LOCK IN BRO Flashcards

(122 cards)

1
Q

On a dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA) scan, how are osteopenia and osteoporosis defined in terms of T-score ranges?

A
  • Osteopenia: T-score between −1.0 and −2.5 SD below the young-adult mean.
  • Osteoporosis: T-score ≤ −2.5 SD below the young-adult mean.
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2
Q

How does heavy resistance training affect tendon mechanical properties—does it make tendons more elastic or stiffer?

A

Tendons become stiffer (↑ modulus and stiffness, ↓ compliance); elasticity does not increase.

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3
Q

What happens to muscle pennation angle after several weeks of heavy resistance training? How does this change effect force production?

A

It increases - larger fascicle-to-tendon angle allows more fibers in parallel, enhancing force.

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4
Q

Does the density of Sarcoplasmic reticulum and T-tubules (plus general cytoplasmic volume) increase or decrease in response to heavy resistance training, improving calcium handling?

A

Increases

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5
Q

Which regulatory protein does calcium bind to in skeletal muscle to initiate contraction?

A

Troponin C (the Ca²⁺-binding subunit of the troponin complex)

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6
Q

After Ca²⁺ binds troponin, what happens to tropomyosin?

A

Tropomyosin shifts away from the actin active sites, exposing them for myosin attachment.

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7
Q

During the power stroke, actin filaments slide toward which part of the sarcomere?

A

Toward the M-line (center), shortening the sarcomere.

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8
Q

What immediate role does acetylcholine play in muscle contraction? Does it bind to troponin?

A

It binds nicotinic receptors at the neuromuscular junction, triggering the sarcolemma action potential that ultimately releases Ca²⁺—it does not bind troponin/tropomyosin.

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9
Q

What quantity of carbohydrate is recommended per hour before a match for team-sport athletes?

A

About 35 g of carbohydrate for every hour remaining before the start (e.g., 35 g at 1 h, 70 g at 2 h).

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10
Q

True or False: Protein (10–20 g) is advisable within 2 h of competition

A

False. Protein is generally kept ≥ 3 h away; 10–20 g protein is recommended in the pre-event meal ≈ 4 h before start time.

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11
Q

Why are high-fat or protein-rich foods discouraged in the last 3 h before competition?

A

They slow gastric emptying and may cause GI distress, potentially impairing high-intensity performance.

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12
Q

What is the primary route by which blood lactate is removed during and after exercise? Where does it go after it exits?

A

Oxidation to pyruvate in type I skeletal muscle fibers and cardiac muscle, followed by entry into the Krebs cycle.

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13
Q

True or False: Lactate is “reduced” to pyruvate during clearance.

A

False. Lactate is oxidized (loses electrons) to form pyruvate.

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14
Q

What is the role of the liver in lactate clearance during prolonged recovery (Cori cycle)?

A

The liver converts some lactate to glucose via gluconeogenesis, but this accounts for only ~15-20 % of lactate disposal during active recovery.

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15
Q

Why doesn’t blood lactate drop above the lactate threshold even though the body can use lactate for ATP?

A

Production outpaces oxidation; lactate accumulates faster than it can be shuttled and oxidized, so it is not “turned into ATP” fast enough to prevent buildup.

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16
Q

Are omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids poly- or mono-unsaturated fats?

A

Polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFAs).

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17
Q

Why are omega-3 (α-linolenic acid) and omega-6 (linoleic acid) called “essential” fats?

A

The human body cannot synthesize them; they must be obtained in the diet for normal growth, brain development, and eicosanoid (hormone-like) synthesis.

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18
Q

List two physiological roles shared by omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids.

A
  • Neural and retinal development / brain function
  • Precursor for hormone-like eicosanoids (e.g., prostaglandins, leukotrienes)
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19
Q

Name a common dietary source rich in omega-3 fatty acids.

A

Fatty cold-water fish (e.g., salmon, mackerel, sardines) or flaxseed/ALA-fortified products.

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20
Q

Name a common dietary source rich in omega-6 fatty acids.

A

Plant oils such as soybean, corn, and safflower oil.

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21
Q

For athletes with low skill or limited experience, is the optimal arousal level generally higher or lower?

A

Lower—they perform best with less physiological and cognitive activation.

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22
Q

According to the inverted-U hypothesis, how does optimal arousal shift as skill level increases?

A

The curve shifts rightward: highly skilled athletes tolerate (and often need) higher arousal before performance declines.

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23
Q

Give one reason why complex, fine-motor tasks (e.g., quarterback decision-making) require lower arousal than simple power tasks.

A

Excess arousal increases muscle tension and narrows attentional focus, disrupting coordination and decision speed in complex skills.

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24
Q

Name two techniques a rookie quarterback could use minutes before play to reach a lower-than-normal arousal state.

A
  • Diaphragmatic breathing
  • Progressive muscle relaxation (or cue-controlled centering).
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25
What is pure-part practice?
In pure-part practice, you learn each step purely by itself, one at a time. Once every piece is solid, you do the whole skill from start to finish. Example (Power Clean): Step 1 – Practice the first pull on its own. Step 2 – Practice the second pull on its own. Step 3 – Practice the catch on its own. Step 4 – Once all pieces are solid, perform the full lift.
26
What is progressive-part practice?
In progressive-part practice, you learn each step progressively, adding one new part at a time to the chain. First you learn Step 1, then 2, then do 1 + 2, then add 3, and so on. Example (Power Clean): Step 1 – Practice the first pull. Step 2 – Practice the second pull by itself. Step 3 – Do first pull + second pull together. Step 4 – Practice the catch by itself. Step 5 – Do first + second + catch as a full movement.
27
What is repetitive-part practice?
In repetitive-part practice, you repeat the growing chain each time you add a new step. Only the first part is done alone—after that, every new part is practiced in combo with the steps before it. Example (Power Clean): Step 1 – Practice the first pull. Step 2 – Do first pull + second pull (no solo practice of second pull). Step 3 – Do first + second + catch (no solo catch practice). Repeat the full combo each time a new part is added.
28
Which method is used when a coach teaches each part of the power clean separately with a PVC pipe, then puts the whole lift together?
pure-part practice
29
Which method is being used when a coach teaches the first phase of the power clean, then adds the next phase to it, and keeps repeating the whole sequence each time a new part is added—without ever practicing the new parts by themselves?
repetitive-part practice
30
Which method is being used when a coach has athletes practice each phase of the power clean on its own first, then combines them step by step—first 1 + 2, then 1 + 2 + 3?
progressive-part practice
31
What is the recommended in-season training focus for a 19-year-old female cross-country runner?
Muscular endurance—light weight, high reps (60–70%, 12–20 reps).
32
Why avoid strength or hypertrophy work in-season for endurance athletes?
It doesn’t match the sport—endurance needs light loads and volume.
33
What is reverse linear periodization?
Start heavy and low-rep, end light and high-rep as season nears.
34
How does reverse linear periodization differ from regular (linear)?
Reverse = heavy to light Linear = light to heavy
35
What phase is usually done in-season for team sport athletes?
Power training—fast, explosive movements.
36
How much EPOC (in calories) is expected after a HIIT workout?
10–15% of workout calories
37
Why do older adults lose power before strength or endurance?
Type II muscle fiber denervation and atrophy—these fast fibers shrink and disconnect first.
38
What makes an exercise closed chain vs. open chain?
Closed chain = hands or feet fixed (e.g., pull-up, squat). Open chain = moving limb (e.g., leg extension).
39
How is the 300-yard shuttle run scored?
Average of 2 trials—this is the only NSCA test scored this way.
40
How much rest is given between 300-yard shuttle trials?
5 minutes
41
In the 5-10-5 Pro Agility test, what must touch the line during each change of direction?
Hand or foot contact is required at each line—either is acceptable.
42
During the acceleration phase of sprinting, how should the head and torso rise? Why shouldn’t the head rise before the torso?
The head and torso rise together, while the hips rise more gradually. It causes poor posture—neck should stay aligned with the torso, not tilted up.
43
Can the head, torso, and hips all rise at the same time during sprint starts?
No. The head and torso rise first; the hips follow more slowly to maintain angle and power.
44
What is concurrent validity?
Concurrent validity means your test matches other trusted tests that measure the same thing—like 3 different ways to test vertical power.
45
What is convergent validity?
Convergent validity checks if a new test gives similar results to a gold standard test that measures the same ability.
46
What is predictive validity?
Predictive validity is about how well a test PREDICTS future performance—like if a jump test predicts who will block well in volleyball games.
47
If you create a new vertical jump test and compare it to the old stick-touch method, what type of validity is that?
That’s convergent validity—checking if your new test agrees with a trusted one.
48
Why is testing vertical jump, stair sprint, and 1RM power clean good for concurrent validity?
Because all three test vertical power, they improve concurrent validity—showing your results line up across proven methods.
49
Which type of surface is not recommended for plyometric landings?
Hardwood floor—it’s too hard and lacks shock absorption.
50
Why are grass fields and rubber mats good for plyometrics?
They offer grip and shock absorption, reducing injury risk.
51
What chemical triggers the release of calcium at the neuromuscular junction?
Acetylcholine (ACh)—released by the motor neuron, it starts the signal that causes calcium release in the muscle.
52
What ion is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum to start muscle contraction?
Calcium (Ca²⁺)—binds to troponin, shifting tropomyosin to uncover actin’s binding sites.
53
What protein does calcium bind to in order to uncover actin's binding sites?
Troponin—calcium binds to troponin, which moves tropomyosin away from the actin binding sites.
54
What molecule powers the myosin head to pull actin (the power stroke)?
ATP—it provides the energy for the myosin head to move and detach.
55
What enzyme breaks down ATP during contraction?
ATPase—found in the myosin head, it splits ATP to release energy for the power stroke.
56
How does the rate of neural stimulation (rate coding) affect muscle force?
Faster stimulation = more force by summing twitches into stronger, sustained contractions.
57
What are the 4 muscles of the rotator cuff?
SITS muscles: * Supraspinatus * Infraspinatus * Teres Minor * Subscapularis
58
Which two rotator cuff muscles externally rotate the shoulder?
Infraspinatus and Teres Minor.
59
Which rotator cuff muscle internally rotates the shoulder?
Subscapularis
60
Which rotator cuff muscle abducts the shoulder?
Supraspinatus—initiates the first 15° of shoulder abduction.
61
Which type of lever is most common in the human body?
Third-class levers—they place the force in the middle and favor speed and range of motion.
62
What is a common example of a third-class lever in the body?
Biceps curl—elbow joint = axis, biceps = force, dumbbell = resistance.
63
What is the only example of a second-class lever in the body?
Calf raise/ankle joint
64
Which sarcomere region stays the same length during muscle contraction (concentric or eccentric)?
The A band—it represents the length of myosin filaments and does not change.
65
Which sarcomere regions get shorter during concentric contraction?
The I band (actin-only) and H zone (myosin-only) both shorten as actin slides over myosin.
65
What does erythropoietin (EPO) stimulate the body to produce? Does it increase or decrease plasma volume?
EPO increases red blood cell (RBC) production to improve oxygen-carrying capacity. EPO decreases plasma volume, which helps raise hematocrit (but thickens the blood).
66
What is the Z-line, and what happens to it during contraction?
The Z-lines move closer together—they mark the ends of the sarcomere and are pulled inward during contraction.
67
What is the M-line, and does it move during contraction?
The M-line stays in the center—it anchors the myosin filaments and does not move.
68
What is the process of breaking a free fatty acid into acetyl-CoA?
Beta oxidation—this cuts the fatty acid chain into 2-carbon units (acetyl-CoA).
69
What is lipolysis?
Lipolysis is the breakdown of a triglyceride into glycerol and 3 free fatty acids.
70
What’s the correct order of fat metabolism steps before entering the Krebs cycle?
1. Lipolysis (triglyceride → fatty acids) 2. Beta oxidation (fatty acids → acetyl-CoA) 3. Krebs cycle
71
What protein carries oxygen from red blood cells to the mitochondria inside the muscle?
Myoglobin—it’s found inside muscle cells and transports oxygen to the mitochondria.
72
What happens to myoglobin levels with aerobic training?
Myoglobin increases—aerobic training boosts its content to improve oxygen delivery in muscle.
73
What protein carries oxygen through the bloodstream?
Hemoglobin—it’s found in red blood cells and carries oxygen throughout the body.
74
What causes hematocrit to increase?
Increased red blood cells—hematocrit is the percentage of blood made up of RBCs.
75
What is hematocrit?
The % of blood volume made of red blood cells. More RBCs = higher hematocrit.
76
When should a pregame meal with protein, carbs, and small fat (like 115g carbs, 20g protein, 3g fat) be eaten?
4–6 hours before competition—this gives time to digest protein and fat.
77
What is the recommended carb intake 1–2 hours before competition? What about 2-4 hours before?
1-2: About 35g carbs—with no protein or fat to allow fast digestion. 2-4: 70 g carbs
78
What’s the general carbohydrate intake recommendation per minute during endurance events?
1 gram of carbohydrate per minute of exercise.
79
How much fluid should an endurance athlete consume every 15 minutes during a marathon?
3–8 oz of liquid every 15 minutes is recommended.
80
Does Glycolysis occur inside or outside the mitochondria?
Outside - in the cytoplasm
81
Where do the Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation take place?
inside the mitochondria
82
What makes glycolysis “slow” or “aerobic”?
Slow glycolysis sends pyruvate into the mitochondria for the Krebs cycle instead of converting it to lactate. Slow glycolysis = pyruvate goes in Fast glycolysis = lactate stays out
83
How long does resistance training increase muscle sensitivity to amino acids?
24–48 hours after a workout.
84
How long does the anabolic effect of a single high-protein meal last?
About 3–5 hours—so meals should be spaced to keep MPS elevated.
85
What is the recommended protein amount per meal for muscle remodeling?
20–30 grams of protein per meal, every 3–4 hours.
86
What are two primary physiological causes of EPOC?
ATP/CP resynthesis and reoxygenation of muscle (restoring O₂ to myoglobin and tissues).
87
What is a main function of IGF-1 in muscle tissue?
Protein anabolism—IGF-1 helps build muscle by stimulating protein synthesis.
88
Does IGF-1 upregulate androgen receptors?
No—that’s associated with testosterone, not IGF-1.
89
Is IGF-1 catabolic or anabolic?
anabolic
90
Do Type IIa and IIx fibers activate before Type I fibers?
No—they activate after Type I fibers due to the size principle.
91
What separates Type I and Type II muscle fibers into motor units?
The perimysium, which wraps around muscle fascicles grouped by fiber type.
92
Which muscle drives the knee up during the swing phase of running?
Iliopsoas—main hip flexor that lifts the leg in swing phase.
93
What motion does the glute medius and quadratus lumborum primarily control in running?
Frontal plane control—keep the pelvis level and prevent hip drop.
94
When would piriformis weakness likely show up in running?
If there was a rotational issue, like poor external rotation or overpronation.
95
What is a short-term drop in performance lasting just a few days?
Acute fatigue—temporary tiredness that resolves quickly with rest.
96
What is a performance dip lasting a few days to weeks, meant to improve performance later?
Functional overreaching—planned fatigue that rebounds with proper rest.
97
What is a performance drop lasting weeks to months without supercompensation?
Non-functional overreaching—unplanned, longer fatigue with no benefit.
98
What is a long-term condition with fatigue, illness, and reduced performance lasting months or longer?
Overtraining Syndrome—chronic and serious, needs medical intervention.
99
How should a barbell reverse lunge be spotted?
With one spotter behind the athlete, hands near the torso.
100
What are two ways to estimate proper snatch grip width?
Fist to opposite shoulder and elbow to elbow—both are acceptable methods to estimate snatch grip width.
101
Which energy system is primarily used during repeated sprints lasting 15–30 seconds?
The fast glycolysis system (anaerobic glycolysis) is the main energy source for repeated efforts of 15–30 seconds.
102
What type of aerobic training involves continuous or repeated efforts at or just above lactate threshold for 20–30 minutes, with short rest intervals?
Pace/Tempo training.
103
How does interval training differ from pace/tempo training in aerobic athletes?
Interval training uses shorter bouts (e.g., 3–5 to 10 minutes) with structured work:rest ratios (e.g., 1:1 to 1:3), often at intensities near VO₂max.
104
What is the primary goal of pace/tempo training in endurance athletes?
To increase lactate threshold by sustaining high-intensity efforts just above it.
105
After a successful lower-body 1RM attempt (e.g., squat), how much should the load be increased for the next attempt? What about for an upper-body 1RM attempt?
lower: 10–20% increase after a successful attempt. upper: 5–10%
106
What is the recommended rest period between maximal 1RM attempts during testing?
2–4 minutes between each 1RM attempt.
107
If an athlete fails a 1RM attempt, how should the load be adjusted for the next attempt?
Decreased 2.5-5% for upper body exercises or decreased by 5-10% for lower body exercises prior to the next attempt
108
What is the appropriate square footage per athlete in the weight room?
100 sq ft.
109
What is the correct general order of performance tests during a testing battery?
1. Non-fatiguing tests → 2. Agility → 3. Power/Strength → 4. Sprint → 5. Muscular endurance → 6. Anaerobic capacity → 7. Aerobic capacity.
110
What are the Plyometric Training Volumes for Beginner, Intermediate, and Advanced?
Beginner (no experience) – 80-100 per session Intermediate (some experience) – 100-120 per session Advanced (considerable experience) – 120-140 per session
111
What happens with mitochondrial density in Aerobic and Resistance training?
Aerobic training increases mitochondrial density Resistance training decreases mitochondrial density
112
What is the typical resting blood pressure in a healthy adult? What type is on top and what type of BP is on bottom?
120/80 mmHg (systolic/diastolic).
113
Which blood pressure value increases significantly during aerobic or resistance exercise?
Systolic blood pressure increases
114
What are the Protein recommended daily for athletes? (Endurance & Strength Athletes; Athlete looking to gain weight; athletes in a Calorie deficit)
Endurance & Strength Athletes: 1.4 – 1.8g/kg body weight Athlete looking to gain weight: 1.5-2.0 g/kg bodyweight Calorie deficit for athletes: 1.8-2.7g/kg of body weight
115
What is the carb intake for athletes? (Endurance vs strength)
Carb ranges 8-10g/kg for endurance athletes & 5-6g/kg for strength athletes
116
What % of calories should come from fat for athletes?
Fats are 20-30% of total calories
117
What is the Carb Loading protocol for athletes 3, 2, and 1 day out from competition?
3 days out 8-10g/kg, then 10-12g/kg 2 days out and 1 day out
118
What is the Cunningham Equation? What are the activity factor numbers?
500 + (22 x LBM) X AF Sedentary – inactive job + very rate of minimal exercise = 1.2 Lightly active – light exercise 1-3 days/week = 1.375 Moderately active – moderate exercise 3-5 days/week = 1.725 Very active – hard exercise 6-7 days/week = 1.725 Extremely active – hard daily exercise and other regular, physically demanding tasks = 1.9
119
What is Cardiac Output?
heart rate x stroke volume
120
What is the pacemaker of the heart?
SA Node
121