Lower Extremity Imaging Flashcards

(61 cards)

1
Q

Mature bone cells.

A

Osteocytes

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2
Q

Secrete osteoid or the organic component of bone. Builds new bone.

A

Osteoblasts

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3
Q

Secrete acids to remove bony matrix

A

Osteoclasts

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4
Q

Type of bone that is more capable of resisting stress

A

Spongy Bone

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5
Q

Where do most bone metastases begin?

A

Red Marrow
- then progress outward

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6
Q

Hollow tube that consist of compact bone.

A

Diaphysis

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7
Q

Ends of the bone.

A

Epiphyses

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8
Q

What is contained in the Epiphyses?

A

Yellow Marrow
(Inactive)

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9
Q

Site that eventually separates the epiphysis from the diaphysis and is the site of new bone growth.

A

Epiphyseal Plate

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10
Q

What are the ABCS of looking at Bones on X-Ray?

A

Adequacy and Alignment
Bones
Cartilage
Soft Tissue

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11
Q

How many views should be present to have Adequacy when looking at X-Rays?

A

3 Views
(must have at least 2)

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12
Q

An injury in the foot that occurs under axial load. Dorsal dislocation of the second metatarsal.

A

Lisfranc Injury

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13
Q

Fractures that are not visible on imaging.

A

Occult Fracture

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14
Q

What are the classic examples of Occult Fractures

A

Distal Radius Fracture
Neck of Femur Fracture
Radial Head Fracture
Scaphoid Fracture
Supracondylar Fracture

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15
Q

Fracture of the radial head may show what sign on a X-Ray?

A

Sail Sign

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16
Q

What are the 4 anatomical classes of bone?

A

Long
Short
Flat
Irregular

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17
Q

What type of fracture is seen exclusively in children?

A

Greenstick Fracture

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18
Q

A simple, non-complicated fracture with no skin wounds at or near the fracture site.

A

Closed Fracture

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19
Q

A complicated fracture with a skin wound a possible protrusion of bony fragment.

A

Open Fracture

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20
Q

A fracture that runs horizontally. Also known as a complete fracture.

A

Transverse Fracture

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21
Q

What is an example of a bone that commonly experiences transverse fractures?

A

Tibia

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22
Q

Occurs when the ends of the broken bone are no longer aligned.

A

Displaced Fracture

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23
Q

Term used to describe medial angulation.

A

Varus

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24
Q

Term used to describe lateral angulation.

A

Valgus

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25
Proximal migration of the distal fracture component results in decreased overall bone fracture.
Shortening Fracture
26
Is a an oblique or transverse fracture more likely to have shortening?
Oblique
27
Fracture where the bone is crushed. Almost always vertebral.
Compression Fracture
28
Fractures that occur when one end of an extremity is fixed but the rest of the extremity remains in motion.
Spiral Fracture
29
Accidental Spiral Fractures of the Tibia are common in preschool children who fall short distances onto an extended leg and often called what?
Toddler's Fractures
30
Areas of cartilage located near the ends of bone. They are the last portion of a child's bones to harden (ossify) and are particularly vulnerable to fracture.
Growth Plates
31
What percentage of all childhood fractures are growth plate fractures?
15-30%
32
What types of bone are growth plates found in?
Long Bones
33
How many growth plates are located in long bones?
2
34
Fractures that break through the bone at the growth plate, separating the bone end from the bone shaft and completely disrupting the growth plate.
Salter-Harris Type I
35
Fractures that break through part of the bone at the growth plate and crack through the bone shaft as well. This is the most common type of growth plate fracture.
Salter-Harris Type II
36
Fractures that cross through a portion of the growth plate and break off a piece of the bone end. This type of fracture is more common in older children.
Salter-Harris Type III
37
Fractures that break through the bone shaft, the growth plate, and the end of the bone.
Salter-Harris Type IV
38
Fracture that occur due to a crushing injury to the growth plate from a compression force. Rare type of fracture.
Salter-Harris Type V
39
Fracture that results in more than 2 separate fragments.
Comminuted Fracture
40
Comminuted fracture from 2 oblique fracture that form a specific shape.
Butterfly Fracture
41
Type of Comminuted Fracture where segments of the bone have separated from both the proximal and distal portion of the tibial and fibular shafts.
Segmental Fracture (Tibia and Fibula)
42
A fracture that is usually seen in young children and are an incomplete break.
Greenstick Fracture
43
A fracture of the lower end of the Fibula and medial malleolus of the Tibia. Often occurs in association with a rolled ankle.
Pott's Fracture
44
A fracture where a distal fragment of the radius overrides the rest of the bone. Most commonly results from a fall on an outstretched dorsiflexed hand. Characteristic "Dinner Fork" deformity.
Colles' Fracture
45
Fracture where the distal radial fragment is tested into a posterior angulated and be displaced ventrally. Also known as a Reverse Colles'. Occurs due to a direct blow to the dorsal forearm or falling onto flexed wrists.
Smith's Fracture
46
When looking at imaging of an elbow, what is never considered to be normal?
Posterior Fat Pad
47
Order of Ossification of the Elbow Joint (CRITOE)
Capitellum Radial Head Internal or Medial Epicondyle Trochlea Olecranon External or Lateral Epicondyle
48
What are the two specific markers of alignment when looking at elbow imaging?
Anterior Humeral Line Radiocapitellar Line
49
If a line drawn along the front of the humerus does not intersect the middle or anterior third of the capitellum, what should you suspect?
Supracondylar Fracture
50
If a line drown through the middle of the radius does not pass through the middle of the capitellum, what should you suspect?
Radial Head Dislocation
51
What are the two most common causes of elbow joint effusion? (Fat Pads)
Radial Head Fracture Radial Neck Fracture
52
An elevated anterior fat pad is called what?
Sail Sign
53
What is the most common cause of Elbow Joint Effusion in kids?
Supracondylar Fracture
54
What is the most commonly fractured metatarsal?
5th Metatarsal
55
What is a fracture of the 5th metatarsal called?
Jones Fracture
56
Type of bimalleolar ankle fracture
Dupuytren Fracture
57
Type of imaging that applies a varying magnetic field to the body and aligns atoms. Used to look at soft tissue.
Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
58
What may be used as an IV agent during an MRI?
Gadolinium
59
In this type of MRI, fat appears white or bright and water or CSF is dark.
T1 MRI
60
In this type of MRI, fat is dark and blood, edema, and CSF appear white.
T2 MRI
61
What are two advantages of MRI
Exquisite views of CNS and stationary soft tissues No use of ionizing radiation