Low Subjects Amboss Flashcards

(41 cards)

1
Q

cystinuria

A

FLANK PAIN W/ COSTOVERTERBRAL TENDERNESS. RECURRENT IN ADOLESCENT W/ - XRAY.
Hexagonal crystals on urinalysis indicate cystine stones, which typically develop in individuals with cystinuria and persistently acidic urine. Cystinuria is caused by an autosomal recessive defect in the cystine-reabsorbing proximal convoluted tubule transporter in the kidneys. Cystine stones are weakly radiopaque (i.e., visible on CT scan but not necessarily on x-ray). A positive urine cyanide nitroprusside test confirms the diagnosis. Prevention includes adequate hydration, a low-sodium diet, urine alkalinization, and, in refractory cases, tiopronin and chelating agents (e.g., penicillamine).

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2
Q

CA stones

A

urine ph varies
incidence 75%
RO - dumbells or bipyrimadal envelopes
Hypercalciuria
Hyperoxaluria
Hypocitraturia
Can result from increased intake of
Ethylene glycol (antifreeze)
Vitamin C
Associated with inflammatory bowel disease, i.e., ulcerative colitis and Crohn disease due to malabsorption

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3
Q

UA stones

A

urine pH is low and volume is low, incidence ~ 10% . RL rounded rhomboids/rosettes. Gout, hyperuricemia, hyperuricosuria. high cell turnover like leukemia/chemo

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4
Q

struvite

A

high urine ph, incidence 5-10%, rectangluar coffin lids RO . UTI with urease-producing bacteria (e.g., Proteus mirabilis, S. saprophyticus, Klebsiella)

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5
Q

calcium phos stones

A

high urine ph , wedge shaped prism, RO, Hyperparathyroid. t1RTA

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6
Q

cystine

A

low urine ph , hexagon RO stones, cystinuria (hereditary)

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7
Q

xanthine stones

A

independent of urine PH, amorphous, RL, xanthinuria (hereditary)

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8
Q
A
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9
Q

SIADH sclc

A

hyponatremia- admin 3% saline w/ possible loop diuretic such as furosemide (if urine osm is 2x that of serum). then can give demeclocycline/vasopressin antag. after tx then do fluid restriction.

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10
Q

AKI labs

A

An increase in serum creatinine to ≥ 1.5 times the baseline level within a week indicates acute kidney injury (AKI). A BUN:creatinine ratio of < 15 and the finding of epithelial casts (due to sloughed renal tubular epithelium) suggest intrinsic AKI due to acute tubular necrosis (ATN).

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11
Q

contrast nephropathy

A

ATN. Patient-related risk factors for contrast-induced nephropathy include advanced age, diabetes mellitus, underlying chronic kidney disease (CKD) such as diabetic nephropathy, and concomitant use of certain nephrotoxic drugs (e.g., NSAIDs). The course of contrast-induced nephropathy is typically mild (unless CKD is already present), with creatinine levels peaking after 3–5 days and returning to baseline within one week.

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12
Q

GI bleeding w/ CKD - uremia secondary to uremic platelet dysfnx

A

bnormal platelet adhesion and platelet aggregation in individuals with uremia are multifactorial and most likely occur because of the presence of platelet function inhibitors, uremic toxins, and glycoprotein IIb/IIIa dysfunction. Abnormalities in von Willebrand factor and thrombocytopenia may also play a role in increased bleeding tendency in patients with CKD. Laboratory findings that suggest dysfunctional platelet aggregation may include increased bleeding time and normocytic anemia. PT and aPTT are usually normal unless there is concomitant coagulopathy. Treatment includes renal replacement therapy by hemodialysis, peritoneal dialysis, or kidney transplantation.

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13
Q

overflow incontinence

A
  • imparied detruser contractibility or BOO. neuro disorders BPH.

A history of intermittent dribbling of urine not associated with increased intraabdominal pressure (e.g., laughing, sneezing, coughing, exercising) or an urge to urinate . Underactivity of the detrusor muscle is one of the causes of overflow incontinence. Patients with an acute spinal cord injury (SCI) can have spinal shock, which is a combination of decreased sensation, flaccid paralysis, and autonomic dysfunction below the level of an SCI. Autonomic dysfunction results in parasympathetic inactivation and a consequent atonic bladder. CAN ALSO HAVE BLADDER OUTFLOW OBSTRUCTION

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14
Q

urge incontinence

A

autonomous contraction of detrusor. inflammatory (UTI), neurogenic, idiopathic

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15
Q

stress incontinence

A

high intraabd. psi w/ bladder outlet incompetence. coughing sneezing, etc. urethral hypermobility, intrinsic sphincter deficiency

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16
Q

oliguria, hypertension, a BUN:creatinine ratio < 15, and features of fluid overload (peripheral edema, dyspnea and crackles indicating pulmonary edema). These findings suggest intrinsic acute kidney injury (AKI), most likely due to post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN) secondary to streptococcal pharyngitis that occurred 3 weeks ago (indicated by the positive antistreptolysin O antibody titers).

A

Mild but significant leukocyturia and severe hematuria with RBC casts are seen in PSGN, which results in nephritic syndrome; the RBC casts indicate glomerular damage and the sterile pyuria (leukocyturia) reflects renal inflammation. The proteinuria in nephritic syndrome is typically mild (i.e., 1+ or 2+ on a urine protein dipstick test), but in severe nephritic syndrome nephrotic-range proteinuria (i.e., ≥ 3+ on urine protein dipstick) might be seen. PSGN is most common in children 3–12 years old and in elderly patients.

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17
Q

ADPKD

A

cerebral saccular aneurysm, hepatic cysts, mitral v. prolapse, hernias

18
Q

premature ejaculation

A

use SSRI. paroxetine can delay ejaculation up to 9 min . it pt also has ED, pd5i are used first line . but dont give with tamulosin b/c of ortho hypotension

20
Q

chlorthalidone

A

thiazine can cause ED. Thiazide diuretics

A group of diuretic agents that act as Na⁺-Cl⁻ cotransporter inhibitors in the early distal renal tubule. Used mainly to treat hypertension. Examples include hydrochlorothiazide and chlorthalidone. Adverse effects include metabolic alkalosis, electrolyte abnormalities (hypokalemia, hyponatremia, hypomagnesemia, hypercalcemia), metabolic effects (hyperglycemia, hyperuricemia), and sulfonamide hypersensitivity.

21
Q

active error

A

An active error (sharp end flaw) is one that is performed by the operator, immediately apparent, and typically noticed first by the individual who committed it. A surgeon who transects the common bile duct instead of the cystic duct has made an active error.

22
Q

Next of Kin

A

Spouses are most often listed first, followed by adult children, parents, adult siblings, and close friends.

23
Q

brain death

A

The absence of the pupillary reflex, vestibuloocular reflex, corneal reflex, gag reflex, and cough reflex indicate brainstem areflexia, which is one of the criteria for brain death. The presence of cardiac activity and spontaneous or reflex motor responses as a result of bioelectrical activity restricted to the spinal cord, peripheral nerves, and muscles (e.g., deep tendon reflexes, Babinski sign, fasciculations, myoclonus) should not be interpreted as evidence against brain death.

24
Q

Donabedian model

A

A method of evaluating healthcare quality. Comprises the domains of structural measures, process measures, outcome measures, and balancing measures. Structural measures evaluate the material, organizational, and professional resources (e.g., equipment, facilities, staff) available at a health care facility. Examples include the evaluation of the number of beds, volume of surgeries performed, usage of medication order entry systems, and provision of digital copies of health records to patients. A facility’s structural characteristics affect other domains of healthcare quality, which can be assessed via process measures, outcome measures, balancing measures, and composite measures. Composite measures aggregate several types of quality measures into a single score and allow a comprehensive view of the overall performance of a health care system.

25
Opioids and hospice
Systemic opioids (e.g., morphine) are indicated in patients with severe terminal dyspnea that is not relieved by nonpharmacological interventions (e.g., a fan, body posture aids, breathing techniques). Opioids relieve dyspnea through various mechanisms, including altering central perception of dyspnea, reducing anxiety, and decreasing the respiratory drive. The opioid dose should be slowly titrated until the optimal risk-benefit ratio between efficacy and adverse effects (e.g., constipation, nausea, pruritus, bronchospasm, drowsiness) has been reached.
26
diffuse systemic sclerosis
sclerodactyly (skin tightness and thickening, nonpurulent ulcers), pulmonary fibrosis (fine, inspiratory crackles), and gastroesophageal reflux disease (chest pain, weight loss) due to esophageal hypomotility.Antitopoisomerase I antibodies (anti-Scl-70) can be found in approx. 40% of individuals with diffuse SSc and indicate a poor prognosis and higher risk of severe interstitial lung disease. Further laboratory findings associated with diffuse SSc include antinuclear antibodies (approx. 90% of cases) and anti-RNA polymerase III antibodies. Anticentromere antibody is the main parameter for limited SSc which may also show positive testing for anti-Scl-70.
27
canca
c-ANCA are positive in approx. 90% of patients with granulomatosis with polyangiitis. Affected individuals usually have a history of chronic rhinosinusitis, ocular manifestations (scleritis, episcleritis, uveitis), ulcerating mucocutaneous granulomas, and/or vasculitic purpura.
28
PBC
anti mito antibodies. PBC has fatigue, generalized itching, elevated cholestatic parameters.
29
anti ro/ssa and anti la ssb
sjogren
30
anti histone ab
drug induced lupus
31
mupirocin
ABX effective against g + bacteria. used topically for skin infections and MRSA
32
triamcinolone
intradermally for alopecia areata
33
OA
pain worse at end of day, crepitus, limited ROM, osteophytes, subchondral sclerosis, joint narrowing. weight loss program!
34
legg calve perthes
Hip pain with limited internal rotation and abduction in addition to x-ray findings of joint space widening and femoral head flattening are consistent with Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease, which most commonly affects boys aged 4–10 years.
35
risk factors for psoriasis
smoking and HIV. t cell mediated process.
36
seronegative spondyloarthropathy
Ankylosing spondylitis is a seronegative spondyloarthropathy and is associated with extraarticular manifestations, the most common of which is acute unilateral anterior uveitis (∼ 25% of cases). Further findings in this patient would, therefore, most likely include eye redness and pain. Other associated, though rarer, extraarticular findings of ankylosing spondylitis include gastrointestinal (inflammatory bowel disease), cardiac (aortic insufficiency, AV block), and renal (IgA nephropathy).
37
RA
history of polyarthralgia with symmetrical pain and swelling as well as morning stiffness for > 6 weeks. The x-ray shows generalized osteopenia, marginal erosions, and narrowed joint spaces of the metacarpophalangeal, proximal interphalangeal, and wrist joints. In addition, the distal interphalangeal joints are spared, which is typical for rheumatoid arthritis (RA). methotrexate first line.
38
marfan lens of eye
upward and temporal.
39
dermatomyositis
cutaneous features (heliotrope rash, Gottron papules, Raynaud phenomenon), symmetrical proximal muscle weakness, elevated creatine kinase, and EMG findings that suggest an irritable myopathic pattern. increased risk of malignancies, especially adenocarcinomas of the ovaries, cervix, lung, stomach, pancreas, and colorectum. age related screenings + chest x-ray and pulmonary function testing to assess for interstitial lung disease.
40
post exposure prophylaxis for chickenpox
The use of VZV immunoglobulin (passive immunization) as postexposure prophylaxis (PEP) for chickenpox is indicated in premature neonates born after 28 weeks' gestation to mothers with no evidence of immunity to VZV, as seen here (this patient's mother has never had chickenpox). PEP prevents disease onset or mitigates the course of the disease and must be given within 10 days following exposure (ideally within 4 days). Other indications for passive postexposure immunoprophylaxis include newborns born before 28 weeks' gestation regardless of the mother's immunity status, pregnant women or immunosuppressed patients with no evidence of immunity to VZV, and newborns whose mother was infected between 5 days before and up to 2 days after birth.
41
DH/celiac
adherence to a gluten-free diet and oral dapsone. After symptomatic control, dapsone may be slowly tapered and stopped but a lifelong gluten-free diet should be maintained, especially in patients with concomitant celiac disease.An antifolate antibiotic used in the treatment of dermatitis herpetiformis, leprosy, toxoplasmosis, and chloroquine-resistant malaria. Also used for Pneumocystis jiroveci prophylaxis.