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GH POST TEST 1 > Long Quiz 2 - NEURO copy > Flashcards

Long Quiz 2 - NEURO copy Flashcards

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1
Q

Your patient has a (L) frontal lobe lesion specifically affecting BA 8. You are expecting that the eyes of the patient will?

A

D. Deviate towards the unaffected side

If Left frontal Lobe affected look for I/L so Left side.

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2
Q

To examine a patient recovering from stroke with a suspected deficit in graphesthesia, the therapist would ask the patient, with eyes shut, to identify:

A

D. A series of letters traced on the palm of the hand

Graphethesia - A series of letters traced on the palm of the hand.

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3
Q

Your patient is experiencing chronic low back pain, diagnostic imaging presented: L3-L4 spinal stenosis. How would you position your patient?

A

C. Supine, 75-90 deg hip flexed

Spinal stenosis - flexion Bias so hips are flexed.

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4
Q

You are assessing the VOR reflex of the patient. What cranial nerves are you assessing?

A

B. (L) CN6, (R) CN3

Assessing the vestibulo-ocular reflex.

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5
Q

Patient has LOM doing this task. What should you strengthen?

A

C. Strengthen hip extensors and IR, foot plantarflexors and evertors

Picture shows in what PNF PATTERN D1E.

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6
Q

Patient tested (+) with the test shown. What does it indicate?

A

B. Hyporeflexive triceps reflex

What special test is shown? ULTT 3 = Radial n.

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7
Q

You’ve seen a person experiencing a seizure attack, all are true regarding the protocol, except:

A

C. Do not move the person if near a stairway

Move to a safe place is necessary.

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8
Q

You are performing an evaluation to your patient with SCl using ASIA scale. What is the neurological level of injury?

A

A. L1

SLI = L1; lowest where Both sides are normal.

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9
Q

Upon initial evaluation, you noticed that patient is using neologisms because he is unable to understand the question asked. Which is the possible damage area in the brain?

A

B. Temporal lobe = Wernicke’s aphasia

Neologisms indicate Wernicke’s area damage.

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10
Q

Patient had (R) ankle sprain 1 day ago. What will be the parameters of your US?

A

C. Pulsed; 3 Mhz; 0.5 w/ cm2

Acute phase = pulsed; Ankle sprain = superficial = 3MHz.

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11
Q

Your 7-month-old patient has a response to extend his neck and UE, and flex his legs upon neck extension. Which activity does this interfere with, except?

A

C. Feeding

Feeding = ATNR not STNR.

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12
Q

PT is assessing the patient’s gait with common peroneal nerve injury and observed a (+) foot slap. At what phase of gait should you turn on the current?

A

C. Initial contact

(+) Foot slap = seen in Stance = Initial Contact.

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13
Q

What is the term for the phase of gait where the foot makes initial contact with the ground?

A

Initial contact

Common peroneal n. Injury: (+) Foot slap = seen in Stance = Initial Contact.

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14
Q

Which phase of gait is associated with foot drop?

A

Mid swing

Foot Drop = seen in swing = Mid swing.

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15
Q

What is the triad of symptoms for Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus?

A

Dementia/confusion, Incontinence, Gait

Normal pressure Hydrocephalus triad = DIG.

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16
Q

Which structure is likely damaged if a patient shows loss of balance, nystagmus, and intentional tremor?

A

Posterior lobe of cerebellum

S/sx shows prob in coordination in UE; overshoots touching from his finger to PT’s finger = dysmetria UE.

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17
Q

Which manifestation is NOT expected in a right hemisphere stroke?

A

Global aphasia

Only seen in L hemisphere since aphasia is mostly left hemisphere.

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18
Q

What is true about high stretch bandages?

A

It provides high resting pressure

It provides 60-70 mmHg.

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19
Q

Which dermatome corresponds to the lateral aspect of the leg and foot?

A

L5

L5 = buttock, lat aspect of leg and foot.

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20
Q

What is the most beneficial intervention for a patient with pusher’s syndrome?

A

Sit beside the right side and ask patient to push towards you

Pusher’s syndrome = L hemisphere affected = R CVA.

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21
Q

What would be the response of a muscle being stimulated with constant monophasic current in a patient with complete radial nerve innervation?

A

No twitch contraction

Normal / completely innervated for Constant monophasic.

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22
Q

What is the expected level of affectation and prescribed orthosis for a 5 y.o patient with spina bifida and club foot deformity?

A

L4-L5: AFO

Spina Bifida Club foot = L4-L5 = AFO.

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23
Q

Which cranial nerve is affected if the tongue deviates towards the right side?

A

(R) CN 12

R tongue Deviation = R CN12 = R tongue atrophy.

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24
Q

Which condition is associated with LMNL in anterior horn cells?

A

Poliomyelitis

Assymetric weakness; Affected: LMNL = Anterior Horn Cells.

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25
How can you help a patient who has difficulty locating the brake levers in a wheelchair?
Instruct patient to manually locate the levers using touch ## Footnote Best treatment for figure ground discrimination.
26
Which reflex does NOT result in extension of the big toe and fanning of the four toes in UMNL?
Rossolimo ## Footnote Response for letters A-D = extension of the big toe and fanning of the four toes; Rossolimo = response: DF et, supination of foot.
27
What stage of Brunnstrom's Stages of Recovery is indicated by the activity shown in the picture?
Stage 4 ## Footnote Hand behind body; Alt pron sup c elbow fle to 90deg.
28
What stage is indicated by 'Hand behind body, Alt pron sup c elbow fle to 90deg, Elev fwd horizontal sup'?
C. 4
29
A 66 y/o male patient has the following results. Which is consistent according to the patient's findings?
B. Conductive hearing loss on L
30
An 80 y.o female patient has a bone mineral density of -2.5 SD. Which is not an advisable intervention for your patient?
B. Flat shoes with thick soles should be worn to enhance better balance ## Footnote Need to be THIN soles
31
What is the next step to ask the patient to perform after moving the shoulder into horizontal abduction?
C. Isotonic contraction of pectoralis major
32
You held your patient's head in slight flexion and rotated the neck. The patient showed no corrective saccade. What does this indicate?
D. Normal vestibular function
33
How will you know if spinal shock is resolved in a patient with Acute T7 SCI?
D. There is external anal sphincter contraction when the glans penis is pinched
34
How would you document a slight increase and catch in less than half of the motion performed for spasticity?
a. Knee extensors: 1+
35
Which finding is most expected from a patient with C8 spinal cord injury due to a gunshot wound?
C. Absent temperature sensation on the left apex of axilla
36
What would be the inflation/deflation time for Intermittent Pneumatic Compression (IPC) to benefit a patient?
C. 50 secs/10 secs
37
If a patient can mobilize secretions in the upper and lower respiratory tract, what is the possible level of injury?
B. T10
38
What is the MOST appropriate action for a therapist when a 14-year-old female client with multiple bruises seems hesitant in answering questions?
C. Interview the patient in private room
39
What type of current is used to promote tetanic contraction with a frequency of 50 Hz and 1 ms?
A. Asymmetrical biphasic current
40
What is the significance of 1 FUSE10 in relation to tetanic contraction?
1 FUSE10 = 50
41
What does Constant Monophasic refer to?
DIW = Dentvation, Iontophoresis, Wound healing
42
In a patient with a left optic tract lesion, where is blindness likely observed?
B. (R) Temporal side, (L) nasal side ## Footnote L optic tract = R HH; Blindness in R temporal and L nasal sides.
43
What does a Glasgow Outcome Scale stage 6 indicate for a patient?
A. Patient is able to return to work with special arrangements ## Footnote GOS stage 6 indicates the patient can return to work with special arrangements.
44
What clinical manifestation is seen in a patient diagnosed with L CVA?
D. Non fluent aphasia ## Footnote Non fluent aphasia is associated with Broca’s area in the left hemisphere.
45
Which manifestation is NOT associated with the Parietal Lobe?
C. Anosmia ## Footnote Anosmia is associated with the Temporal Lobe.
46
What should be expected in a patient with an activated parasympathetic nervous system?
C. Decrease salivation ## Footnote Decrease salivation is associated with the sympathetic nervous system.
47
What milestone is NOT expected in a 3-month-old patient who is 4 weeks premature?
D. Forearms in prone ## Footnote Corrected age is 2 months; forearms in prone is expected at 4 months.
48
What is the best long-term goal for a patient with Myelomeningocele at the L3-L4 level?
D. Household ambulation with KAFO and loft strand crutches
49
How would you interpret a Glasgow Coma Scale of E2, V2, M5?
B. The patient's eyes open to pain, they provide incomprehensible sounds when asked, and they are able to localize to trapezius pinch
50
What is the expected manifestation in a patient with mm twitching?
B. Jaw deviation towards bad side ## Footnote Jaw deviation towards the bad side is associated with CN 5.
51
Which gait change is NOT seen in an 85 y/o male patient?
B. Increased walking speed ## Footnote Increased walking speed is NOT typical; decreased speed is expected.
52
What is the appropriate wheelchair for a patient with mobile arm support and able to do dependent sliding board transfer?
B. Manual wheelchair with oblique projections ## Footnote Oblique projections are suitable for C5 level patients.
53
What other manifestation is seen in a patient with a cranial nerve lesion?
B. Impaired pupillary light reflex
54
What other manifestation is seen in a patient with a cranial nerve lesion based on ocular inspection?
B. Impaired pupillary light reflex ## Footnote Impaired pupillary light reflex = CN 3 (2&3)
55
What type of feedback is provided when performance deviates outside the boundaries of the correct activity?
C. Bandwidth knowledge of performance ## Footnote Bandwidth knowledge of performance = deviates outside the boundaries
56
How will you classify Mr. T, a TBI patient who can squeeze your hand upon command 3 out of 5 times?
B. RLA 5 ## Footnote RLA 5 = Confused Inappropriate = Person is confused, responds accurately to commands
57
Which positional strategy is not beneficial for a CVA patient to prevent malalignment?
C. Sidelying on good side: affected hip is forward and flexed, knee extended and supported on a pillow ## Footnote Should be FLEXED
58
What is the possible sensory impairment if a patient has loss of sensibility to vibration?
A. Pallanesthesia ## Footnote Pallanesthesia = vibration
59
What structure is most likely affected if Mr. Bee's rotational movements of the trunk with arm swing gradually decrease over time?
C. Basal ganglia ## Footnote Hypokinesia - decrease over time related to movement disorder seen in Basal Ganglia
60
Which strategy is appropriate for a TBI patient who is using proprioceptive feedback compared to visual cues?
C. Focus on use of variable feedback (summed, fading, bandwidth) designs to improve retention. ## Footnote Proprioceptive feedback >> visual feedback = associative stage
61
What does the loading response (LR) represent?
LR (loading response) = D2 flexion pattern ## Footnote Loading response is associated with D2 flexion pattern
62
What is true about Mrs. D's GCS score if she can open eyes to pain, withdraws hand when pinched, and is confused?
B. PTA of 2 days ## Footnote GCS = 14 this is Moderate TBI
63
According to the Hoehn and Yahr classification, what stage is a PD patient using a walker upon standing and ambulation?
C. Stage 3 ## Footnote Stage 3 = may use AD
64
What is being examined when performing the Head impulse test?
A. Right posterior SCC ## Footnote The position is to rotate and extend towards R
65
Which statement is true regarding the 2 pt discrimination test?
A. test is repeated for 7-10 times. ## Footnote Starts at 8mm, not 10mm
66
What is associated with decrementing repetitive nerve stimulation?
D. Decrementing repetitive nerve stimulation ## Footnote Myasthenic Gravis is shown in the pic
67
Which PNF pattern is beneficial for a patient having difficulty in ambulation from midstance to terminal stance?
B. D1 extension ## Footnote D1 extension = MS - TS
68
What is the GMFC level for an 8-year-old patient with CP spastic diplegia who can walk without assistance but has limitations outdoors?
GMFC level is not specified in the provided text.
69
What is the GMFC level for an 8-year old patient with CP spastic diplegia who can walk without assistance but has limitations outdoors?
B. Level 2 ## Footnote 1- Minimal or absent; UNILATERAL if present 2 - Min Bilat, MIDLINE involvement, Balance not impaired 3 - righting reflex, unsteadiness from a chair, SOME act restrict, LIVE INDEP c SOME forms of EMPLOYMENT 4 - ONLY c ASSIST stand and walk is possible 5 - Bed Bound or W/C
70
What finding is consistent with an injury to the long thoracic nerve?
B. Medial winging of the scapula ## Footnote A. Shoulder extension weakness lats dorsi, teres major, post fibers of deltoid - inferior axillary n., thoracodorsal n., radial n. C. Paralysis of the teres minor - Axillary n. D. Impaired abduction of the shoulder - Suprascapular n.
71
How will you know there is spasticity on the tested leg during the pendulum test?
D. Tested leg when dropped, swings only for a few reps ## Footnote (+) Spasticity Tested leg when dropped, swings only for a few reps = decrease swing = (+) spasticity
72
What is the most likely level of consciousness for a patient who is difficult to arouse from sleep and confused when aroused?
B. Obtunded ## Footnote A. Coma - No response B. Obtunded - Arouse Confuse C. Lethargic - No response Extra sleepy D. Stupor - Arouse to pain
73
What strategy is most helpful for a patient with high stepping gait to walk without hesitation?
B. Instruct the patient to look toward the floor when walking ## Footnote High step gait = Post cord syndrome = affected DCMNL B. since high step gait can be fixed c visual cues
74
Which reflex is expected to be normally seen in a patient who can sit using hands for support?
D. Palmar grasp reflex ## Footnote A. Moro reflex - 3-5 mo B. Galant reflex - 3mo C. Crossed extension reflex - 1-2mo D. Palmar grasp reflex - 7mo
75
What is the expected finding if a patient has sensorineural hearing loss in the left ear during the Weber test?
A. Sound is louder on the (R) ear ## Footnote Sensorineural hearing loss = confirm sound is found on the opposite side of the ear Remember: WEBER = sound localized on GOOD EAR
76
What diagnostic imaging is most sensitive for early detection of ischemia in a patient with hemianesthesia and motor paralysis?
B. MRI ## Footnote A. CT scan - ACUTE stage is negative in ischemia B. MRI - ACUTE stage is seen
77
Which function is most likely affected by a lesion found in the occipital lobe?
A. Pursuit eye movement ## Footnote Lesion of the occipital lobe affects pursuit eye movement.
78
What is the force applied if a patient weighs 110 lbs and the goal is to decrease compression?
B. 7.7 lbs ## Footnote Goal - decrease compression = 7% 7% = 0.07 x 110 lbs = 7.7lbs
79
What should you ask your patient to do during the Jendrassik Maneuver?
B. Ask patient to clench teeth ## Footnote Jendrassik Maneuver - LE reflex = clenched teeth together.
80
What is the best action for a patient with osteoarthritis on both knees and poor thermal sensation during hydrotherapy?
B. Select water at a temperature close to patient's body temperature ## Footnote OA hydrotherapy = thermal sensation is POOR = PRECAUTION not a C/I.
81
What does 7% BW indicate?
Joint separation
82
What is the weight for soft tissue stretch?
12-15 lbs
83
What is the flexion range for the upper neck (C1-C5)?
0–5° flex
84
What is the flexion range for the lower neck (C5-C7)?
25–30° flex
85
What is the duration for acute treatment?
5–10 min acute
86
What is the duration for other treatments?
15–30 min
87
What is the duty cycle for mobility?
1:1 mobility
88
What is the duty cycle for distraction?
3:1 distraction
89
What does 50% BW indicate for lumbar traction?
Joint distraction
90
What position is recommended for posterior HNP?
Prone
91
What is the flexion range for L5-S1?
45–60° flex
92
What is the flexion range for L4-L5?
60–90° flex
93
What is the flexion range for L3-L4?
75–90° flex
94
What is the recommended duration for severe symptoms?
5 mins
95
What is the recommended duration for moderate symptoms?
10 mins
96
What is the summary tip for cervical traction?
Cervical = Light weight (7% BW), soft tissue stretch = 12-15 lbs.
97
What is the summary tip for lumbar traction?
Lumbar = Big boy force (50% BW), careful with HNP (prone lying).
98
What is the most likely diagnosis for a patient with confusion, wide-based gait, and urinary incontinence?
Normal pressure hydrocephalus
99
What are the symptoms of normal pressure hydrocephalus?
Dementia, Incontinence, Gait
100
What is the correct EMG biofeedback setting for improving hip internal rotation?
Set at low sensitivity, electrodes placed close together on the hip external rotators
101
What is the probable source of trouble seeing objects on the sides?
Tunnel vision: increase intraocular pressure
102
What are the expected manifestations for a patient with moderate Alzheimer's disease?
Becoming restless at night
103
What is the duty cycle for ultrasound with on time 15 seconds and off time 5 seconds?
50%
104
What is the diagnosis for a patient with right inferior quadrantinopsia?
Left parietal fibers of optic radiation
105
What PNF pattern should be emphasized for a patient needing assistance in unzipping pants?
D2 flexion -> D2 extension
106
What is the correct parameter for treating an infected ulcer on the left malleolus with electrotherapy?
Use monophasic waveform, monopolar configuration with cathode electrode on the wound
107
What does a Berg balance scale score of 35 indicate?
Patient has significant risk of falls
108
What is the mnemonic to remember assistive devices?
"Wacky Wheelchair → Walker Wobbles → Confident Cane → Free Flyer!"
109
What does 'Wacky Wheelchair' represent?
<20
110
What does 'Walker Wobbles' represent?
20–44
111
What does 'Confident Cane' represent?
45–49.5
112
What does 'Free Flyer' represent?
50–56
113
What orthosis is recommended for foot drop with ankle instability?
A. Solid AFO - Foot drop with Ankle INStab
114
What part of the brain is affected in involuntary, rapid, irregular, jerky movements?
D. Neostriatum
115
What is the best management for upbeating nystagmus with torsion towards the left?
D. Liberatory maneuver with rotation of head towards the right
116
What is the sign of Autonomic Dysreflexia (AD) that is NOT present?
D. Dilated pupils
117
What should you do for a non-responsive patient with weak pulse but normal breathing?
A. Give 2 cycles of CPR for 1 minute then call 911
118
What is the assessment for looking to the left?
B. Esotropia; rotate head to the L
119
What is the diagnosis for a patient in coma and quadriplegic but with spared cognition?
D. Locked-in syndrome
120
Which patient behavior is NOT characteristic of right hemisphere involvement after a stroke?
B. Pt will demonstrate ideomotor apraxia
121
What is the assessment for a patient who can easily pick a wooden block from the floor?
C. Good
122
Which manifestation is NOT seen in patients with Lou Gehrig's disease?
C. Shadow pillow posture
123
What should you do if a T4 SCI patient feels faint during sit-to-stand exercises?
C. Let the pt lie down and elevate their legs
124
What should you do for a patient experiencing orthostatic hypotension (OH)?
Let the patient lie down and elevate their legs. ✅ Add ankle pumping.
125
What are the signs of orthostatic hypotension (OH)?
Sit-to-stand, feel fainting, SBP decreases by 20mmHg, HR between 60-100 bpm.
126
What is the correct procedure for stretching tight shoulder extensors using slow reversal?
Isotonic contraction of antagonist -> isotonic contraction of agonist. ## Footnote Slow reversal is a PNF technique involving alternating isotonic contractions.
127
What structures are preserved in a second-degree radial nerve injury according to Sunderland's classification?
Endoneurium, Epineurium, Perineurium.
128
What intervention should be recommended for a patient with Multiple Sclerosis who tested positive in the Lhermitte's test?
Recommend the use of a soft cervical collar to limit cervical flexion.
129
Which symptom is NOT associated with peripheral vestibular disorder?
Diplopia. ## Footnote Look for central vestibular disorders for symptoms like diplopia.

GH POST TEST 1 (2 decks)

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