplex viral PCR B) Deep nasopharyngeal swab: submit for Mycoplasma PCR C) Bronchoalveolar lavage fluidL submit for aerobic culture and anaerobic culture D) Deep nasopharyngeal swab: submit for aerobic culture, anaerobic culture and multiplex viral PCR
B) Deep nasopharyngeal swab: submit for Mycoplasma PCR nasal swab is not good multiplex viral PCR wont tell you given dairy signalment likely mycoplasma is playing a role. needs to be specific culture or PCR some evidence BRD but some extrapulmonary disease evidence
208
What should you treat Mycoplasma bovis with **
Macrolides, florfenicol, tetracyclines labeled -NO cell wall (beta lactams are ineffective)
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What increases the clinical severity of BRD
Co-infection of viral and bacterial agents ie. BHV-1 and Mannheimia hemolyticum
210
What best approximates lung bacterial overgrowth in cattle
Nasopharyngeal and lower airway sampling
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What is important transmssion route of Mycoplasma bovis *
milk and colostrum clinical signs: pneumonia, otitis (preweaned calves), arthritis, tenosynovitis
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When do outbreaks of bronchopneumonia occur in small ruminants
SPring: lambs 2 weeks to 2 months of age- severe weather Fall outbreaks- lambs, 5-7 months with the arrival at feedlots
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What is the pathogenesis of bronchopneumonia in small ruminants
Stress diminishes lung's natural defense mechanism leading to enhances in viral infections, dysbiosis of respiratory microbiome\ common stressors: FPI, transport, overcrowding, parasitism, social changes, poor nutrition, weather, diet change, dust and mold exposure
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Clinical signs of small ruminants with bronchopneumonia
-Separation from herd -lethargy -exericse intolerance -inappetance -Increased respiratory rate or effort -cough -poor body condition physical exam findings: acute respiratory disease- fever, tacypnea, nasal +/- ocular discharge chronic or progressive: weight loss, cough, tachypnea
215
What are the most common respiratory bacterial pathogens in small ruminants
1) Mannheimia hemolytica (A2) - different strain from cattle, coinfections (bacterial, viral) 2) Pasteurella (D,F): pneumonia, sepsis, arthritis, otitis, mastitis, with coifnections (bacterial, viral) 3) Bubersteinia trehalosi - more common in sheep 4) Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis- caseous lymphadenitis (chronic abscess)- internal/ visceral and external form 5) Mycoplasma spp M. ovipneumonia (sheep) causes enzootic/atypical pneumonia M mycoides and capricolum (high morbidity, low mortality, coinfections inccreases mortality, extrapulmonary disease (arthritis, mastitis, septicemia)
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How do you treat sheep and goat bronchopneumonia
Antimicrobial -Ceftiofur sodium* or others -NSAID -Nursing care Contro: vaccination- sheep and goats up to 6 months of age, improves management practices, limit stress, provide high quality diet, quarantine new arrivals, isolate isck animals
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What is the only FDA approved drug for treating pneumonia in goat
Ceftiofur sodium
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What causes pigeon fever in horses
Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
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chronic disease of sheep and goats (rarely in camelids)- no cure pyogranulomatous abscesses in lymph nodes and internal organs highly contagious resistant in environment zoonotic- consuming infected, unpasteurized milk, contaminated equipment, infected pus in abdrasions
Caseous lmyphadentis (Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis)
220
What are common sites for caseous lymphadenitis
Lymph nodes: mandibular parotid prescapular preforma
221
What species does caseous lymphadenitis infect
sheep and goats (rarely in cameids)
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How do you diagnose caseous lymphadenitis
Culture
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How do you control for caseous lymphadenitis in small ruminants
biosecurity is key- purchase animals from known negative herds and flocks, prevent spread on fomites like shearing equipement testi incoming animals- know limitx of test and possibility of negative SHI test Vaccination: may help reduce incidence in herd and # abscesses per animals Treatment: surgical removal of infected LNs, lance and drain, cull known + animals
224
What are the treatments for caseous lymphadenitis
surgical removal of infected LNs, lance and drain, cull known + animals
225
what are causes of viral pneumonia in small ruminants
Secondary Risk factor Parainfleunza Type 3 Adenovirus Respiratoy Syncytila Virus Herpes virus Major viral pathogens: lentiviurses -Ovine progressive pneumonia (OPP)/ Maedi-Visna -Ovine Pulmonary adenocarcinoma/ jaagsiekte -Caprine Arthritis Encephalitis Virus (CAEV)
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What are major viral pathogens causing direct pulmonary disease in small ruminants
Lentiviruses 1) Ovine progressive pneumonia (OPP)/ Maedi-Visna 2) Ovine Pulmonary adenocarcinoma/ jaagsiekte 3) Caprine Arthritis Encephalitis Virus (CAEV) *Lentiviruses so they have persistent infections
227
infects goats and sheep progressive, debilitating disease with no treatment horizontal and perinatal spread (colostrum and milk) World wide distribution High seroprevalence within the US
Caprine Arthritis Encephalitis Virus (CAEV)
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Caprine Arthritis Encephalitis Virus (CAEV) causes
-Leukoencephalomyelitis (neonates) -Arthritis (carpal joints) -Mastitis -Chronic pneumonia: interstitial pathogenesis (type II pneumocyte proliferation) -Chronic encephalomyeltiis
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How do you diagnose CAEV
-Screening: lung ultrasound/ CXR -ELISA: blood and milk -PCR: BALF/Lung, blood, synovial fluid/ tissue, brain
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T/F: caseous lymphadenitis is highly contagious and zoonotic
True Zoonotic- consuming infected, unpasteurized milk, contaminated equipment, infected pus in abrasions
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External form of caseous lymphadenitis
more common in goats external lymph nodes commonly on neck and throat Signs: swelling associated with lymph nodes Diagnosis: Culture Be careful as the pus is loaded with bacteria and highly contagious
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What is the visceral or internal form of caseous lymphadenitis
-More common in sheep mediastinal and mesenteric lymph nodes, lungs, liver, kidney, CNS Clinical signs: progressie weight loss, exercise intolerance, tachypnea, dyspnea, chronic cough
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What form of caseous lymphadenitis is more common in sheep
Visceral or internal form mediastinal and mesenteric lymph nodes, lungs, liver, kidney, CNS Clinical signs: progressie weight loss, exercise intolerance, tachypnea, dyspnea, chronic cough
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What form of caseous lymphadenitis is more common in goats
External form external lymph nodes commonly on neck and throat Signs: swelling associated with lymph nodes Diagnosis: Culture Be careful as the pus is loaded with bacteria and highly contagious *Culture pus
235
How do you do diagnostics for CL
External form: Culture pus Visceral form: Radiograph thorax for abscess + cultue/PCR TTW fluid- failure to isolate CL from TTA fluid does NOT rule out CL Asymptomatic animals: Do a synergistic hemolysis inhibition (SHI test) False negatives are possible, a low titer does NOT rule out disease theoretically, lower tier = exposure vs higher titer= infection
236
When do you perform Syngeristic hemolysis inhibition (SHI test)
Asymptomatic animals with CL False negatives are possible, a low titer does NOT rule out disease theoretically, lower tier = exposure vs higher titer= infection
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What are the downsides to doing Syngeristic hemolysis inhibition (SHI test) for CL
False negatives are possible, a low titer does NOT rule out disease theoretically, lower tier = exposure vs higher titer= infection
238
How do you control for CAEV
1) Prevent infection in neonates -Separate newborns from dams -Feed only virus free colostrum and milk 2) Prevent horizontal spread- test regularly and cull positive animaals 3) Prevent introduction to the herd -Isolate and test all newly purchased animal -SR lentivirus or SR biosecurity panel
239
How is CAEV spread?
Horizontal and perinatal spread (colostrum and milk)
240
What causes ovine progressive pneumonia (OPP)
Maedi-Visna Virus
241
How is OPP spread
Horizontal and perinatal spread (colostrum and milk)
242
Ovine Progressive Pneumonia (OPP)
Maedi-Visna Virus Infects sheep primarily horizontal and perinatal spread- colostrum and milk Cross species transmission to goats is possible via infected milk and colostrum 25-30% of infected animals will exhibit clinical signs (4-5 years) Clinical signs: interstitial pneumonia, wasting, mastitis, arthritis, neurological signs
243
T/F: Transmission of ovine progressive pneumonia can be spread to goats
True- Cross species transmission to goats is possible via infected milk and colostrum
244
What are the clinical signs of Ovine Progressive Pneumonia
Rapid progression over 1 year interstitial pneumonia, wasting, mastitis, arthritis, neurological signs
245
How do you diagnose OPP
Screening: Lung ultrasound/ CXR ELISA: Seroconversion may take weeks to 1 year, maternal antibodies may interfere, low-cost screening on milk PCR: Milk, BALF, lymph node
246
HOw do you treat/ control OPP
no treatment -most animals die within 1 year of signs No vaccine available difficult to eradicate once in herd- test and cull is expensive and impractical prevention is best- strict biosecurity: isolation and testing, dont share rams, segregate animals at shows, purchase animals from known OPP-free flocks
247
What causes OVine Pulmonary Adenocarcinoma
Jaagsiekte Sheep Retrovirus (JSRV) or Pulmonary Adenomatosis Virus
248
How is Ovine Pulmonary Adenocarcinoma Spread *
Via respiratory ecretions (ie Nasal secretion) also shed in milk and colostrum but vertical transmission is unlikely
249
How do you treat ovine pulmonary adenocarcinoma
no effective diagnostic for subclinical no vaccination no treatment *May cause fatal neoplasia (1-5%)
250
What animals are suscpetible to JSRV
young lambs tumors develop over months to years and cause progressive emaciation, respiratory compromise when lead is lowered (Wheelbarrow test)
251
pleuritis and pleural effusions in camelids can be secondary to
Overhydration
252
What might cause pleuritis and pleural effusion in livestock
1) Bronchopneumonia (Histophilus, Manheimia) * 2) Traumatic reticulopleuritis 3) Camelid Strep zoo. (Alpaca fever) 4) Neoplasia 5) Pulmonary hypertension * 6) Overhydration in camelids
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T/F: pleuritis and pleural effusions is painful
True
254
What are clinical signs of pleuritis and pleural effusions in cattle
-Signs of pneumonia -Thoracic pain: reluctance to move, abducted elbows, grunting, groaning, bruxism, decreased chest excursion, abdominal breathing -Decreased ventral breath sounds- fluid line -Ventral dullness on thoracic percussion -Friction rubs
255
What test hsould you do to confirm a cow is painful do to pleural effusion and pleuritis
Withers test
256
How do you diagnose pleuritis and pleural effusions in cattle *
Ultrasound- pleural effusion +/- lung consolidation Radiographs Thoracocentesis with cytology +/- culture CBC/CP: left shift with hypergammaglobulinemia
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How do you diagnose JSRV
PCR on blood, nasal secretions, BALF
258
What do you see with JSRV
young lambs - spread with nasal secretions tumors develop over months to years and cause progressive emaciation, respiratory compromise when lead is lowered (Wheelbarrow test) diagnosis: PCR ob blood, nasal secretions, BALF
259
How do you treat pleuritis and pleural effusions in cattle
-Appropriate antimicrobials -Anti-inflammatory -+/- Drainage -caution because endotoxemia
260
Why should you be careful draining pleural effusion in cattle
As you are draining it out, likely to leak out around needle endotoxemia If it is clear fluid, you can possibly just drain it
261
What might cause pneumothorax in cattle
1) Rupture of emphysematous bullae -BRSV -AIP, 3-Methyl Indole -Lungworm -Metastatic pneumonia 2) Rib fracture and puncture of lung - dystocia 3) Laryngeal/ pharyngeal trauma - balling gun 4) other trauma *Usually unilateral (complete mediastinum)
262
Why is pneumothorax typically unilateral in ruminants
because ruminants have a complete mediastinum *
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How do you diagnose pneumothorax in cattle
-Thoracic auscultation -Thoracic percussion -Ultrasoun (Gap between visceral and parietal pleura with no glide signs) -Radiographs
264
How do you treat pneumothorax in cattle
-Thoracocentesis and suction -Closure of opening, if applicable -Maintenance of negative intrathoracic pressure
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Pneumothorax causes *
Inspiratory effort dyspnea
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Pulmonary edema in cattle is most commonly secondary to ___________ *
*Hypoproteinemia -Protein loss from kidney or GI tract -Cachexia, cardiac -Fluid overload
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What are clinical signs of pulmonary edema in cattle
Dyspnea with crackles head extension tachypnea obtundation abscence of fever +.- recumbency
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Causes of pulmonary edema in cattle
1) Hypoproteinemia: Protein loss from kidney or GI tract 2) Cachexia, cardiac 3) Fluid overload 4) Pneumonia 5) Toxic gases 6) Ehrlichia ruminantum
269
How do you treat pulmonary edema in cattle
-Reduce or stop fluids -Diuretics (furosemide) -Administer colloids if hypoproteinemic -Intranasal oxygen -Limit handing asm uch as possible -Dexamethasone may be beneficial
270
What bacteria may be associated with left ventricular failure and pulmonary edema in cattle
Histophilus somni or Ionophore toxicity
271
How might cattle get diaphragmatic hernia ******
1) Congenital 2) Acquired (most common) via dystocia associated with backwards or breech presentation or others (truma, hadware disease- reticulum)
272
How can dystocia lead to a diaphragmatic hernia in cattle **
Backwards or breech presentation- sternum gets pulled and tearing of the diaphragm
273
What is the most common cause of diaphragmatic hernia in cattle
Dystocia associated with backwards or breech presentation
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How do you diagnose diaphragmatic hernias in cattle
Radiographs* +/- barium Ultrasound
275
Calves with diaphragmatic hernia are often treated for
Septicemia but it is unresponsive only treatment is surgical closure (valuable animals only)
276
What are the clinical signs of diaphragmatic hernia in calves
vague signs most commonly related to GI signs not repsiratory many falsely get treated for GI diseases but diaphragmatic hernia should always be on your list for a dystocia calf
277
What might be occurring if it appears that a ruminant is "vomiting"
Megaesophagus - can lead to aspiration pneumonia can be secondary to Vitamin E deficiency
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What might cause megaesophagus in ruminants
Vitamin E deficiency can lead to megesophagus
279
thymoma (livestock)
Occur in sheep and goats -often asymptomatic, dynpnea, nuffled lung sounds, +/- congestive heart failure, +/- rumen tympany, +/- megaesophagus Dx: Radiographs, Ultrasounds
280
Cutaneous Paraneoplastic Syndrome *
Adenocarcinoma of the Thymus leading to chronic skin disease, weight loss and pruritus
281
How might an animal have chronic skin disease from neoplasia *
Adenocarcinoma of the thymus Cutaneous paraneoplastic syndrome need to take the chest film
282
What cancers may cause cutaenous paraneoplastic syndrome *
Adenocarcinoma of the thymus * other differentials: adenocarcinoma, chemodectoma, thymoma
283
What should you recommend for an animal with extensive dermatological workups that is idiopathic*
take a radiograph could be cutaneous paraneoplastic syndrome
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What might cause thymomas in cattle
Iodine deficiencies
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Where does bovine cardiac lymphoma typically occur
right atrium
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What are common sites of Bovine Leukemia Virus
Heart Uterus Lymph node Abomasum are the most common sites for enzootic lymphoma in cattle
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How do you diagnose Bovine Cardiac Lymphoma
ultrasound to detect pericardial effusion and possible right atrial mass pericardiocentesis with fluid analysis -> lymphocytes BLV serology test
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What is one of the most common areas affected by bovine leukosis
the spinal cord
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What might cause diaphragmatic paralysis in camelids
Suspected degeneration or trauma to the phrenic nerve Etiologies: Vitamin E deficiency, aberrant parasite migration, trauma to cervical spinal cord or thorax, nearby abscess or tumor
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How do you diagnose Diaphragmatic paralysis
Radiographs or Fluroscopy *a must to diagnose the problem
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What is the pathogenesis of caudal vena caval thrombosis (CVCT)
1) Septic thromboemboli orginate from an abscess at the hilus of the liver - primary infection often starts in GI from rumen acidosis or rumenitis) 2) Showering CVC leads to septic emboli within the pulmonary circulation 3) Abscesses erode into bronchial wall and aneurysm can rupture into AW
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How do you treat CVCT in cattle
long term penicillin, supportive care
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What are the most common clinical presentation of CVCT
*Epistaxis, hemoptysis, anemia +/- dyspnea/tachypnea
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Hypersensitivity pneumonitis in cattle is a type ______ reaction to dust, moldy hay, grain, and plant matter associated to the spores of __________
Type I and IV Thermophilic actinomycetes (Micropolyspora faeni)
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Spores of what is associated to allergic response, causing Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis in cattle *
Thermophilic actinomycetes (Micropolyspora faeni)
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Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis is most common in what kind of cow
Dairy cows (confined) signs: decreased milk production, appetite, weight loss, coughing, crackles on thoracic auscultation
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How do you diagnose hypersensitivity pneumonitis in cattle
Titers for exposure, identify fungi in feed -Thermophilic actinomycetes (Micropolyspora faeni)
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Anaphylaxis in cattle is a Type _______ hypersenitivity reaction to ________
Type I vaccine, milk, drug (penicillin), insects, bee sting
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Milk allergy in cattle
auto-allergy Type I hypersensitivity common in Jersey, Guernsey, Shorthorn Risk factor: change in milking routine Urticaria, tachypnea, tachycardia, watery diarrhea, dyspnea
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What breeds of cattle have an autoallergy to milk
Jersey, Guernsey, Shorthorn
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T/F: Acute/Atypical intersitital Pneumonia (AIP) in cattle is treated with antimicrobials
false- little respopnse to antimicrobials this is commony non-infectious, secondary to inhalation or ingestion of toxin
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What causes Acute/Atypical intersitital Pneumonia (AIP) in cattle
this is commonly non-infectious, secondary to inhalation or ingestion of toxin
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What causes Acute/Atypical Interstitial Pneumonia (AIP) and Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) in cattle characterized by severely acute interstitial edema and poor oxygenation
1) Acute Bovine Pulmonary Edema and Emphysema (fog fever) 2) Mold sweet potatio (R-ipomeanol) toxicity 3) Perilla mint toxicity 4) Feedlot AIP Other toxic plants and gases
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Cattle in ARDS have a PaO2/FiO2 of _______
<400
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What is the pathogenesis of ARDS associated with lush pasture
1) Adult cattle >2 years old eat lush pasture that is high in L-tryptophan 2) Rumen converts to 3-methylindole (3-MI) 3) 3-MI is absorbed and circulated and causes AIP as it is pneumotoxic 4) Clinical signs seen within 2 weeks of pasture change: tachypnea, dyspnea, frothing at mouth, no coughing*
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How do you treat/ prevent fog fever
move pasture, suportive care (NSAID/steroid) furosemide for intersitital edema gradual pasture introduction feed ionophores (monensin)
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Are clinical signs of 3-methylindole or 4-ipomeanol seen sooner?
4-IP: seen within 1 day of exposure while 3-MI is within 2 weeks of the pasture change
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Perilla frutescens toxicity
associated with perilla mint, purple mint, wild coleus, beefsteak plant -oils contain pneumotoxin similar to 4-IP Common in the southeast (Aug-Oct- seed and flower stage) Pathogenesis is similar to fog fever and moldy sweet potato toxicity Clinical signs: sudden death, ARDS
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What is Feedlot Acute/ Atypical Interstitial pneumonia
Cause is unknown but possible feed assocated pnemotoxin- BRSV? cattle on feed more than 60 days following arrival a feedlot -summer and fall -more common in heifers -high mortality Clinical presentation -rapid onset of dypsnea -tachypnea -cyanosis -subcutaneous emphysema *Inophores (monensin) ineffective
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Feedlot Acute/ Atypical Interstitial pneumonia affects cattle that *
are on feed more than 60 days following arrival at feedlot
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What causes Feedlot Acute/ Atypical Interstitial pneumonia
Cause is unknown but possible feed assocated pnemotoxin- BRSV?
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T/F: Ionophores (monensin) is effective in treating/preventing Feedlot Acute/ Atypical Interstitial pneumonia
False
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T/F: Inophore (monensin) is effective in treating/preventing Fog Fever
True
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What are toxic gases that affect cattle
-Nitrogen dioxide in silo gas -Zinc oxide (welding) -Manure gas (hydrogen sulfide, ammonia, CO2, CO, methane -Smoke inhalation -Chlorine Clinical signs consistent with ARDs Treatment: move to a ventilated area, supportive care (furosemide, anti-inflammatories/ steroids)
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What is the lifecycle of lungworms that cause parasitic bronchitis and pneumonia in cattle *
1) Eggs from L5 mature worms are coughed up from lungs and swallowed 2) Hatch within the GIT 3) Shed as L1 in feces 4) L1 molts 2x to become ineffective L3 5) L3 penetrates GIT and enters lymph nodes (molts to L4) 6) L4 travels to lungs in lymph/blood and incite eosinophilic exudate that blocks airways 7) L5 move to larger airways (tracheitis) clinical signs: graudal progressive cough with possible complications of pulmonary edema, emphysema, secondary bacterial infection
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What age of cows do lungworms affect
young non-immune yearlings/adults temperate areas with high rainfall
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How long does it take from ingestion of L3 lungworms intil they are in the respiratory tract
28 days
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What stage of lung worms incite eosinophilic exudate that blocks airways
L4- creates inflammation
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What are the clinical signs of lungworms
clinical signs: gradual progressive cough with possible complications of pulmonary edema, emphysema, secondary bacterial infection
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How do you diagnose lungworms in cattle
1) Baermann on fresh feces to detect the L1 stage -feces suspended in water -larvae actively move into the water -sink for collection 2) TTW or BAL- larvae or eosinophils
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What stage of lungworm does Baermann detect
L1 larvae -feces suspended in water -larvae actively move into the water -sink for collection
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How do you treat lungworms in cattle
Anthelminthics 1) Levamisole - nicotinic acetylcholine receptor agonist 2) Benzimidazoles (-azoles)- bind tubulin and disrupt tubulin microtuble equilibrium 3) Macrocylic lactones (-mectins) : bind glutamate gated chloride channels others: anti-inflammatories (NSAID/steroid) +/- antibiotics (secondary infection)
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What is the mechanism of macrocyclic lactones like ivermectin and eprinomectin in the treatment of lungworms in cattle
bind glutamate gated chloride channels
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What is the mechanism of Benzimidazoles like Fenbendazole and Albendazole in the treatment of lungworms in cattle
bind tubulin and disrupt tubulin microtubule equilibrium
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What is the mechanism of Levamisole (imidazothiazole) in the treatment of lungworms in cattle
nicotinic acetylcholine receptor agonist
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What causes bovine lungworm
1) Dictyocaulus viviparus 2) Ascaris suum- if exposed to high egg exposure in pigs, 10d post ingestion, causes rumen stasis interstial pneumonia via aberrant migration
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Ascaris suum
a bovine lungworm if exposed to pigs (high egg exposure) -Aberrant migration -10days post ingestions -Interstitial pneumonia -Fever -Rumen stasis -Depression
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What are different small ruminant lungworms
1) Dictyocalus filaria- 4 weeks post ingestion 2) Muellerius Capillaris- goats are more severe (interstitial) with an indirect lifecycle (snal and 6 weeks prepatent), resistant to levamisole
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Muellerius capilalris is resistant to
Levamisole
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Muellerius Capillaris infection are most common small ruminant lungworm and they cause severe disease in
goats- interstitial
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What lifecycle does Muelleris capillaris have
indirect life cycle snail (intermediate host) 6 weeks prepatent
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You are called out to look at a pen of Angus heifers that have had respiratory signs over the last 2 days . The producer reports that he found 4 dead this morning. As you get out to the dry lot pen you notice that most of the heifers are coughing and tachypneic, and some are dyspneic. Based on this information, what is the most likely diagnosis and best intervention strategy? A. AIP/ARDS secondary to L-tryptophan ingestion; move to pasture and feed monensin to the group B. AIP/ARDS secondary to pneumotoxin 4-IP ingestion; investigate feed bunk for potatoes and remove C. AIP/ARDS secondary to aspiration of lungworm larvae; treat group of heifers with levamisole D. AIP/ARDS secondary to liver abscesses and pulmonary thrombi; treat group with penicillin
B. AIP/ARDS secondary to pneumotoxin 4-IP ingestion; investigate feed bunk for potatoes and remove
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What parasite is resistant to Levamisole
Muellerius Capillaris
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A second lactation Jersey cow 180 DIM was let out to graze fresh pasture during the summer. The herd manager decided to keep her with the dry cows and forego milking her that afternoon. At the evening check, the herd manager notices her standing with her head and neck extended, tachypneic and open-mouth breathing. Thankfully, you are already at the farm finishing up with a dystocia (you saved the calf!) What is the BEST next step for treating this cow? A. You administer dexamethasone and tell the herd manager she needs to be moved off the pasture immediately. B. You tell the herd manager she likely has ARDS, which as a poor prognosis, and humane euthanasia is recommended. C. You prepare to take a deep nasopharyngeal swab that you will submit for culture and sensitivity and treat her with flunixin meglumine and florfenicol. D. You administer epinephrine and flunixin meglumine and move her to the parlor for milking immediately.
D. You administer epinephrine and flunixin meglumine and move her to the parlor for milking immediately
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Mestastic pneumonia in cattle manifest as ___________ *
epistaxis with varying degrees of respiratory distress Rumen is primary origin of the disease
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What makes you suspicious for anaphlaxis in cattle *
Respiratory distress is accompanied by pharyngeal edema and urticaria *Give Epinephrine, glucocorticoid (if not pregnant)
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