LQ1 SKIN Flashcards

(50 cards)

1
Q

Pacinian corpuscles

A. Epidermis
B. Dermis
C. Hypodermis

A

C. Hypodermis

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2
Q

Dendritic cells
A. Epidermis
B. Dermis
C. Hypodermis

A

A. Epidermis

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3
Q

Ruffini’s endings

A. Epidermis
B. Dermis
C. Hypodermis

A

B. Dermis

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4
Q

Langerhan’s cells

A. Epidermis
B. Dermis
C. Hypodermis

A

A. Epidermis

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5
Q

Autonomic nerve fibers
A. Epidermis
B. Dermis
C. Hypodermis

A

A. Epidermis

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6
Q

The thinnest layer of the epidermis contains melanocytes?

A. Stratum corneum
B. Stratum lucidum
C. Stratum basale
D. Stratum granulare

A

C. Stratum basale

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7
Q

The thick layer of the epidermis contains
dead keratinocytes?

A. Stratum corneum
B. Stratum lucidum
C. Stratum basale
D. Stratum granulare

A

B. Stratum lucidum

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8
Q

At the dermo-epidermal junction, the most
dominant type of collagen is

A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

A

A. Type I

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9
Q

Which of the following statements about
the skin is NOT TRUE

A. The epidermis consists of continually
regenerating stratified epithelium and
90% are keratinocytes
B. The dermis anchors the epidermis to
the subcutaneous tissue and is made
up of 90% collagen type I
C. The AV shunts run in 2 parallel
plexuses and are located in the
dermis
D. The lymphatic channels run in 2
parallel plexuses and are located
within the epidermis and at the
junction of the dermis and
hypodermis

A

D. The lymphatic channels run in 2
parallel plexuses and are located
within the epidermis and at the
junction of the dermis and
hypodermis

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10
Q

Which of the following statements
regarding Hidradenitis suppurativa is NOT
TRUE
A. It is primarily an autoimmune disease
marked by inflammation of the
pilosebaceous unit at the dermis and
hyperkeratosis at the epidermis
B. Granuloma formation leads to
secondary bacterial infection owing to
the breaks in the epidermis
C. HS is characterized by painless
nodules caused primarily by
hormonal imbalance and acute
bacterial infection
D. Recurrence rate following complete
surgical resection remains very high
at 50%

A

C. HS is characterized by painless
nodules caused primarily by
hormonal imbalance and acute
bacterial infection

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11
Q

This prognostic guide is used to evaluate
treatment outcomes for patients with
Hidradenitis

A. Hurley score
B. Sartorius score
C. PGA Physical global assessment
D. HSCR Hidradenitis suppurativa
clinical response

A

B. Sartorius score

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12
Q

A 50 yo female complained of a
chronic non-healing wound on her left leg.
Which of the following events or diseases
is NOT commonly associated with
pyoderma gangrenosum?

A. Leukemia
B. IBD
C. Diabetes
D. RA

A

C. Diabetes

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13
Q

Which of the — modalities of pyoderma gangrenosum (aka neutrophilic
dermatosis) — inhibitors of T cell —

A. Infliximab
B. Calcineurin inhibitors
C. Etanercept
D. Mycophenolate mofetil

A

B. Calcineurin inhibitors

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14
Q

Which of the following epidermal cells are directly involved in TEN Toxic
Epidermal Necrolysis?

A. Toker cells
B. Lymphocytes
C. Melanocytes
D. Keratinocytes

A

D. Keratinocytes

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15
Q

Which of the following statements
regarding SJS-TEN is TRUE?
A. The disease is classified as
TENS when the cutaneous
involvement is >10% (>30%)
B. Nikolsky sign refers to the full
thickness exfoliation exposing
the underlying hypodermis
(Dermis)
C. It can affect the intestinal
mucosa leading to GI
bleeding and malabsorption
syndrome
D. Steroids remains the mainstay
in the treatment of SJS-TEN for
its anti-inflammatory effect with
decreased sepsis involvement
(The use of systemic
corticosteroids in the acute
setting is controversial as there
have been mixed results.)

A

C. It can affect the intestinal
mucosa leading to GI
bleeding and malabsorption
syndrome

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16
Q

This skin infection is caused by
mycobacterium tuberculosis TB

A. Scrofuloderma
B. Impetigo contagiosa
C. Cellulitis
D. Actinomycosis

A

A. Scrofuloderma

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17
Q

Which of the following solar radiation
causes photooxidation of melanin and
can penetrate into the reticular dermis?

A. UVA
B. UVB
C. UVC
D. UV-nano

A

A. UVA

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18
Q

What is the process commonly
involved in the acute effects of the UV
radiation to our skin color?

A. UVA-induced photooxidation
of melanin
B. UVB-induced neomelanization
C. UVC-activated
post-inflammatory pigmentation
D. Melanin release due to reactive
oxygen species

A

A. UVA-induced photooxidation
of melanin

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19
Q

A 26 yo male sustained chemical
burns when a gallon of an industrial drain
declogger, sodium hydroxide (base)
poured upon him. What would be the
most appropriate first aid management?

A. Neutralize the area with
hydrochloric acid
B. Dilution with saline water for 30 minutes
C. Irrigation with distilled water for 2 hours
D. Ice compress for 30 minutes

A

C. Irrigation with distilled water for 2 hours

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20
Q

Referring to points in the picture,
which is the most common area of
decubitus ulcer formation?
1 Sacrum
2 Ischium
3 —
4. Foot

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A

B. 2

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21
Q

A 76 yo male was referred to you for
pressure sores. On inspection there was
a 6 cm ulceration with an intact sacral
surface at the base of the ulcer and
granulation tissues on the sides. Which of
the following modalities contribute to
wound size reduction by removing excess
interstitial fluid, promoting capillary
circulation, decreasing bacterial
colonization, increasing vascularity and
granulation tissue formation?

A. Debridement
B. Prophylactic silicon dressings
C. Superficial partial thickness
skin grafting
D. Subatmospheric pressure wound therapy

A

D. Subatmospheric pressure
wound therapy

22
Q

A 44 yo female underwent total
abdominal hysterectomy via a
Pfannenstiel incision, 1 week
postoperatively, there was tissue
gangrene around the entire incision site.
Focal NSTI necrotizing soft tissue
infection was the diagnosis (Meleney’s
ulcer), what is the appropriate
management?

A. Antibiotic coverage for
peptostreptococcus
B. Ostectomy
C. Debridement with secondary
wound closure
D. Vacuum-assisted closure

A

C. Debridement with secondary
wound closure

23
Q

The benign skin lesion originates at
the outer root sheath lined with a thick
wall. Histologically the granular layer is
absent and grossly, the central punctum
is absent as well.

A. Seborrheic keratosis
B. Intradermal nevi
C. Trichilemmal cyst
D. Neurofibroma

A

C. Trichilemmal cyst

24
Q

A 65 yo male, widower, Filipino
farmer was referred to you for an
enlarging 2.5cm mole on the left lower
quadrant of the abdomen. Which of the
following cases of melanoma in the
anterior abdomen is Sentinel Lymph
Node Biopsy SLNB indicated?

A. Multiple enlarged node in the
ipsilateral axillary area
B. (+) lung metastasis confirmed
by CT-guided fine needle
biopsy
C. No enlarged and palpable
lymph nodes in the lymphatic
draining basins
D. (+) nodes after tumor excision
with inguino-femoral
lymphadenectomy by histologic
review

A

C. No enlarged and palpable
lymph nodes in the lymphatic
draining basins

25
Which of the following cases is Moh’s microsurgery technique NOT warranted? A. A 0.3cm recurrent lesion on the previous excision site for basal cell CA of the upper lip B. A 0.5cm lesion dysplastic nevus in the left infraorbital furrow C. A 1cm highly suspicious atypical mole in the nasal bridge D. A 2cm lesion on the posterior trunk who underwent a margin-negative wide excision of melanoma on the right arm
D. A 2cm lesion on the posterior trunk who underwent a margin-negative wide excision of melanoma on the right arm
26
Which of the following anterior abdominal muscle group is NOT located laterally? A. Rectus abdominis B. Transversus abdominis C. Internal oblique muscle D. External oblique muscle
A. Rectus abdominis
27
In most humans, how many bellies does the rectus abdominis muscle have? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8
D. 8
28
The rectus sheath forms the strongest layer of the anterior abdominal wall which requires appropriate apposition to prevent incisional wall hernias. What forms the anterior rectus sheath below the umbilicus? Rectus abdominis – RA Transversus abdominis – TA Internal oblique muscle – IO External oblique muscle – EO A. Aponeurosis of EO + IO B. Aponeurosis of EO + IO + TA C. Aponeurosis of IO + TA D. TA only
A. Aponeurosis of EO + IO
29
On laparoscopic exploration, a loop of the proximal ileum was noted to protrude out a point where there is a sharp decussation of the fascial fibers. What is your diagnosis? A. Litter’s hernia B. Spigelian hernia C. Richter’s hernia D. Meckel’s hernia
B. Spigelian hernia
30
What region of the abdomen is the spleen internally found? A. Left upper quadrant B. Left lumbar C. Left hypochondriac D. Left iliac
C. Left hypochondriac
31
underwent excision of an abdominal wall tumor. Biopsy revealed desmoid tumor. Although occurrence is mostly sporadic, what is the most common associated GI pathology? A. Hemangioma B. Omphalocoele C. Familial adenomatous polyposis D. Gastric cancer
C. Familial adenomatous polyposis
32
A 56 yo male had a history of a reducible hernia a year after his aneurysm repair. 3 months prior he noted that the mass was no longer reducible, otherwise he is asymptomatic. What is the classification of his hernia? A. Gynfeltt B. Irreducible C. Incarcerated D. Strangulated
C. Incarcerated
33
ACNES is an anterior cutaneous nerve entrapment at the arcuate line. Diagnosis is made when point of tenderness is elicited upon tensing of the abdominal muscles. This is A. Hoover sign B. Fothergill’s sign C. positive Carnett’s test D. Whirl sign
C. positive Carnett’s test
34
This refers to the avascular fascial plane composed of a bifold of parietal peritoneum at the lateral border of the ascending and descending colon and serves as point of entry into the retroperitoneum? A. Sclerosing mesenteritis B. White line of Toldt C. Paracolic gutter D. Avascular plane of Tillaux
B. White line of Toldt
35
Sclerosing mesenteritis is an uncommon disease characterized by nonspecific fat necrosis and fibrosis of the mesentery. On earlier form of the disease there is preservation of the mesenteric vessels. On CTscan this is interpreted as A. Hoover sign B. Tillaux’s sign C. Halo sign D. Whirl sign
B. Tillaux’s sign
36
Which of the following structures is located within the lesser sac? A. Abdominal aorta B. Inferior vena cava C. Gastroepiploic arteries D. Portal triad
D. Portal triad
37
Which of the following infections is LEAST LIKELY to cause retroperitoneal abscess? A. Acute pancreatitis B. Retrocecal appendicitis C. Transverse diverticulitis D. Duodenal ulcer at D3
D. Duodenal ulcer at D3
38
In retroperitoneal fibrosis when the renal artery is compressed, what is the most common manifestation? A. Hypertension B. Oliguria C. Deep vein thrombosis D. Edema of lower extremities
A. Hypertension
39
Which of the following is the most common primary malignant neoplasm in the mesentery? A. Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans B. GI stromal tumors C. Lymphoma D. Lymphangiosarcoma
C. Lymphoma
40
On laparoscopic exploration, only the antimesenteric portion of the ileum was herniated into the abdominal wall defect and was reduced successfully. What is your diagnosis? A. Litter’s hernia B. Spigelian hernia C. Richter’s hernia D. Meckel’s hernia
C. Richter’s hernia
41
This refers to the avascular fascial plane composed of a bifold of parietal peritoneum at the lateral border of the ascending and descending colon and serves as point of entry into the retroperitoneum? A. Sclerosing mesenteritis B. White line of Toldt C. Paracolic gutter D. Avascular plane of Tillaux
B. White line of Toldt
42
Sclerosing mesenteritis is an uncommon disease characterized by nonspecific fat necrosis and fibrosis of the mesentery. On earlier form of the disease there is preservation of the mesenteric vessels. On CT scan this is interpreted as? a. Hoover sign b. Tillaux’s sign c. Halo sign d. Whirl sign
c. Halo sign
43
Which of the following structures is located within the lesser sac? A. Abdominal aorta B. Inferior vena cava C. Gastroepiploic arteries D. Portal triad
D. Portal triad
44
Which of the following infections is LEAST LIKELY to cause retroperitoneal abscess? A. Acute pancreatitis B. Retrocecal appendicitis C. Transverse diverticulitis D. Duodenal ulcer at D3
C. Transverse diverticulitis
45
In retroperitoneal fibrosis when the renal artery is compressed, what is the most common manifestation? A. Hypertension B. Oliguria C. Deep vein thrombosis D. Edema of lower extremities
B. Oliguria
46
Which of the following is the most common primary malignant neoplasm in the mesentery? A. Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans B. GI stromal tumors C. Lymphoma D. Lymphangiosarcoma
C. Lymphoma
47
On laparoscopic exploration, only the antimesenteric portion of the ileum was herniated into the abdominal wall defect and was reduced successfully. What is your diagnosis? A. Littre’s hernia B. Spigelian hernia C. Richter’s hernia D. Meckel’s hernia
C. Richter’s hernia
48
Absence of abdominal wall musculature
B. Prune Belly Syndrome
49
Wall defect covered with peritoneum
Omphalocoele
50
Defect with free-floating bowel loops
Gastroschisis