Lower Extremity Flashcards
(141 cards)
A patient with multiple injuries to the same ankle will be more at risk for developing what condition later in life?
Arthritis
Is ankle arthritis more commonly unilateral or bilateral?
Unilateral
What lifestyle modification can greatly improve ankle pain?
Weight Loss
Where is the most common location of a condral injury in the ankle?
Talar Dome
An osteocondral injury would be classified as an injury to the underlying ________ as well as to the cartilage surface.
Bone
Osteocondritis Dessicans would result in injury to the bone and cartilage due to what?
Compromised blood supply
Would you expect to see ligamentous instability in ankle chondral injuries?
No
What is the most concerning disease process on your DDx when working up a possible ankle chondral injury?
Avascular necrosis
Can patients diagnosed with ankle chondral injuries be weight bearing?
No, they need to be NWB
T/F: Ankle chondral injuries are more likely to be treated surgically, especially in older patients
True
Are athletes more likely to have achilles tendonitis at it’s insertion or within the tendon?
Elderly?
Overweight?
Athletes: Tendon
Elderly: Insertion
Overweight: Insertion
How is achilles tendonitis managed?
Non-Operative 1. Rest 2. PT 3 Heel Lift 4. NSAIDs
Should corticosteriod injections be given to a patient with Achilles tendonitis (or any tendonitis)?
No! There is an increased risk for rupture
A 42 y.o. male presents to the ED with complaints of right ankle pain. He was playing basketball an hour ago when he went up for a rebound and heard a “pop” near his heel. He felt immediate pain and was unable to ambulate without significant pain. On examination you note significant swelling to the posterior right ankle.
Given the history what is your most concerning diagnosis?
What physical examination test would confirm this?
Achilles Tendon Rupture
Thompson’s Test
A 42 y.o. male presents to the ED with complaints of right ankle pain. He was playing basketball an hour ago when he went up for a rebound and heard a “pop” near his heel. He felt immediate pain and was unable to ambulate without significant pain. On examination you note significant swelling to the posterior right ankle. When preforming a Thompson’s Test, there is no response in the foot, so you suspect an achilles tendon rupture.
What imaging modality is most diagnostic for this?
MRI
A 42 y.o. male presents to the ED with complaints of right ankle pain. He was playing basketball an hour ago when he went up for a rebound and heard a “pop” near his heel. He felt immediate pain and was unable to ambulate without significant pain. On examination you note significant swelling to the posterior right ankle. When preforming a Thompson’s Test, there is no response in the foot, so you suspect an achilles tendon rupture, which is confirmed on MRI.
Upon review of his chart you notice he was recently treated for PNA. What class of ABx was he likely treated with?
(HINT: An ADR of this class is an increased risk for tendon rupture)
Fluroquinolones
A 42 y.o. male presents to the ED with complaints of right ankle pain. He was playing basketball an hour ago when he went up for a rebound and heard a “pop” near his heel. He felt immediate pain and was unable to ambulate without significant pain. On examination you note significant swelling to the posterior right ankle. When preforming a Thompson’s Test, there is no response in the foot, so you suspect an achilles tendon rupture, which is confirmed on MRI.
How is this condition managed?
Splint
Crutches
Referral To Orthopedic Surgeon (likely surgical repair)
Which ligament is most commonly injured in ankle sprains?
Anterior Talofibular Ligament (ATFL)
A high ankle sprain involves injury to what ligament?
Syndemosis
Are ankle sprains more commonly the result of an eversion or inversion injury?
Inverson Injury
A positive anterior drawer of the ankle may indicate an injury to what ligament?
Anterior Talofibular Ligament (ATFL)
A 56 y.o. female present to the ED with left ankle pain. She was coming downstairs with the laundry when she missed the last step and fell. She believes her left leg hit first and could hear a loud crack. She had immediate pain and swelling and noted a deformity which prompted her to call 911. She denied hitting her head or losing consciousness. On examination, you note an obvious deformity to the left ankle.
What is the first step in evaluating this injury?
Make sure the patient is neurovascularly intact distally
A 56 y.o. female present to the ED with left ankle pain. She was coming downstairs with the laundry when she missed the last step and fell. She believes her left leg hit first and could hear a loud crack. She had immediate pain and swelling and noted a deformity which prompted her to call 911. She denied hitting her head or losing consciousness. On examination, you note an obvious deformity to the left ankle. There is obvious swelling and tenderness, but she is neurovasculairy intact distally. Interestingly, she has pain extending to the proximal fibula.
An XR of the Ankle, Tib/Fib, and knee reveal fracutres of the medial malleolus, lateral malleolus, and the proximal fibula.
this type of injury can be described as what type of fracture?
Tri-malleolar Fracture
Are ankle fractures a surgical emergency?
No
Most can be managed without surgery –> splint, crutches, elevation, etc…