LQ 1 Flashcards by SALI BABY

The methods of extraction, storage, and handling of nucleic acid molecules, depends on the type of the tissue from where they were extracted .

TRUE
FALSE

FALSE

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What do these Molecular Testing detect?

thrombophilia mutations (Factor II, Factor V, MTHFR 677, and MTHFR 1298 genotypes
HIV-1 RNA & HBV DNA & HCV RNA
CMV
Mycoplasma pneumoniae & Bordetella pertussis.
influenza A and B viruses

CLEAVASE/INVADER TECHNOLOGY

thrombophilia mutations (Factor II, Factor V, MTHFR 677, and MTHFR 1298 genotypes

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What do these Molecular Testing detect?

thrombophilia mutations (Factor II, Factor V, MTHFR 677, and MTHFR 1298 genotypes
HIV-1 RNA & HBV DNA & HCV RNA
CMV
Mycoplasma pneumoniae & Bordetella pertussis.
influenza A and B viruses

LOOP-MEDIATED AMPLIFICATION (LAMP)

Mycoplasma pneumoniae & Bordetella pertussis

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What do these Molecular Testing detect?

thrombophilia mutations (Factor II, Factor V, MTHFR 677, and MTHFR 1298 genotypes
HIV-1 RNA & HBV DNA & HCV RNA
CMV
Mycoplasma pneumoniae & Bordetella pertussis.
influenza A and B viruses

NICKING ENZYME AMPLIFICATION REACTION (NEAR)

influenza A and B viruses

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In Transcription, the antisense strand is the__.

template strand & non-coding strand???
non-template strand & non-coding strand
template strand & coding strand
non-template strand & coding strand

non-template strand & coding strand

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Muddy brown urine casts with high urine protein are usually seen in

A. Post-renal azotemia
B. Prerenal azotemia
C. Intrarenal azotemia

C. Intrarenal azotemia

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Confirmatory tests require ____ to be certain of the diagnosis.

A.low specificity
B. low sensitivity
C. high specificity
D. high sensitivity

C. high specificity

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A test with a higher sensitivity ____ a greater proportion of persons ____ disease.

A. identifies – without
B.excludes - without
C.identifies – with
D.excludes - with

C.identifies – with

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The fundamental characteristics of TARGET AMPLIFICATION METHODS EXCEPT:

A.The primers bind to complementary sequences on one strand of double-stranded targets.
B.The amplification products in all the techniques are defined by two oligonucleotide primers.
C.They are enzyme-mediated processes that synthesize copies of target nucleic acid.
D.All produce millions to billions of copies of the targeted sequence in a matter of hours

A.The primers bind to complementary sequences on one strand of double-stranded targets.

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Amniocentesis can be typically done during this period of gestation:

A.between 18-20 weeks
B.between 16 and18 weeks
C. between 20 - 28 weeks
D.between 14 and16 weeks

B.between 16 and18 weeks

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The postanalytic evaluation process, on the clinical significance of the Laboratory Test result, includes the following:

A.critical values
B.delta checks
C.reference ranges
D.linearity ranges
E.pretest and posttest probability
F.1st, 3rd, & 5th choices only
G. 2nd & 4th choices only
H.All of the above

F.1st, 3rd, & 5th choices only

A.critical values

C.reference ranges

E.pretest and posttest probability

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Chorionic villus sampling (CVS), which provides tissue from the developing placenta is obtained by the transabdominal or transvaginal procedure, performed at _______ gestation.

A.18 – 22 weeks
B.14 to 18 weeks
C.10 to 14 weeks
D.22-26 weeks

C. 10 to 14 weeks The transabdominal or transvaginal procedure is performed at 10 to 14 weeks gestation.

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The methods of extraction, storage, and handling of nucleic acid molecules, depends on the type of the tissue from where they were extracted.

A.TRUE
B.FALSE

B.FALSE

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In virus, the main enzyme responsible for synthesizing a double helix complementary DNA strand (cDNA) from RNA is___:

A.ribonuclease H
B.RNA polymerase
C.reverse transcriptase
D.integrase

C.reverse transcriptase

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The major cause of simultaneous elevation of prothrombin time & activated partial thromboplastin time is _______.

A.Coumadin therapy
B.Combined Heparin & Coumadin therapy
C.Heparin therapy
D.Disseminated intravascular coagulation
E.Coagulation Factor Deficiency

D.Disseminated intravascular coagulation

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A frequent cause of inadequate samples is the presence of high concentrations of interfering substances in the specimen such as in the following conditions:

A.Lipemia
B.Hemolysis
C.Gammopathies
D.Icterus
E.1st, & 3rd choices only
F.2nd & 4th choices only
G.All of the above

G.All of the above

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How are cytosines connected to guanines?

A.10 hydrogen bonds
B.2 hydrogen bonds
C.3 hydrogen bonds
D.25 hydrogen bonds

C.3 hydrogen bonds

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It is the process of comparing a current laboratory result with results obtained on a previous specimen from the same patient.

A.critical values
B.delta checks
C.reference ranges
D.linearity ranges
E.pretest and posttest probability
F,1st, 3rd, & 5th choices only
G.2nd & 4th choices only
H.All of the above

B.delta checks

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These are laboratory results that may represent a life-threatening situation that may not otherwise be readily detectable.

A.critical values
B.delta checks
C.reference ranges
D.linearity ranges
E.pretest and posttest probability
F.1st, 3rd, & 5th choices only
G.2nd & 4th choices only
H.All of the above

A.critical values

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The usual blood gas picture in a patient with diabetes mellitus.

A.Metabolic alkalosis
B.Respiratory acidosis
C.Metabolic acidosis
D.Respiratory alkalosis

C.Metabolic acidosis

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Osler’s rule.

A.For patients under the age of 60 years, try to attribute all abnormal laboratory findings to a single cause.
B.Never rely on a single out-of-reference range value to make a diagnosis.
C.Only if there is no possible way to correlate all abnormal findings should the possibility of multiple diagnoses be entertained.
D.1st & 3rd choices only
E.1st & 2nd choices only
F.All of the above

D.1st & 3rd choices only

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Which findings would be diagnostic of a severe liver failure?

Choices: Decreased
Increased

serum bilirubin
total protein
De Ritis ratio
Lactate Dehydrogenase

serum bilirubin - increased
total protein - decreased
De Ritis ratio - increased
Lactate Dehydrogenase - increased

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A patient complaining of dizziness has the following Lab results below. Microcytic Normocytic erythrocytes; Normal serum iron/total Iron binding capacity ratio; Decreased red cell count; Normal iron binding capacity; Decreased serum iron; Normal red cell distribution width; High ferritin. What is the most probable diagnosis?

A.Anemia of Chronic Disease
B.Renal Failure
C.Aplastic Anemia
D.Iron Deficiency Anemia
E.Hemolytic Anemia
F.Megaloblastic Anemia

A. Anemia of Chronic Disease

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Which findings would be diagnostic of massive muscle tissue necrosis?

Myoglobin
Potassium
Creatine Kinase (CK)

Myoglobin - increase
Potassium - increase
Creatine Kinase (CK) - increase
????

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A jaundiced patient with **all high serum** enzymes & bilirubin, **but normal protein**, is most likely to have _____. A.Obstructed cystic duct B.Inflamed liver C.Hemolytic anemia D.Hepatoma

B.Inflamed liver

MOLECULAR TESTS for Disease Detection REVERSE LINE-BLOT HYBRIDIZATION * gene expression profiling & DNA sequencing * HIV-1 RNA & HBV DNA & HCV RNA * CMV * cytokines in inflammation * M tuberculosis

M tuberculosis

MOLECULAR TESTS for Disease Detection ASSAYS CAPTURE HYBRID * gene expression profiling & DNA sequencing * HIV-1 RNA & HBV DNA & HCV RNA * CMV * cytokines in inflammation * M tuberculosis

* CMV

MOLECULAR TESTS for Disease Detection MICROARRAYS OLIGONUCLEOTIDE * gene expression profiling & DNA sequencing * HIV-1 RNA & HBV DNA & HCV RNA * CMV * cytokines in inflammation * M tuberculosis

* gene expression profiling & DNA sequencing

MOLECULAR TESTS for Disease Detection **MACR**OARRAYS * gene expression profiling & DNA sequencing * HIV-1 RNA & HBV DNA & HCV RNA * CMV * cytokines in inflammation * M tuberculosis

* cytokines in inflammation

These cells can be cultivated and made to undergo more than twice but a limited number of divisions before senescence by adding cytokines and lectins to the growth media. A.Neutrophils B.gastrointestinal mucosal cells C.nasal epithelial cells D.fibroblasts E.Lymphocytes

A.Neutrophils

Which findings would be diagnostic of disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC) in a patient with fulminant liver failure? Choices: Decreased Increased activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) partial thromboplastin time (PTT) D-dimer platelet counts

activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) - increased partial thromboplastin time (PTT) - increased D-dimer - increased platelet counts - decreased

Factors That Influence Reference Ranges: Choices: * inter-individual variation * pre-analytical factor with physician as specimen collector * analyst & laboratory factor A.time between receipt of specimen and analysis

* pre-analytical factor with physician as specimen collector

Factors That Influence Reference Ranges: Choices: * inter-individual variation * pre-analytical factor with physician as specimen collector * analyst & laboratory factor exposure to environmental factors

* inter-individual variation

Factors That Influence Reference Ranges: Choices: * inter-individual variation * pre-analytical factor with physician as specimen collector * analyst & laboratory factor .time between specimen collection and specimen endorsement

* pre-analytical factor with physician as specimen collector

Factors That Influence Reference Ranges: Choices: * inter-individual variation * pre-analytical factor with physician as specimen collector * analyst & laboratory factor sample transport

* inter-individual variation

Factors That Influence Reference Ranges: Choices: * inter-individual variation * pre-analytical factor with physician as specimen collector * analyst & laboratory factor type of laboratory methods

* analyst & laboratory factor

In the documentation of panic values, the following information should be written & recorded except: A.name of patient B.title or position of the caregiver who is notified C.the time and date of notification D.the read-back by the health care worker E.critical value F.name of caregiver G.All except 1st & 5th choices H.All except 2nd & 6th choices I.No exception

I.No exception

The most common site for cervical neoplastic changes. A.Cervical-vaginal junction B.Endometrial-endocervical junction C.Endocervical-exocervical junction

C.Endocervical-exocervical junction

A “Normal of Negative FNAC” report means: A.the absence of any disease B.the Physician could have missed the tumor location C.the tumor could be fibrotic & less cellular D.the tumor could be predominantly fluid with scarce cells E.last 3 choices only F.All of the above

F.All of the above

This factor on the part of the Clinician affects greatly the accuracy of the cytologic examination: A.sample collection B.interpretation of smears C.patient & sample preparation D.staining of the material E.1st & 3rd choices only F.2nd & 4th choices only G.All of the above

E.1st & 3rd choices only

Obtaining specimens from the vaginal posterior fornix is an example of ___. A.aspiration cytology B.exfoliative cytology C.abrasive cytology

B.exfoliative cytology

Rhonda K. Roby, a major author on DNA analysis for identification, traced the 1st ever recorded parentage argument to the time of the King who was granted _____. A.King Solomon, God gave him much with wisdom and riches B.the gene for being genius C.divine wisdom confirm D.doctorate degree in counseling E.scholarly wisdom

C.divine wisdom confirm

Sputum collection for Tuberculosis must be collected this number of times before proclaiming a patient as Negative: A.One time only if chest X-ray is negative B.Twice in any day for a week C.Once daily x 3 consecutive days D.Thrice in one day 4 hours apart

C.Once daily x 3 consecutive days

Uses of DNA analysis includes: A.inclusion or exclusion of crime suspect B.help answer specimen mix-ups in the Lab C.inclusion or exclusion of paternity claims D.reconstruction of families E.1st & 3rd choices only F.2nd & 4th choices only G.All of the above

G.All of the above

DNA is useful as marker because____ A.it is present in all cells of the body B.it has the same structure in each body cell C.it could withstand most environmental insults D.its testing is very sensitive when replication enzyme is used E.1st & 2nd choices only F.3rd & 4th choices only G.All of the above

G.All of the above

This DNA can be retrieved from calcified postmortem bone even for centuries. A.nuclear DNA B.nucleoid DNA C.mitochondrial DNA D.any of the above Source: Identity Analysis PPT

C.mitochondrial DNA

Paternity can be proven by the following tests: A.laboratory chemical testing of blood & body fluids for child & alleged father B.blood typing of child & alleged father C.DNA analysis D.2nd & 3rd choices only E.All of the above

D.2nd & 3rd choices only

Routine blood group used for investigations in cases of disputed parentage EXCEPT: Duffy ABO HLA Rh Lewis

Lewis

What is the maximum but adequate amount of amniotic fluid can a physician withdraw without endangering the fetus: 20 to 30 mL 5-10 mL 30-50 mL 20 to 40 mL

20 to 30 mL

How would you apply each Type of Cytological techniques? * Abrasive cytology * Aspiration cytology * Exfoliative cytology Avoided urine

Exfoliative cytology

How would you apply each Type of Cytological techniques? * Abrasive cytology * Aspiration cytology * Exfoliative cytology buccal mucosal smear

* Abrasive cytology

How would you apply each Type of Cytological techniques? * Abrasive cytology * Aspiration cytology * Exfoliative cytology breast tumor

* Aspiration cytology

How would you apply each Type of Cytological techniques? * Abrasive cytology * Aspiration cytology * Exfoliative cytology thyroid nodule

* Aspiration cytology

This/These is/are TRUE of chromatographic tests, except : * Gas Chromatography-Mass Spectroscopy is the gold-standard for detection and quantitation of volatile compounds. * Capillary electrophoresis is one example * Applied mainly to the qualitative detection of drugs of abuse and toxins * In Enzyme-mediated immunologic technique (EMIT),the drug is covalently attached to an enzyme and separated in a high resistance flow column.

* In Enzyme-mediated immunologic technique (EMIT),the drug is covalently attached to an enzyme and separated in a high resistance flow column.

Among the bodytissues, this is /these are the most stable source/s of postmortem tissue DNA: Bone liver brain teeth 1st & 4th choices only 2nd & 3rd choices only all of the above

1st & 4th choices only

The major cause of simultaneous elevation of prothrombin time & activated partial thromboplastin time is a Coumadin therapy Coagulation Factor Deficiency Disseminated intravascular coagulation Combined Heparin & Coumadin therapy Heparin therapy

Disseminated intravascular coagulation

A double swab techniqueis the preferred method for collection of DNA in the following condition: from large pools of blood and bloodstains. dry biologic fluid from bitemarks on bodies biologic fluid deposited on a surface

from bitemarks on bodies

TRUE of neuroleptics and antipsychotic major tranquilizers : A. Difficult to monitor the levels in serum because of the large number of metabolites of each drug. B. Reference ranges for serum levels have not been established. C. used mainly in the treatment of acute schizophrenia used mainly in Tx of schizophrenia, D. A Block the actions of dopamine and serotonin postsynaptically in the limbic system and motorcortex E.. 1st, 2nd, & 4th choices only F. . 2nd, 3rd, & 4th choices only G. 1st, 3rd, & 4th choices only H. All of the above

H. All of the above

The following are true of environmental toxins: A. Acquired hemochromatosis is caused by overingestion of iron. B. The most common drug of abuse is ethanol. C. Organophosphates contained in pesticides interfere with neurotransmission by inhibiting the enzyme acetylcholinesterase (AChE). D. Arsenic is used in rodenticides, herbicides, insecticides, ceramics, production of livestock feed and medicines. E. 1st & 3rd choices only F. 2nd & 4th choices only G. All of the above

G. All of the above

Lead in blood: A. ls measured in serum and plasma B. Absorption may occur by inhalation or ingestion. C. Both organic and inorganic compounds may be highly toxic. D. Most serious effects occur in the CNS and peripheral nervous system. E. 1st, 2nd, & 3rd choices only F. 2nd, 3rd, & 4th choices only G. 1st, 3rd, & 4th choices only H. All of the above

F. 2nd, 3rd, & 4th choices only B. Absorption may occur by inhalation or ingestion. C. Both organic and inorganic compounds may be highly toxic. D. Most serious effects occur in the CNS and peripheral nervous system

DNA in the pathology laboratory can be used to resolve specimen mix-ups confirm or refute mislabeling of biopsy specimens. true resolved alleged sample switching evaluate engraftment of marrow after transplantation 1st & 2nd choices only 3rd & 4th choices only All of the above

All of the above

The immunoglobulin that initiate aspects of the allergic reaction and binds to basophils via the Fe region. IgG IgA IgE IgM

IgE

Absence of an expected genetic marker in a child when the parent in question appears to be homozygous (one allele present) for the gene: two-haplotype exclusion indirect exclusion reverse homozygosity 1st & 2nd choices only 2nd & 3rd choices only All of the above

2nd & 3rd choices only

Acute poisoning may be caused by which of the following? Lead Iron Arsenic carbon monoxide Cyanide

carbon monoxide

Aspiration biopsy procedure is not indicated for: the spleen patients with bleeding disorders patient at risk for bleeding from chemo-radiation or from cancer itself patient taking blood thinning drugs. Last 3 choice only All of the above

All of the above

Differentiate between the following Cytopathology procedures: * involves examination of **spontaneously sledded cells** from lining of an organ into a cavity * examination of cells c**ollected or removed by brushing or artificial mechanical desquamation** * a procedure in which a **thin needle is inserted into a swelling** to collect a sample of cells or some amount of fluid * a percutaneous procedure that involves **removing a piece of tissue from a lesion** or mass, using a hollow needle * **cutting a sample** of the suspicious tissue from a mass for purposes of Diagnosis **CORE NEEDLE BIOPSY**

* a percutaneous procedure that involves **removing a piece of tissue from a lesion** or mass, using a **hollow** needle

* involves examination of **spontaneously sledded cells** from lining of an organ into a cavity

* examination of cells c**ollected or removed by brushing or artificial mechanical desquamation**

* a procedure in which a **thin needle is inserted into a swelling** to collect a sample of cells or some amount of fluid

* **cutting a sample** of the suspicious tissue from a mass for purposes of Diagnosis

The presence of these cells confirm the specimen as “sputum” rather than “mere saliva’. A. flat squamous cells saliva B. foamy macrophages C. columnar ciliated cells D. Neutrophils puede nis sputum kay bacterial E. 2nd & 3rd choices only? All of the above

E. 2nd & 3rd choices only?

If helper T-cells (subset type 1) are induced by IL-12, what cytokine induces the helper T-cells (subset type 2) ? IL-4 IL-17 IL-5 IFN-y

IL-4

Molecular Techniques are used in the medical field for the following purpose EXCEPT: detecting abnormal genes in patient specimens establishing patterns of gene expression that are characteristic of specific diseases. germline genetic modification” diagnosis of different types of cancers

germline genetic modification”

True of basic techniques/methods for detecting drugs in serum and urine, except: a. In Thin-layer chromatography, compounds are separated based on their relative affinities for a polar solid stationary phase. b. Nonvolatile compounds can be detected using Liquid chromatography-Mass spectroscopy. c. In EMIT and FPIA, the drug serum concentration and the color resulting from the enzymatic reaction and decrease in fluorescence polarization is nonlinear. d. In both chromatographic techniques and homogeneous methods, the drug must bind to antibody before it is detected. e. In HPLC, The internal standard is similar in structure to the drug/s of interest and added in a known concentration, and the percentage of recovery from the column is extrapolated for al drugs of interest.

d. In both chromatographic techniques and homogeneous methods, the drug must bind to antibody before it is detected.

The micronutrient essential for thymic development and is severely deficient in malnourished patients. iron selenium zinc vitamin C

zinc

In the documentation of panic values, the following information should be written & recorded except: name of patient title or position of the caregiver who is notified the time and date of notification the read-back by the health care worker critical value name of caregiver All except 1st & 5th choices All except 2nd & 6th choices No exception

No exception

Diagnose: **high 24hr urine sodium**, **low urine osmolality**, **low serum sodium** SIADH Bartter’s syndrome Diabetes insipidus Dehydration

SIADH

It is the predominant antibody in secretions IgM IgD IgG IgA”

IgA”

Reasons for difficulty of obtaining reference ranges for antidepressants are: Most are metabolized using the cytochrome P450 system and different antidepressants require different isoforms of cytochrome P450 large numbers of metabolites that vary significantly in concentration in individuals. Most are lipophilic and therefore stored in tissue and slowly released High volumes of distribution of these drugs. all are correct

all are correct

A frequent cause of inadequate samples is the presence of high concentrations of interfering substances in the specimen such as in the following conditions: Lipemia Hemolysis Gammopathies Icterus 1st, & 3rd choices only 2nd & 4th choices only All of the above

All of the above

The following statements are CORRECT regarding Mitochondrial DNA EXCEPT: useful for identifying remains. hundreds to thousands of copies per cell inherited from both parents small-sized

inherited from both parents

To ensure documentation of the identification of the tested individuals & the collection of evidences, the following are the CORRECT steps EXCEPT: documents showing the chain of custody of samples appropriate informed consent- true ni record of hematopoietic stem cell transplant. history of any recent transfusion in the preceding month samples individually packaged, sealed, and stored

history of any recent transfusion in the preceding month

The first and most critical step for evidence: requesting informed consent noting recent transfusion in the preceding month documenting the chain of custody of samples recording hematopoietic stem cell transplant.protein extraction of DNA from biologic sources

extraction of DNA from biologic sources

he usual blood gas picture in a patient with diabetes mellitus. Metabolic alkalosis Respiratory alkalosis Metabolic acidosis Respiratory acidosis

Metabolic acidosis

he use of fixatives, such as alcohol, formalin, or a mixture of both is indicated in al types of cells / tissue sampling techniques. True in biopsy techniques only False True in all techniques Fresh specimens may not be soaked in fixatives True in cytology techniques only

True in all techniques

When do you put the smears &/or tissue in the fixative solution? right after slide smearing or as soon as tissue is collected immediately after air drying the cytology smears instantly after the surgical biopsy wound is sutured as soon as the physician gets the opportunity 2nd & 3rd choices only All of the above

right after slide smearing or as soon as tissue is collected

The simplest of the cells / tissue sampling techniques: Surgical biopsy Core needle biopsy Abrasive cytology Aspiration cytology Exfoliative cytology

Exfoliative cytology

The fundamental characteristics of TARGET AMPLIFICATION METHODS EXCEPT: a. TRUE All produce millions to billions of copies of the targeted sequence in a matter of hours b. The amplification products in al the techniques are defined by two oligonucleotide primers. c. They are enzyme-mediated processes that synthesize copies of target nucleic acid. d. The primers bind to complementary sequences on one strand of double-stranded targets.

d. The primers bind to complementary sequences on one strand of double-stranded targets.

A phase of clinically evaluating a suspected patient with immunodeficiency which utilizes thymic MRI imaging and skin testing analytic immune stage confirmatory stage screening stage none of these 3 choices

confirmatory stage

An antigenic substances can be composed of: large polysaccharides proteins glycoproteins all of these 3 choices

all of these 3 choices

Which findings would be diagnostic of massive muscle tissue necrosis? decreased increased Potassium

increase

Which findings would be diagnostic of massive muscle tissue necrosis? decreased increased Myoglobin

increase

Which findings would be diagnostic of massive muscle tissue necrosis? decreased increased creatine kinase (CK)

increased

High- grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (HSIL) comprise of the following findings: Koilocytosis & Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia (CIN 1) (Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia) CIN 2 & CIN 3 1st & 2nd choices only All of the above

(Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia) CIN 2 & CIN 3

Pap smear is recommended every 1-2 years for the following: women between ages 18 -70 years who have ever had sexual activity women of any age who are sexually active 1st & 2nd choices only All of the above dili kani??

1st & 2nd choices only ????

Which statement is correct regarding Sputum collection for acid fast bacilli testing? sputum specimen must be collected on three consecutive days each sputum smear on from each collection day must become positive collect only once if first smear is positive for AFB. 1st & 3rd choices only All of the above

sputum specimen must be collected on three consecutive days

Chorionic villus sampling (CVS), which provides tissue from the developing placenta is obtained by the transabdominal or transvaginal procedure, performed at gestation. 22-26 weekshigh 10 to 14 weeks 14 to 18 weeks 18 - 22 weeks

10 to 14 weeks

To preserve the DNA, this specimen should be transported in ice: bone marrow amniotic fluid blood chorionic vili solid tissue

solid tissue

Interpret: Normal T4&TSH, no mass lesion Normal Euthyroid Either A or B none of the above

Either A or B

These cells can be cultivated and made to undergo more than twice but a limited number of divisions before senescence by adding cytokines and lectins to the growth media. fibroblasts Neutrophils Lymphocytes nasal epithelial cells gastrointestinal mucosal cells

Neutrophils

These are laboratory results that may represent a life-threatening situation that may not otherwise be readily detectable. critical values delta checks reference ranges linearity ranges pretest and posttest probability 1st, 3rd, & 5th choices only 2nd & 4th choices only

critical values

In progenitor stem cell transplantation what comes out in the result. the DNA of recipient's parents the donor's DNA the recipient’s DNA

the donor's DNA

Interpret: Elevated TSH, Normal RDW Primary hyperthyroidism Primary adrenalism Euthyroid Hypothyroidism

Hypothyroidism

Infection with this organism can result to squamous koilocytotic atypia, dysplasias, & eventually to carcinoma when untreated. Human Papillomaviru Gardnerella vaginalis Trichomonas vaginalis Monilia Herpes Simplex

Human Papillomaviru

Given the correct culture conditions, these cells can divide and grow in vitro for 50-100 generations. Lymphocytes gastrointestinal mucosal cells nasal epithelial cells Neutrophils Fibroblasts MRC5 cells are secondary human lung fibroblasts

Fibroblasts

MOLECULAR TESTING FOR DISEASES * HPV; thrombophilia mutations (Factor I,Factor V) * Clostridium difficile; group A and Group B beta hemolytic streptococci; Mycoplasma pneumoniae; * Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Chlamydia trachomatis, Human papillomavirus (HPV);Trichomonas vaginalis, * influenza A and B viruses * HIV-1 RNA; HBV DNA,; HCV RNA LOOP-MEDIATED AMPLIFICATION (LAMP)

* Clostridium difficile; group A and Group B beta hemolytic streptococci; Mycoplasma pneumoniae;

* thrombophilia mutations (Factor I,Factor V) (Factor II, Factor V, MTHFR 677, and MTHFR 1298 genotypes

* influenza A and B viruses

* Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Chlamydia trachomatis, Human papillomavirus (HPV);Trichomonas vaginalis,

The principle behind this instrument is to categorize cells based on their size and nuclear complexity. It is primarily used to classify different types of leukemia. Microlymphocytotoxicity by dye exclusion Enzyme-Inked immunosorbent spot assay Protein electrophoresis Flow Cytometry

Flow Cytometry

These can destroy the stability of DNA: detergents gasoline metal ions Ultraviolet radiation 3rd & 4th choices only 1st & 2nd choices only All of the above

3rd & 4th choices only ???

TRUE of Control swabs Except: packaged separately, and clearly labelled collected adjacent to the fluid stain collected to either convict or free the accused collected one item at a time collected from an unstained area

collected to either convict or free the accused

The laboratory test that determines the presence of markers of immunoglobulins synthesized in the central nervous system due to an autoimmune disease or an immunologic response to an infection. Immunofixation electrophoresis Cryoglobulin testing Oligoclonal immunoglobulim band testing Immunoglobulin free light chain analysis

Oligoclonal immunoglobulim band testing

Which findings would be diagnostic of a severe liver failure? increased decreased total protein De Ritis ratio Lactate Dehydrogenase serum bilirubin

total protein-decreased De Ritis ratio-increased Lactate Dehydrogenase-increased serum bilirubin-increased

Interpret: Normal AST, Normal ALT, Low total protein, low albumin, high ammonia Primary adrenalism Cirrhosis Fulminant failure Metabolic acidosis

Cirrhosis

A jaundiced patient with al high serum enzymes & bilirubin, but normal protein, is most likely to have a Obstructed cystic duct Hemolytic anemia Inflamed liver Hepatoma

Inflamed liver

Advantages of DNA Testing EXCEPT: a. DNA is resistant to strong acids, alkalis, detergents, and environmental factors. yes b. allows for individualization of the source of the semen c. DNA results can be obtained from minute samples and even invisible trace DNA deposits. d. DNA testing can only be performed on fresh specimens yesyes

d. DNA testing can only be performed on fresh specimens yesyes

A patient complaining of dizziness has the following Lab results below. Microcytic Normocytic erythrocytes; Normal serum iron /total Iron binding capacity ratio; Decreased red cell count; Normal iron binding capacity; Decreased serum iron; Normal red cell distribution width; High ferritin. What is the most probable diagnosis? Anemia of Chronic Disease Renal Failure Hemolytic Anemia Iron Deficiency Anemia Megaloblastic Anemia Aplastic Anemia

Anemia of Chronic Disease

Diagnose: **Low 24 hrs** urine sodium, **normal urine osmolalit**y, **high serum sodium**, **low urine sodium ** a. Damage to the left parietal lobe can result in what is called "Gerstmann's Syndrome." It includes right-left confusion, difficulty with writing (agraphia) and difficulty with mathematics (acalculia). Itcan also produce disorders of language (aphasia) and the inability to perceive objects normally (agnosia). b. Diuretics effect c. Adrenal failure d. Cushing's disease

d. Cushing's disease

In the criminalistics context, DNA can be used: to link or exculpate a suspect to a crime, to recognize serial crimes to aid in accident reconstruction identification of human remains 1st & 2nd choices only 3rd & 4th choices only All of the above

All of the above

Muddy brown urine casts with high urine protein is usually seen in a Intrarenal azotemia Prerenal azotemia Post-renal azotemia

Intrarenal azotemia

the antigenic stimuli for activating the cellular response comes from the following areas of the cell ,except: mitochondrial cytosolic extracellular endosomal

mitochondrial

Osler’s rule. a. For patient under the age of 60 years, try to attribute al abnormal laboratory findings to a single cause. b. Never rely on a single out-of-reference range value to make a diagnosis. c. Only if there is no possible way to correlate al abnormal findings should the possibility of multiple diagnoses be entertained. d. 1st & 3rd choices only e, 1st & 2nd choices only f. All of the above

d. 1st & 3rd choices only

In virus, the main enzyme responsible for synthesizing a double helix complementary DNA strand (cDNA) from RNA is__: RNA polymerase ribonuclease H reverse transcriptase integrase

reverse transcriptase

An allele present in the child but not in the mother is referred to as the ___. obligatory paternal gene (OG) direct exclusion gene obligatory paternal allele 1st & 3rd choices only All of the above

1st & 3rd choices only

collected for therapeutic drug monitoring Choices: Urine saliva serum stool

serum

used for screening in the Emergency Room setting - Choices: Urine saliva serum stool

urine

What is the ‘gold standard’ for detection and quantitation of volatile drugs and poisons? A.Gas chromatography-mas spectroscopy (GC-MS) B.High-Performance Liquid chromatograpy (HPLC) C.Thin-layer chromatography (TLC)

A.Gas chromatography-mas spectroscopy (GC-MS)

What are the areas of study / application in Toxicology? A.detection of drugs of abuse A. detection of drugs of abuse B.determination of levels of therapeutic drug C.detection of markers D.detection of toxins E.1st & 3rd choices only F.2nd & 4th choices only G.All of the above Source:Toxicology and Therapeutic PPT

G.All of the above

What is the psychoactive agent of ‘marijuana’? A.Delta-9 tetrahydrocannabinol B.3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine C.Methamphetamine HCL

A.Delta-9 tetrahydrocannabinol

Predominant immunoglobulin in secretions * IgE IgA IgG IgM

IgA

Identify the Immunoglobulin in the picture below IgG IgA IgE IgM

IgM

The immunoglobulin that exists as a dimer IgG IgA IgE IgM

IgA

Immunoglobulin that can cross the placenta IgG IgA IgE IgM

IgG

Immunoglobulin present during the early stages of an immune response to an infection IgG IgA IgE IgM

IgM

This test for COVID-19 virus needs a respiratory specimen: PCR testing Antigen Testing Antibody testing kini blood 1st & 2nd choices only 2nd & 3rd choices only All of the above

1st & 2nd choices only

all are correct

The four areas of study in Toxicology include the following, except: detection of toxins the individual is exposed to - yes determination of levels of therapeutic drugs administered to patients detection of mutated proteins and abnormal DNA sequences detection of drugs no exception

no exception

All of the following statements about Drugs of abuse are correct, except : The tricyclic antidepressants are used to treat psychotic states such as schizophrenia. Many of these drugs act directly on dopaminergic and norepinephrinergic neurotransmitter systems. Rapid emergency room screening methods are Thin-layer chromatography and EMIT. Employment screening and forensic testing would require an independent confirmatory technique from the screen method. Most compounds contain a basic amino-group.

The tricyclic antidepressants are used to treat psychotic states such as schizophrenia. NEUROLEPTIC DAW DAPAT

This/These are true as to the following anti-inflammatory drugs: Aspirin is a steroidal compound that is an analgesic and antipyretic. Acetaminophen is preferred over Aspirin as toxicity never occur. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents block cyclooxygenase. Acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin) exhibits anticoagulant activity though inhibition of COX in platelets. All of the above are true.

Acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin) exhibits anticoagulant activity though inhibition of COX in platelets.

Monitoring of therapeutic drugs is essential because of the following reasons: Possible toxic side effects of medications Lack of patient compliance resulting in subtherapeutic levels that may require intervention. To achieve a constant serum level that will be therapeutic Therapeutic efficacy of metabolites of some therapeutic drugs are unknown. 1st & 3rd choices only 2nd & 4th choices only All of the above

All of the above

Effects of carbon monoxide intoxication on the body : inhibits a variety of phosphodiesterases, thereby causing bronchoconstriction and apnea. binds avidly to iron causing inactivation of iron containing enzymes in redox reactions. blocks the synthesis of tetrahydrofolic acid resulting in blockage of DNA synthesis. produces tissue hypoxia as a result of decreased oxygen transport accumulates in soft tissues and bone in chronic toxicity.

produces tissue hypoxia as a result of decreased oxygen transport

It is the most primitive of all the immunoglobulins and primarily confined to the intravascular space. IgG IgE IgA IgM

IgM

Corticosteroids are : highly effective anti-inflammatory agents effective in blocking inflammation by similar mechanisms as Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. used to treat congenital hyperbilirubinemia as it enhances the metabolism of bilirubin by inductionof cytochrome P450- dependent enzymes. Side effects are fluid retention, osteoporosis, GI bleeding, mental changes 1st, 2nd, & 3rd choices only 2nd, 3rd, & 4th choices only 1st, 2nd, & 4th choices only All of the above

1st, 2nd, & 4th choices only ?

It is the best studied immunoglobulin isotype and possess a high diffusion coefficient. IgE IgM IgG IgA

IgG

The mechanisms of drugs of abuse include: stimulate pathways that utilize norepinephrine as the neurotransmitter binds to sodium-potassium activated ATPase thereby blocking sodium efflux Undergo metabolism in the extramitochondrial microsomal system in hepatocytes - extramitochondrial , microsomal system of hepatocytes (oxidative) block sodium influx and secondary calcium influxes 1st, 2nd, & 3rd choices only 2nd, 3rd, & 4th choices only 1st, 3rd, & 4th choices only All of the above

2nd, 3rd, & 4th choices only

At what part of the antibody do antigens react/bind to? Fab region secretory component Fc region Disulfide bonds

Fc region ???

This is NOT TRUE regarding using DNA as an identity marker: different in all individuals including identical twins the same in all cells of the body except the gametocytes present throughout all the nucleated cells of the body the same throughout life from the time of conception

different in all individuals including identical twins

The mechanisms of action of the cardiotropics in slowing down electrical conduction include: block sodium influx in phase I of the action potential increase length of the action potential by blocking repolarizing potassium currents inhibit the chronotropic effects of epinephrine and norepinephrinecoumadi increase the length or refractory period by slowing the influx of calcium ions 1st & 3rd choices only 2nd & 4th choices only All of the above

All of the above

# IS What determines the nomenclature of an immunoglobulin? the isotype of the light chain the Fc region the secretory component the isotype of the heavy chain

the isotype of the heavy chain

The zone wherein antigen and antibodies are approximately of equal molar concentration and where the largest antibody-antigen complexes occur/formeqed. zone of equivalence zone of disequivalence zone of proportionality zone of antibody equity

zone of equivalence

# * Drugs used in the treatment of clinical depression include: Tricyclic antidepressants Monoamine oxidase inhibitors trazodone and doxepin lithium Selective serotonin Reuptake inhibitors

Selective serotonin Reuptake inhibitors

Interpret: Elevated TSH, Normal RDW Primary hyperthyroidism Primary adrenalism Euthyroid Hypothyroidism

Hypothyroidism

True statements of sedative-hypnotics, except: . Cannabis (marijuana), smoked or ingested orally is readily stored in the body fat and maybe detected in the urine 1-4 wks from ingestion. Methaqualone is a local anesthetic that possess anticonvulsant and antitussive properties. The sedative-hypnotic effects of barbiturates is due to the selective inhibition of the reticular activating system. Cocaine is the oldest and most widely used of the mind-altering drugs. All of the barbiturates are fat-soluble and pass easily across the blood-brain barrier.

Cocaine is the oldest and most widely used of the mind-altering drugs.

This/ These is/ are TRUE of Immunosuppressives: used to suppress both the humoral and cell-mediated immune systems. Corticosteroids are the drugs of choice for use in maintenance of kidney and liver allografts because of their accessibility (false dapat cyclosporine Many are antibiotics like rapamycin and mycophenolate mofetil. Tacrolimus is the drug of choice in organ transplantation because of the absence of potential toxicities 1s & 3rd choices only 2nd & 4th choices only All of the above

1s & 3rd choices only

For CD4+ T-lymphocytes to be activated, the antigen presenting cells displays the antigen via this complex receptor. Major histocompatibility complex receptor class II Major histocompatibility comlex receptor class I Fc region/receptor Fab region

Major histocompatibility complex receptor class II

A phase of clinically evaluating a suspected patient with immunodeficiency which correlates medical history and family history with complete blood counts and isohemagglutinin titers. analytic immune stage screening stage none of these 3 choices confirmatory stage

screening stage

The primary medicinal use of Opiates is: sedative-hypnotics local anesthesia analgesic/ to diminish or eliminate pain in a patient. antitussive tranquilizers

analgesic/ to diminish or eliminate pain in a patient.

The following are techniques for detecting drugs in serum, except: Fluorescence polarization immunoassay Hemagglutination inhibition immunoassay Thin-layer chromatography High performance liquid chromatography Microparticle enzyme immunoassay (Tacrolimus)

Hemagglutination inhibition immunoassay

== The laboratory test that determines the presence of markers of immunoglobulins synthesized in the central nervous system due to an autoimmune disease or an immunologic response to an infection. Immunofixation electrophoresis Cryoglobulin testing Oligoclonal immunoglobulim band testing Immunoglobulin free light chain analysis

Oligoclonal immunoglobulim band testing

The following are examples of toxins, except : Ethanol Mercury Cyanide Iron Lithium

Iron

The following statements are true of Anti-asthmatics, except : Theophylline is used for prevention of attacks and treatment of symptomatic exacerbations. The basic mechanisms of these drugs result in relaxation of smooth muscle relaxation in the small airways Oral anti-inflammatory agents interrupt the leukotriene/ arachidonic acid pathways involved in inflammation and bronchial reactivitiy true Subcutaneous injection of epinephrine relieves bronchoconstriction in acute asthma attacks. No exception.

Subcutaneous injection of epinephrine relieves bronchoconstriction in acute asthma attacks.

Phenobarbital as an anticonvulsant, possess this/these following characteristics, except neuronal membrane stabilizer through intercalation given for withdrawal symptoms in infants born to opiate or barbiturate-addicted mothers. Induce a number of the cytochrome P450 systems Diminishes frequency of firing action potentials by potentiating the gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) effect no exception

no exception

Regarding Amphetamines : Effectively detected by Thin layer chromatography and Enzyme-mediated immunologic technique . Best specimen for detection by chromatography is urine. They bear close resemblance to epinephrine and norepinephrine and maybe expected to exert sympathomimetic effects May be confused with some antihistamines in routine testing. All are correct

All are correct

The following drugs slow down the electrical conduction in the heart by their effects on the action potentials in myocytes and conduction system. Lidocaine block rapid sodium influx in phase 1 Betablockers like propranolol increases the intrasarcolemmal concentration of calcium Amiodarone inhibits the chronotropic effects of adrenergic neurotransmitters. Class IV drugs like Verapamil increasethe length of the refractory period by blocking the repolarizing potassium currents

Lidocaine block rapid sodium influx in phase 1

the immunoglobulin whose Fc region binds to receptors of phagocytic cells (i.e. macrophages) IgE IgA IgM IgG

IgG

LQ 1 Flashcards

(168 cards)