LT FINAL EXAM

Question 1

Question 1:
You just received a ticket to respond as the SOC Support Ladder Company on a 10-66/2nd alarm for a fire on the 6th floor of 50X100 HRFPMD (project type). On arrival, the most correct place for your company to report into can be found in which choice?

A: Report into the Staging Area

B: Report into the Command Post

C: Report to the 5th floor (Fire Sector)

D: Report into the area where the member is being removed from

Answer 1

Answer: B

Explanation:
Regs ch 11 sec 11.3.16.C.note……On the transmission of a higher alarm which is part of signal 10-66, all units other than Rescue, Squad, SSL, FAST Unit, and CFR Engine, shall be directed by the dispatcher to report to and remain at a staging area
MD ch 2 sec 7.3….The FAST Unit and CFR Engine shall be assigned the Fire Sector when the fire is above the 6th floor. They can be staged on the floor below the fire floor ready for rapid deployment. At lower floor fires (6th floor or below), the position of the FAST Unit and the CFR Engine will be determined by the IC. The FAST Unit should carry a set of elevator keys

Question 2

Question 2:
The Lieutenant working in Ladder 300 was just notified that her unit is going to be dispatched for a Buckeye Pipeline drill at 1000hrs. She gathers the members to go over a few key points pertaining to operations at a pipeline leak. She was incorrect in which one point below?

A: The route of the Buckeye pipeline is marked by white PVC poles with orange tops.

B: Inside each valve box should be a set of rubber covers, one yellow and one red. Under the red cover, is the square male stem for the manual valve.

C: Department apparatus should not be brought closer than 500 feet to a leak.

D: Upon confirmation of a leak, transmit a second alarm and a 10-87 for the leak location.

Answer 2

Answer: D

Explanation:
D. Upon confirmation of a leak, transmit a SECOND ALARM AND A 10-86 for the leak location.

10-86 IS ALCOHOL RESISTANT FOAM OPERATION

10-87 IS HIGH EXPANSION FOAM OPERATION

AUC 149 1.5, 2.1.5, 7.18, 7.7

Question 3

Question 3:
Your unit arrives at a high rise hotel for an alarm activation where it is discovered the cause of the alarm is steam from a resident taking a hot shower. You would be most correct to transmit which code?

A: 10-35 No Code

B: 10-35 Code 1

C: 10-35 Code 2

D: 10-35 Code 3

Answer 3

Answer: D

Explanation:
10-35 No Code – Unwarranted alarm. Alarm system activation caused by the defective condition of alarm device, equipment or system. (e.g., low battery condition, alarm activations without a known cause or when no condition is found warranting an emergency response).
10-35 Codes 1-4 - Unnecessary alarm. Alarm device, equipment or system operating properly but unnecessarily activated by lack of due care.
Code 1 - testing or servicing.
Code 2 - construction.
Code 3 - ordinary household activities (toast, steam, aerosol spray).
Code 4 - other known cause. (e.g., alarms resulting from cigarette smoking in unauthorized areas).
Comm Ch 8 p11

Question 4

Question 4:
Managing line placement is a high priority for engine officers. Which of the following choices CORRECTLY describes line placement by engine companies?

A: After confirming with the 1st engine officer, the 2nd engine can stretch a second line when it is a short stretch before confirming the 1st engine has a positive water source.

B: If there is an immediate need for a 2nd hoseline to address fire extension or a life hazard, the IC (Chief officer or Engine Officer) may order the 2nd engine in any situation to immediately stretch a second line for any purpose.

C: If the 2nd arriving engine has already begun stretching the 2nd hoseline, the 3rd arriving engine should team up with the 2nd arriving engine and assist in the operation of the 2nd hoseline.

D: The 3rd arriving engine should only stretch a 3rd hoseline when ordered by the incident commander.

Answer 4

Answer: D

Explanation:
ENGINE OPERATIONS – CHAPTER 4 – COMPANY OFFICER
D IS CORRECT – 3.6.3
A – The first arriving engine must have secured a positive water source. 3.5.1
B – Chief officer or Acting Chief officer 3.5.4 Note
C – 3rd arriving engine must team up with the 1ST ARRIVING ENGINE and assist in the operation of the 1ST HOSELINE. 3.6

Question 5

Question 5:
You are first to arrive to a Place of Worship with heavy fire conditions throughout. Your first course of action is to establish collapse zones around the fire building. Which side(s) of the building correctly depicts the most dangerous area(s) during the fire?

A: Exposures 1, 2, 4 sides of the building only

B: Exposures 2, 3, 4 sides if the building only

C: Exposures 2 and 4 sides of the building only

D: Exposure 1 side of the building only

Answer 5

Answer: A

Explanation:
When evaluating the collapse potential and establishing collapse zones, the exposure 2 and 4 sides due to the bearing walls and the exposure side of the steeple or bell tower (front of the building) are the most dangerous areas during a fire
*** A steeple atop a bell tower is more unstable than a dome above a tower
FFP Places of Worship sec 4.2 and 4.6, 4.7

Question 6

Question 6:
After a challenging fire operation, where the cornice of a building collapsed, members are back in the kitchen discussing some key lessons learned. During this discussion, which one point made was incorrect?

A: When a cornice is exposed to heat or involved in fire, unless the exposure is minor, a cornice may become weakened and can suddenly, without warning, collapse at one end, swinging down across the front of the building injuring or killing firefighters at the other end.

B: A cornice is also a structure that can burn and spread fire.

C: The front of the building, including any stoop or entrance area to the building are in the potential collapse danger zone when a cornice is exposed to heat or involved in fire.

D: If fire from any floor, is auto-exposing and heating a cornice or has extended to the cornice, the rapid application of an exterior stream from a safe area may be utilized to limit the further weakening of the cornice and its connections.

Answer 6

Answer: A

Explanation:
A. When a cornice is exposed to heat or involved in fire, EVEN IF THE EXPOSURE IS MINOR, a cornice may become weakened and can suddenly, without warning, collapse at one end, swinging down across the front of the building injuring or killing firefighters at the other end.

Safety Bulletin 7 Ch 6 3, 4, 5, 9.2

Question 7

Question 7:
During company drill on fire operations in Brownstone buildings, a number of comments were made by the junior member on duty. Which comment made was incorrect?

A: When a cornice has been exposed to, or involved in, fire, the cornice or parts of it may suddenly fall. In these situations, it may be necessary to keep members away from all areas in the front of the building, especially when the cornice has been involved by heavy fire for a considerable time.

B: The word “first floor” shall not be used in fireground communications. Members referring to the first story of the building during fireground communications shall only use the terminology “basement.”

C: The basement has a rear door which opens into the yard. This is a fast way to check the rear for trapped occupants and this action must be communicated to and coordinated by the Ladder Company Officer.

D: Doors at top of the cellar and first floor (basement) stairs normally prevent the immediate extension of cellar fires up the main interior stairs. However, there will be a rapid build-up of smoke and heat on upper floors.

Answer 7

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) The word “BASEMENT” shall not be used in fireground communications. Members referring to the first story of the building during fireground communications shall only use the terminology “FIRST FLOOR.”
BS/RF 2.1.1 Note, 2.2.10, 2.3.3, 2.4.1 F

Question 8

Question 8:
You are the Officer of the first arriving Ladder Company, Ladder 100, at a fire in Apartment 4N, on the 4th floor of an H-type building. While conducting a search of the fire apartment, your Forcible Entry Firefighter collapses onto the floor and you cannot get him to respond to verbal or painful stimuli. At this point you would be most correct to make what transmission?

A: “MAYDAY-MAYDAY-MAYDAY, Ladder 100 to Command, MAYDAY.” The IC responds to go ahead with your MAYDAY and you state “Ladder 100 to Command, MAYDAY-UNCONSCIOUS MEMBER.”

B: “MAYDAY-MAYDAY-MAYDAY, Ladder 100 to Command, MAYDAY.” The IC responds to go ahead with your MAYDAY and you state “Ladder 100 to Command, MAYDAY - COLLAPSE HAS OCCURRED.”

C: “URGENT-URGENT-URGENT, Ladder 100 to Command, URGENT.” The IC responds to go ahead with your URGENT and you state “Ladder 100 to Command, URGENT-INJURED MEMBER.”

D: “MAYDAY-MAYDAY-MAYDAY, Ladder 100 to Command, MAYDAY.” The IC responds to go ahead with your MAYDAY and you state “Ladder 100 to Command, MAYDAY-MISSING MEMBER.”

Answer 8

Answer: A

Explanation:
A Note: Or you can say:”…. MAYDAY-INJURED MEMBER.”
B) The term “collapse” is to be used for structural collapse only.
C) This is a MAYDAY scenario, not an Urgent.
D) The member is injured; not missing.
Comm Ch 9 9.4.1

Question 9

Question 9:
As the first arriving officer to a structural fire, your initial size-up will include the type of building, occupancy, and conditions on arrival as well as any known life hazard, In addition, your size-up should also include a ventilation profile of the fire conditions. Which ventilation profile would NOT be an indication of a possible wind driven fire?

A: Heavy smoke venting outwards and upwards

B: Heavy smoke venting horizontally

C: Heavy smoke pulsing horizontally

D: Heavy smoke venting downward

Answer 9

Answer: A

Explanation:
Fire and smoke should be venting outwards and upwards. If the smoke and fire are venting downward, horizontally or pulsing from an opening in the building, this indicates the fire conditions may be wind impacted. Any unusual ventilation profile must be immediately communicated to the Ladder Company Officer inside the fire area to be vented and the IC
FFP Ventilation sec 4.1

Question 10

Question 10:
Units arrive at the scene of a reported hazardous material spill inside a warehouse. On arrival, they notice an NFPA 704 Diamond with a #4 in the blue section of the diamond. Members would be most correct to identify this as which one choice below?

A: A flammability hazard with a flash point below 73 degrees Fahrenheit.

B: A health hazard that is “deadly”.

C: A reactivity hazard that is “may detonate”.

D: Special information indicating no water should be used.

Answer 10

Answer: B

Explanation:
BLUE IS THE HEALTH HAZARD: “N SHED”

0: NORMAL
1: SLIGHLY HAZARDOUS
2: HAZARDOUS
3: EXTREME DANGER
4: DEADLY

THIS DIAMOND WAS ASKED ON 2009 LT EXAM

ERP Hazardous Materials Pg 39

Question 11

Question 11:
You are the first arriving Ladder Company Officer investigating an alarm in a large, high rise building and decide to activate the building’s (Auxiliary Radio Communications System (ARCS) on FDNY Channel 11. You would be correct in all actions below except?

A: The ARCS can be activated via a 1620 Key or ON/OFF switch at the Fire Command Station.

B: Instruct a member to staff the Incident Command Post to monitor the tactical and/or repeater channel/relay messages.

C: Designate a member or switch his/her HT to the Building Primary duplex UHF radio repeater channel (Channel 11) and ensure a functional test is performed after leaving the lobby.

D: Notify the Dispatcher for re-transmittal to all incoming units that the building duplex UHF radio repeater system and Channel 11 have been activated as a Command channel.

Answer 11

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) Designate a member or switch his/her HT to the Building Primary duplex UHF radio repeater channel (Channel 11) and ensure a functional test is performed PRIOR TO leaving the lobby.
Comm Ch 13 3.1

Question 12

Question 12:
A telephone alarm is in and the units in Battalion 99 will arrive at the location of the Park Tower Mega High Rise and confirm a fire on the 32nd floor. The CIDS is as follows: PG – MEGA 90 STY 200X150 CL1 – 3 ELEV BANKS – A BANK FLRS 1-30, B BANK FLRS 30-60, C BANK FLRS 60-90 – ACCESS STAIRS FLRS 12-17, 28-33, 37-42 – SPKR/STDP SIAM EXP 1 & 3 SIDE BLDG – MER FLRS 31 & 61. Which choice is CORRECT regarding the use of the available elevators to access the fire floor?

A: A bank of elevators to 26th floor followed by walking up to 32

B: A bank of elevators to 30th floor followed by walking up to 32

C: B bank of elevators to 30th floor followed by walking up to 32

D: B bank of elevators to 28th floor followed by walking up to 32

Answer 12

Answer: B

Explanation:
TRAINING BULLETINS – ELEVATOR OPERATIONS
B IS CORRECT – A Bank of elevators to 30th floor followed by walk up to 32. The A bank terminates at 30 does not service the fire floor so it is the primary elevator for use during this operation. The access stairs service floors 28-33 however, they are only a consideration when using an elevator that services the fire floor. In this case the A bank does not. – ELEVATORS 6.1.3 Do not use an elevator in a bank which services the fire floor if a lower bank of elevators reaches within five floors of the fire floor. 6.1.4 – When it is necessary to use an elevator in a bank which serves the fire floor… 1. If Fire Service is available, use a car with the Fire Service feature. 2. Select a floor at least two floors below the fire floor or two floors below the lower level of an access stair in the fire area, whichever is lowest.
A - More than 5 floors below the fire floor
C – B bank services the fire floor which would bring the access stairs into play.
D – B bank does not service the 28th floor

Question 13

Question 13:
Upon arrival at any confined space incident, the first arriving unit(s) shall perform several tasks. Choose the most correct task.

A: As a bare minimum, members entering confine space areas must be First aide trained

B: Members entering a confined space area can enter without a SCBA when Carbon Monoxide levels are not over 40 PPM (Safe Atmospheric Conditions)

C: When setting up a high point, the TL is preferred due to its greater weight-supporting capacity, at least 1,000 lbs, compared to only 250 lbs for an AL

D: When using a TL or an AL as a high point all members must be removed from apparatus except the chauffeur who will remain on the turntable as a look out and safety person

Answer 13

Answer: C

Explanation:
Emergency Procedures Confined Space Operations
A- First Aide and CPR….sec 4
B- Safe Atmospheric Conditions
- Oxygen concentration between 19.5% an 23.5%
- Flammable Range- Not over 10% of LEL
-Toxicity- Not over 35 PPM of CO
- Toxicity- Not over 10 PPM of Hydrogen Sulfide…sec 4.1
C- sec 4.3
D- All personnel must be removed from the Turntable and the engine shut off to prevent accidental movement …..sec 4.3

Question 14

Question 14:
First alarm units are dispatched to a brush fire adjacent to the Belt Pkwy in Brooklyn. Which one of the following FDNY SOP’s is incorrect?

A: If necessary to operate in front of the fire (only to protect life), sufficient charged lines must be in place and capable of protecting operating forces.

B: Units shall never self-commit to operations.

C: Stream shall be directed at the burning brush, not at the flames burning above the brush.

D: Initial attack operations should concentrate on mobility. Avoid hooking up to hydrants, except to protect exposures.

Answer 14

Answer: B

Explanation:
B. Units ARE NOT TO SELF-COMMIT TO OPERATIONS UNLESS STRUCTURES ARE EXPOSED.

SIMILAR QUESTION WAS ASKED ON 2014 CAPT EXAM

AUC 151 5.1.2, 5.4.6, 5.4.2, 5.4.13

Question 15

Question 15:
What is the most appropriate code to transmit when operating at a Downed Tree Emergency?

A: 10-42

B: 10-46

C: 10-44

D: 10-43

Answer 15

Answer: A

Explanation:
10-46 Maritime Fire or Emergency
Code 1: Any FIRE in maritime environment (example: vessel, dock, pier)
Code 2: EMERGENCY in maritime environment Examples: Vessel in distress, person(s) in the water removed by Marine personnel, hazard to navigation, hazardous materials incident in maritime environment.
10-44 Request for Ambulance
A request for an ambulance response from the EMS Command. Specify the reason and type (when possible).
10-43 Any non-fire related rescue; any person(s) rescued/removed from a dangerous situation.
Comm Ch 8 p13, 14

Question 16

Question 16:
The members of Engine 256 and Ladder 171 have just returned to quarters from a fire in what turned out to be a private dwelling of lightweight construction. The members are conducting a critique and several members made statements about operations. Of the below actions taken, which was INCORRECT?

A: On arrival, there was heavy fire in the cellar & 1st floor preventing a visual inspection of the type of construction, so a later arriving unit was assigned to exposure 2 (similar construction) to check for the type of construction.

B: Lightweight construction was suspected, so the 1st arriving ladder made an inspection hole in the ceiling from a safe area in order to determine the type of support system present.

C: Once fire extended to the top floor, all members were removed from the roof after a small vent hole was cut from an area of safety over the fire area.

D: Prior to indications of extension to the cockloft, members were allowed to conduct preliminary roof duties, including visual check of the sides and rear and venting skylights and top floor windows.

Answer 16

Answer: C

Explanation:
PRIVATE DWELLINGS CHAPTER 6 – LIGHTWEIGHT CONSTRUCTION
C IS INCORRECT – Under no circumstances shall the roof be cut in any peaked or flat roof building of lightweight construction. 4.3.8
A – 4.3.2
B – 4.3.1
D – 4.3.10

Question 17

Question 17:
Inflatable Water Rescue Hose may be used during Water/Ice rescue incidents involving one or more conscious victims. Choose the most correct procedure when using the Inflatable Water Rescue Hose.

A: Inflatable Water Rescue Hose consists of 2 1/2” hose, yellow fittings, which can be filled with air directly from an air cylinder

B: One 45 minutes air cylinder can fill 5 lengths of 2 1/2” hose in approximately 5 minutes (1 minute per length)..

C: The apparatus air outlet can fill 5 lengths of hose in approximately 5 minutes

D: Each looped length of 2 1/2” hose can support approximately 10 people

Answer 17

Answer: D

Explanation:
Emergency Procedures Water Rescue 2 add 1
A- Supply air from either a SCBA or FAST-Pak using the Hansen fitting. DO NOT fill hose directly from the cylinder. If close enough, the apparatus air outlet may be used…sec 2.1
B- One 45 minutes air cylinder can fill 5 lengths of 2 1/2” hose in approximately 1 minute…sec 3.2
C- The apparatus air outlet can fill 5 lengths of hose in approximately 1 minute…sec 3.3
D- sec 4.1

Question 18

Question 18:
Members are operating at a concrete structure under construction that has collapsed. Which one operating procedure is correct?

A: A Thermal Imaging Camera should not be used to locate workers.

B: A list or sign in sheet of all construction workers on site for the day is usually accurate and available.

C: The accounting of all workers by construction personnel relieves the FDNY of the responsibility to conduct primary and secondary searches.

D: Following the collapse of a concrete structure under construction, it won’t be difficult to distinguish the victims from construction debris.

Answer 18

Answer: B

Explanation:
A. A Thermal Imaging Camera MAY BE A CRITICAL TOOL TO ASSIST IN LOCATING WORKERS BY DETECTING BODY HEAT OR MOVEMENT OF THE VICTIM(S).

C. The accounting of all workers by construction personnel DOES NOT RELIEVE the FDNY of the responsibility to conduct primary and secondary searches.

D. Following the collapse of a concrete structure under construction, it WILL BE DIFFICULT to distinguish the victims from construction debris SINCE EVERYTHING WILL BE COATED AND COVERED IN CONCRETE.

Safety Bulletin 7 Ch 5 3.1, 3.2, 3.3, 3.4

Question 19

Question 19:
All of the following codes are described incorrectly with the exception of which correct choice?

A: 10-47 Code 3 for a Fire Marshal investigation required for a subway train fire that was occupied at the time of the fire.

B: 10-38 Code 4 for a response in a commercial structure with no CO alarms and no smoke detectors where unit meters detected 45ppm of CO and members shut down a faulty appliance.

C: 10-29 Code 2 where members removed two teenagers from a stuck elevator.

D: 10-91: Medical assignment where the unit is 10-84, has verbal patient contact and EMS is on-scene.

Answer 19

Answer: B

Explanation:
10-38 Code 3: Detector Activation: Carbon Monoxide Emergency (CO Meter Reading of greater than 9ppm)
10-38 Code 4: No Detector Activated. Carbon Monoxide Incident or Emergency (e.g.: no detector present in affected area, detector present in affected area, but did not activate.)
A) 10-41 Code 1: Fire Marshal investigation required for a structure (commercial, residential, public), or vehicle (car, bus or train) which is occupied at the time of the fire. This also includes a vacant apartment in an occupied building, or a store with a dwelling above, or an occupied detached garage, shed or similar structure.
C) 10-29: Elevator Emergency
Code 1: Occupied
Code 2: Unoccupied
D)10-37 Code 4: Medical assignment where the unit is 10-84, has no patient contact and EMS is on-scene.
Comm Ch 8 p10, 12, 13,

Question 20

Question 20:
While operating on the roof of a taxpayer with heavy fire in the cellar, you catch the end of several URGENT transmissions. You would be correct in your assumptions of each URGENT below except for which choice?

A: URGENT-INJURED MEMBER indicates a member with a non life threatening injury that requires medical attention.

B: URGENT 10-70 is indicative of the first arriving Engine Company being unable to secure a positive water source.

C: URGENT - COLLAPSE FEARED indicates a structural problem with collapse being imminent.

D: URGENT - FIRE EXTENDING is indicative of fire extending into an exposure where any delay may considerably enlarge the fire problem.

Answer 20

Answer: C

Explanation:
URGENT - COLLAPSE FEARED indicates a structural problem with the DANGER of a collapse.
If collapse is “imminent,” transmit a MAYDAY.
Comm Ch 9 9.4.2

Question 21

Question 21:
Lt Lenny Dykstra is working his first tour as a lieutenant in E100, when a ticket comes in for an “emergency” in a Con-Edison facility. Upon arrival, Lt Dykstra receives information from Con-Edison personnel there is a major steam leak inside the facility. Lt Dykstra and members operated correctly in which choice?

A: Lt Dykstra and members entered the facility to shut down the steam valve

B: Lt Dykstra and members reported to the designated mustering site outside the facility

C: With reports of workers missing, Lt Dykstra and members entered the facility without Con-Edison personnel to begin search and rescue efforts

D: Lt Dykstra and members discovered the building steam shutoff valve outside the building and closed it

Answer 21

Answer: B

Explanation:
Emergency Procedures Steam System Emergencies
A- Plant personnel will mitigate the emergency…sec 4.1
C- With reports of workers missing, Lt Dykstra and members entered the facility WITH Con-Edison personnel to begin search and rescue efforts….sec 4.1
Never enter a Con Edison generating plant without Con-Ed personnel…sec 4.1
D- Steam valves located outside a building should only be shut by Con-Edison steam personnel…sec 4.4

Question 22

Question 22:
When operating water into a manhole, vault or service box, members shall be guided by which one correct provision?

A: Maintain a distance of at least 10 feet from the nozzle to the manhole, vault or service box.

B: Use a solid stream nozzle to prevent any shock hazard.

C: Do not use water or FireIce as an initial tactic on a combustible liquid transformer fire (indicated by a large volume of fire flames 10 feet or more in height).

D: Adjoining manholes & service boxes should be identified and clear of civilian and FD personnel after starting water.

Answer 22

Answer: C

Explanation:
A. Maintain a distance of at least 25 FEET from the nozzle to the manhole, vault or service box.

B. Use a FOG NOZZLE to prevent any shock hazard.

D. Adjoining manholes & service boxes should be identified and clear of civilian and FD personnel BEFORE starting water.

NOTE “A” Cross Ref FireIce: THE MEMBER OPERATING THE NOZZLE SHOULD COMMENCE OPERATIONS AT A SAFE STANDOFF DISTANCE OF 50 FEET. AFTER ESTABLISHING AN ADEQUATE GELL SOLUTION, AND AS CONDITIONS ALLOW, THE NOZZLE TEAM MAY ADVACNE TOWARD THE MNAHOLE WHILE MAINTAINING A MINIMUM SAFE DISTANCE OF 25 FEET FROM THE MANHOLE OPENING.

AUC 180 4.7.2, 4.7.3, 4.7.4, 4.7.8

Question 23

Question 23:
When a Rowframe building is fully involved with fire showing in both exposures, specific engine company tactics are required. Which tactic below is incorrect?

A: The first arriving engine company should stretch one 3 ½” supply line for a tower ladder, and a hoseline to enter the fire building through the front door.

B: The second hoseline, if not needed to back up the first hoseline, is stretched to the top floor of the most severe exposure to protect the cockloft and interior shafts.

C: If the second hoseline is needed to back up the first hoseline, the third hoseline is stretched to the top floor of the most severe exposure.

D: If the second hoseline is stretched to the top floor of the most severe exposure, the third hoseline is stretched into the original fire building.

Answer 23

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) If the second hoseline is stretched to the top floor of the most severe exposure, the third hoseline is stretched to the top floor of the OPPOSITE EXPOSURE.
Note: The fourth hoseline is stretched as ordered by the Incident Commander.
BS/RF 6.5

Question 24

Question 24:
You are working in Ladder 100, a single truck, during a busy night tour in Brooklyn when your OV firefighter takes emergency leave and leaves quarters. While waiting for a detail, your unit is assigned “first-due” for fire in a Queen Anne-type private dwelling. While searching the fire floor with the Can firefighter beside you, you lose sight of your Forcible Entry firefighter but can still hear him on the other side of the room. 10 minutes into the fire the IC has a roll call conducted. After hearing “Roll Call Officer to L100, account for your members,” you correctly respond by saying?

A: “L-100 to Roll Call Officer, L-100 has 5 firefighters, we are riding without an OV, my Can and Irons firefighters are accounted for.”

B: “L-100 to Roll Call Officer, L-100 has 4 firefighters, we are riding without an OV, my Can and Irons firefighters are accounted for.”

C: “L-100 to Roll Call Officer, L-100 has 4 firefighters, my Can and Irons firefighters are accounted for.”

D: “L-100 to Roll Call Officer, L-100 has 4 firefighters, we are riding without an OV, my Can firefighter is accounted for.”

Answer 24

Answer: B

Explanation:
Remember, you account only for members within sight or hearing without using the HT.
Comm Ch 9 Add 2 5

Question 25

Question 25: On his second tour out of FLSTP, Lt Keith Hernandez is working the 6X9 tour in E-300 (4 FF Engine) in the great Borough of Brooklyn. Spending the last 20 years in L-200, Lt Hernandez is trying to understand the procedures for CFR. Lt Hernandez was correct in which CFR procedure below? A: CFR Units must start the tour with a minimum of 2 members B: Once a CFR Unit is on scene (10-84), a Patient Care Report (PCR) must be completed C: When a CFR Unit is requesting an ambulance via the dispatch radio, the information that must be provided is the CUPS status, Age, Chief Complaint, If CPR initiated, and the Pulse, and Respiratory rate of the patient D: Upon arrival to a CFR run, it is discovered that the patient is DOA. In this case no Patient Care Report (PCR) is necessary

Answer 25

Answer: C Explanation: CFR ch 2 A- While CFR Units must begin each tour with 2 certified FFs, in the event that during a tour the minimum CFR staffing reduces to 1 FF and 1 Officer (2 members), the Company shall remain available for CFR responses...sec 1.8.Note B- A PCR is not required when a CFR Company is on-scene (10-84) at any CFR assignment unless patient care is provided...sec 3.10.1 C- Sec 3.11 D- The CFR Unit must complete a Pre-Hospital Care Report even if the patient is DOA to document that the Company properly examined the patient to confirm that the patient exhibited the criteria for obvious death...sec 4.4.5.Note

Question 26

Question 26: While operating at the scene of a reported chemical release in the subway, members notice a distinct odor of burnt almonds. The would be most correct to suspect which one chemical below? A: Tabun B: Nitrogen Mustard C: Cyanogen Chloride D: Phosgene

Answer 26

Answer: C Explanation: A. Fruity B. Fishy, musty odor D. Musky hay SIMILAR QUESTION ON 2009 LT EXAM ERP Addendum 2 Pg 18

Question 27

Question 27: All members should be familiar with the operation of their handie-talkies. Which of the following choices is incorrect? A: An Emergency Alert can be activated by depressing and holding the Emergency Alert Button (EAB) until the audible is heard (1/2 second). B: An Emergency Alert must be reset by depressing and holding the EAB until the reset tone is heard (approximately 2 seconds). Turning the radio off and on will not reset the Emergency Alert on the Electronic Fireground Accountability System (EFAS). C: The IDs of the last 15 received transmissions can be viewed and an orange triangle indicates Emergency Alert activated transmissions. D: Whenever a member who has activated their Emergency Alert presses the push-to-talk button, members receiving such a transmission will observe an Orange band with Emergency call, Unit and Position on their main display.

Answer 27

Answer: A Explanation: A) An Emergency Alert can be activated by depressing and holding the Emergency Alert Button (EAB) until the audible is heard (APPROXIMATELY 1 SECOND). Comm Ch 11 3.5, 3.5.1.1, 3.5.2.1, 3.5.3

Question 28

Question 28: There are a number of decisions the nozzle firefighter is empowered to make while operating a hoseline. Which of the following choices is INCORRECT? A: Opening and Closing the nozzle. B: Direction of the Stream C: Partially closing the nozzle to reduce nozzle reaction and regain control. D: Rate of Advancement

Answer 28

Answer: A Explanation: ENGINE COMPANY OPERATIONS – CHAPTER 6 – THE BACKSTEP A IS INCORRECT – The nozzle firefighter must understand that the decision to open or close the nozzle is made by the engine officer. 2.7.2 – The nozzle firefighter may open the nozzle in an emergency 2.7.1 F B – 2.7.1 A C – 2.7.1 E D – 2.7.1 B

Question 29

Question 29: Lt Ron Darling is covering his first vacation in E-400, and is confronted on what to do with the Patient Care Reports (PCRs) that were generated recently. Lt Darling is trying to remember from his study days the correct PCR procedure. Choose the correct procedure. A: Part one (original) of the PCR is to be forwarded to OMA at FDNY HQ at the end of each month B: Part one (original) of the PCR is to be forwarded to OMA at FDNY HQ at the end of each tour C: Part 2 (research copy) is to be forwarded with part one D: Part 3 (hospital patient record copy) is to be given to the patient on scene

Answer 29

Answer: B Explanation: CFR ch 5 sec 1.1 A- see choice B C- Part 2 (research copy) is to be retained in quarters D- Part 3 (hospital patient record copy) is to be given to the EMS unit operating on scene. If Part 3 is not given to the EMS unit, it shall be forwarded with the original to OMA

Question 30

Question 30: A newly promoted Lieutenant suspects that members have engaged in conduct that violates the FDNY’s alcohol/drug substance policy. Which one of the following actions taken is incorrect? A: Notify the IG. B: Document the incident in the company journal. C: Immediately relieve the on-duty member(s) from emergency response duty. D: Prohibit on and off-duty members present at the time of discovery of any violation of this policy from leaving the premises without permission of the investigating officer.

Answer 30

Answer: A Explanation: A. Notify BITS. CODE: “PROBBE” 1. Prohibit on and off-duty members present at the time of discovery of any violation of this policy from leaving the premises without permission of the investigating officer. 2. Relieve the on-duty member(s) from emergency response duty. 3. OOS: Immediately have the affected unit placed out of service. 4. BITS: Notify BITS 5. Battalion: Notify the administrative Battalion or, if appropriate the next superior officer. 6. Entry: Entry in the company journal. AUC 202 5.5

Question 31

Question 31: Depending on the height and size of a high rise office building, members may have to operate the building fire pumps during a working fire. Of the following choices, which is incorrect regarding this procedure? A: Follow signs or directions to the pump room which is normally located on the lowest floor (cellar or sub-cellar). B: After locating the pump, locate the bypass valve on the discharge side of the fire pump. The discharge side can be readily identified by examining the gauges; the discharge gauge is calibrated for higher pressures than the inlet gauge. C: The bypass valve should be in the closed position (stem out). If they are found to be open, they should be closed by turning in a counter-clockwise direction. D: In some systems the bypass valve is not readily discernible. In this case it is permissible to start the pump as ordered without checking bypass valve but the efficiency of the pump will be affected. A loss of 25% can be expected in an 8" riser and a loss of 45% can be expected in a 6" riser with the bypass open.

Answer 31

Answer: C Explanation: C) The bypass valve should be in the closed position (stem IN). If they are found to be open, they should be closed by turning in a CLOCKWISE direction. D Note: Notify the engineer upon his/her arrival of this and any other actions taken. HROB 4.1.2 A-F

Question 32

Question 32: For a fire in a high rise office building, which Ladder Company assignment is incorrect? A: The 3rd arriving Ladder Company will determine which stairway is the best stairway to be used by the occupants for evacuation and advise the Incident Command Post. B: If difficulty is encountered in clearing the attack stairway of occupants, the officer of the 2nd arriving Ladder Company shall advise the 1st arriving Ladder Company or the Fire Sector Supervisor/Branch Director to withhold the attack until the occupants have been safely removed. C: The 1st and 2nd arriving Ladder Companies will conduct the search operation of the fire floor. D: The 4th arriving Ladder Company will conduct a primary search of the top five floors.

Answer 32

Answer: B Explanation: B) If difficulty is encountered in clearing the attack stairway of occupants, the officer of the 3rd ARRIVING LADDER COMPANY shall advise the 1st arriving Ladder Company or the Fire Sector Supervisor/Branch Director to withhold the attack until the occupants have been safely removed. HROB 8.3.1 E, 8.4.2 A, 8.5.1 B, 8.6.1 E

Question 33

Question 33: The purpose of the Firefighter Assist and Search Team (FAST) is to be immediately available to assist a member who becomes trapped, distressed or involved in other serious life threatening situations. The Fast Unit must be ready to act immediately and decisively when called upon. There are several procedures when reporting in and operating as the Fast Unit. The only correct procedure can be found in which choice? A: The Fast Unit shall report to and stage near the Incident Command Post, within sight of the IC, where they can be immediately deployed B: When operating at large commercial occupancies, the FAST Unit shall split up for a quick two sided approach C: When the FAST Unit arrives at the location of the distressed member, the transmitting member of the FAST Unit shall depress the EAB on their HT and provide the IC all necessary information. D: Upon arrival of a downed member, the FAST Unit shall assess the situation; Fire, Air, Removal, and Immediate Medical Care

Answer 33

Answer: C Explanation: MMID ch 2 A- within VERBAL contact of the IC, where they can be immediately deployed...sec 3.1 B- The FAST Unit shall remain intact and not split up when dealing with large commercial or complex buildings...sec 7.4 C- Sec 7.6 D- Fire, Air, Immediate Medical Care, Removal (FAIR)...sec 7.6

Question 34

Question 34: Ladder company members are operating at the scene of a ”man-under” of a grade-level subway station. The on-duty Lieutenant asks his LCC to retrieve the emergency evacuation device. Where would the LCC expect to find this device at this station? A: The area of the full time token booth. B: The base of the emergency exit. C: Any token booth. D: The first blue light location south of the southbound platform (typically within 50 feet of the platform end).

Answer 34

Answer: D Explanation: At underground and GRADE LEVEL STATIONS the EED is located at the first blue light location south of the southbound platform (typically within 50 feet of the platform end). A. This is for ELEVATED stations. B. This is for UNDER RIVER TUNNELS. C. The keys to remove EEDs from their brackets can be found at EVERY TOKEN BOOTH. AUC 207 Addendum 11 3.1, 3.2, 3.3, 3.4

Question 35

Question 35: Engine operations must be properly conducted to mitigate commercial occupancy and taxpayer fires efficiently and safely. Of the following choices, in which case is the use of a 2 1/2” hose line required for extinguishment? A: A high rise fireproof multiple dwelling with fire in apartment 3A on the 3rd floor and the officer calls for the initial hose line to be stretched from the apparatus. B: A mixed occupancy building with a cell phone shop on the first floor. Fire is in the cell phone shop and the initial hose line is being stretched from the apparatus. C: A nonfireproof multiple dwelling with a bodega located on the first floor. Fire is in the bodega and the initial hose line is being stretched from the apparatus. D: A large, uncompartmented one-story furniture store. Fire is in the store and the initial hose line is being stretched from the apparatus.

Answer 35

Answer: D Explanation: A fire in a taxpayer will require the use of 2 ½” hoselines due to the large, uncompartmented area that is typical in taxpayers. B Note: A mixed occupancy is a two or three-story building with one or two apartments on the second or third floors, and a commercial occupancy on the first. B and C Note: Commercial stores in both multiple dwellings and mixed occupancies frequently do not have the same characteristics of a taxpayer occupancy and may not always require a 2 ½” hoseline. Txpyr 7.1.3, 7.1.4 A

Question 36

Question 36: Which of the following is CORRECT for a HRFPMD scenario that involves a closed apartment door, a failed window and a wind impacted fire? A: The Engine Company stretched and charged the hose line in the stairwell prior to advancing to the fire apartment. B: Prior to entering the fire apartment, The Engine Company Officer contacted the roof firefighter for a description of the fire apartment, location of the main body of fire, and most direct route to the fire area. C: Once the decision has been made to enter the fire apartment, the ladder officer and one member of the FE team shall enter the apartment followed by the engine. D: Once the hose line advances towards the interior fire area as directed by the Engine Officer, the door to the fire apartment shall not be chocked open.

Answer 36

Answer: B Explanation: FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – ADDENDUM 3 – WIND IMPACTED FIRES B IS CORRECT – The Engine Officer shall contact the roof firefighter or other member operating in the apartment above. 5.2.7 A – The hose line can be advanced to that location (fire apartment) and charged. 5.2.3 C – Once the decision has been made to enter the apartment, the Engine officer must enter the apartment first followed by the Ladder Company. 5.2.6 D – Apartment door shall be chocked open. 5.2.8

Question 37

Question 37: The correct internal radio code for L-500's OV can be found in which choice? A: 7500004 B: 7500005 C: L500004 D: L500005

Answer 37

Answer: A Explanation: MMID ch 2 add 1 p-4

Question 38

Question 38: First alarm units are operating at the scene of a mass casualty improvised explosive device detonation in the subway. Which one procedure is the only one in accordance with FDNY SOPs? A: The first arriving engine properly positioned the apparatus, established a water supply, and stretched a 1 3/4 hoseline to knockdown fire threatening victims. B: The second arriving engine removed meters, skeds and CFR equipment from the apparatus and reported to the point of impact. C: The first arriving ladder company used skeds to remove critical victims from the point of impact to the triage transfer point. D: The second arriving ladder company conducted reconnaissance of the point of impact.

Answer 38

Answer: D Explanation: A. The first arriving engine properly positioned the apparatus, established a water supply, and stretched a 2 1/2 HOSELINE to knockdown fire threatening victims. B. The second arriving engine removed meters, skeds and CFR equipment from the apparatus and reported to THE TRIAGE TRANSFER POINT. C. The first arriving ladder company SET UP THE CORE RELAY. THE QUESTIONS STATED THE EXPLOSION WAS IN THE SUBWAY, THEREFORE THE FIRST TRUCK ESTABLISHES THE CORE RELAY WITH THE SECOND DUE LADDER FULLFILLING THE RESPONSIBILTY FOR OPERATIONS AT THE POINT OF IMPACT. AT OTHER THAN A SUBWAY THE FIRST TRUCK WOULD OPERATE AT THE POINT OF IMPACT WITH THE SECOND TRUCK REPORTING TO THE TRIAGE TRANSFER POINT. ERP Addendum 3 5.3.1, 5.3.2, 5.3.4, 5.3.5

Question 39

Question 39: Fires in taxpayers with bowstring truss roofs make for challenging operations. Which of the following choices contains incorrect information regarding these operations? A: Be aware of the collapse potential of these types of roof systems, giving particular attention to the front and rear walls. B: Under no circumstances shall any member operate on the roof of any building involved in a content or structural fire with a wooden, metal or combination bowstring truss design. C: One method to determine if fire has entered the truss space is to make a rectangular cut in the sloping hip section in the front and/or rear of the roof from the safety of an aerial ladder or portable ladder. D: When there is a need for members to operate on a bowstring truss roof of a building not involved in fire, the IC must take into account the past history of truss failure in these buildings, particularly if the building is vacant.

Answer 39

Answer: C Explanation: C) One method to determine if fire has entered the truss space is to make a TRIANGULAR cut in the sloping hip section in the front and/or rear of the roof from the safety of a TOWER LADDER BUCKET. Txpyr 5.5.25

Question 40

Question 40: Firefighters should know how to “read” smoke. This comes with experience, but also with knowledge. Which description of smoke is inaccurate? A: Dark smoke (black) often indicates fuel-rich conditions, due to restricted air supply (ventilation limited). If air supply is sufficient, there will be a lighter colored smoke and brighter flame but if air supply is restricted, the smoke will be darker. B: Grey smoke indicates that at least some flaming combustion or smoldering combustion is present. In a building issuing dark smoke from some areas and grey smoke from other areas, usually the areas with dark smoke are remote from the fire. C: Brown smoke can indicate the early stages of the pyrolysis of timber products. In a wood framed building, the presence of brown smoke may indicate that the structure is involved. D: Application of water onto a large fire will generate large amounts of steam which can mix with smoke and create condensation that gives the appearance of white smoke. In this situation, the white color can indicate water is on the fire.

Answer 40

Answer: B Explanation: B) The further the smoke travels, the more carbon it can lose, resulting in a grey smoke. In a building issuing dark smoke from some areas and grey smoke from other areas, usually the areas with GREY smoke are REMOTE from the fire. TB FD Ch 2 3.5.4

Question 41

Question 41: In regards to the MSA Altair Digital Gas Meter, which symbol will be shown on the display screen under the COMB/EX icon when the meter exceeds 100% of the LEL? A: Three Xs B: Three crosses C: O.L. (Over Limit) D: Three dashes

Answer 41

Answer: A Explanation: When the atmosphere is above 100% LEL, the LCD symbol XXX will be displayed under the COMB/EX icon. A series of three large crosses along the screen under the O2 icon indicates the atmosphere is above 30% oxygen The MSA Altair Digital Gas Meter must be used in conjunction with the Sensit TKX Detector as each instrument posses its own unique capabilities The MSA Altair Digital Gas Meter is only to be used to detect natural gas Emergency Procedures Natural Gas add 2 sec 1.1, 1.2, 4.2, 5.3

Question 42

Question 42: One important aspect of being a company officer within the FDNY is injury and exposure reporting. Which one provision pertaining to these procedures is incorrect? A: The medical officer must be notified via FDOC for all injuries and non-biological exposures within 24 hours. B: The officer shall enter all available information into the CIRS report, with or without the injured/exposed member’s signature and/or narrative within seven days. C: If an on-duty member is transported to a hospital or other medical facility by ambulance, the member may not return to duty (regardless of the type of injury) without a determination/approval from the FDNY medical officer. D: When the injured/exposed member signs the report it shall be considered completed but can be modified at any time.

Answer 42

Answer: A Explanation: A. The medical officer must be notified via FDOC for all injuries and BIOLOGICAL exposures within 24 hours. Safety Bulletin 1 2.1, 2.3, 2.4

Question 43

Question 43: Negative Stack Effect (AKA “Reverse Stack Effect”) occurs most often in the summer season and can be particularly difficult to deal with. Of the following choices, which is incorrect? A: In hot weather, air inside occupied buildings is cooler than the air outside the building due to internal air conditioning systems. As a result, air inside the building will travel downwards via vertical shafts and attempt to exit the building via available openings near the bottom of the building. B: At the top of the shaft, a negative pressure will be generated, which will have the effect of pulling air into the shaft via available openings near the top of the building. C: Smoke from an upper floor fire will be drawn toward the vertical shafts within the building and will typically travel downward. It can be pulled back into floors with greater force as you go higher in the building and further above the stack effect neutral pressure zone. D: In New York City, the difference between the temperatures inside a building compared to the temperature outside the building will be greater during the winter months than it will be during the summer months, so “positive stack effect,” which occurs during the winter, will be more prominent than negative stack effect which occurs during summer.

Answer 43

Answer: C Explanation: C) Smoke from an upper floor fire will be drawn toward the vertical shafts within the building and will typically travel downward. It can be pulled back into floors with greater force as you go LOWER in the building and further BELOW the stack effect neutral pressure zone. Note: Negative Stack Effect (AKA “Reverse Stack Effect”) - A fire on an upper floor will tend to draw air into the windows creating conditions similar to a wind impacted fire. A fire on a lower floor will tend to want to vent out of the windows. TB FD Ch 4 1.7.2

Question 44

Question 44: You are a covering officer working in Ladder 177 and a member comes into your office upset and looking to discuss making an EEO complaint. You assist by taking the following actions. Which is the only CORRECT action taken? A: You have the member complete a confidential EEO Incident Report. B: You submit the incident report directly to the EEO officer in a sealed envelope after obtaining endorsements from the BC & DC on duty. C: You interrogate the individuals involved in the incident after being requested to do so by the EEO Officer. D: You leave a note in the pass along book regarding the incident and filing of an EEO Complaint.

Answer 44

Answer: C Explanation: PA/ID 8 - CHAPTER 2 – EEO COMPLAINT PROCESS C IS CORRECT – 6.7 The officer/supervisor shall not interrogate any individual involved in the alleged incident, or initiate an investigation into the alleged incident, except if requested to do so by the EEO Officer, or Bureau of Investigations and Trials. A – The officer/supervisor is required to complete a confidential EEO Incident Report. 6.3 B – No intermediate endorsements. 6.4 D – No company journal/log entries shall be entered with regard to any EEO complaints 6.9.

Question 45

Question 45: With 3 engines and 2 ladder companies on scene when a 10-75 is given, the correct safety team (until FAST Unit arrives) can be found in which choice? A: The Control FFs of the 1st and 2nd arriving engines B: The Backup and Control FFs of the 2nd arriving engine C: The Backup and Control FFs of the 3rd arriving engine D: The Control FF of the 2nd arriving engine and the LCC of the 2nd arriving ladder company

Answer 45

Answer: B Explanation: 1 Engine on scene- 5 FFs then its the Control and Door FF.....4 FF then its 2 FFs designated by the officer 1 Ladder on scene- 5 FFs then its the LCC and OV FFs....4 FFs then its the LCC and outside FF designated by the officer 1 engine and 1 ladder on scene then its the LCC and Control FFs (staffed with 5 or 4 FFs) 2 engines on scene then its the Backup and Control FFs from the 2nd arriving engine MMID ch 1 sec 5 (last page)

Question 46

Question 46: NYC owned transformers classified as “Non-PCB” 0-49 PPM PCB are marked by DEP with what color label? A: Yellow B: Blue C: Black D: Green

Answer 46

Answer: B Explanation: NYC “PCB CONTAMINATED TRANSFORMERS” 50-499 PPM PCB IS YELLOW AUC 266 add 3 sec 1.5.4

Question 47

Question 47: Heat can be transmitted in the fire environment in a number of ways. Which of the following choices is incorrect? A: With “Conduction” heat may be transmitted from one body to another by direct contact of two objects or by an intervening heat-conducting medium (material). B: With “Convection” heat may be transmitted by the movement of air or liquid. Fire spread by convection is mostly in an upward direction; however, air currents can carry heat in any direction. C: Conductive heat transfer can be exponentially increased by wind. This is called “Forced Conduction” and is a critical factor in wind-driven fires. D: With “Radiation” heat may be transferred through the movement of heat waves. Heat and light waves will cause radiated heat to travel through a space until it reaches an object and radiated heat is one of the major sources of fire spread to exposures.

Answer 47

Answer: C Explanation: C) CONVECTIVE heat transfer can be exponentially increased by wind. This is called “FORCED CONVECTION” and is a critical factor in wind-driven fires. D Note: Radiated heat is also one of the major causes of firefighter burn injuries and flashover in a compartment fire. TB FD Ch 1 2.7.3, 2.7.4

Question 48

Question 48: Units must be properly positioned at the scene of a structural collapse. Of the following choices, which is incorrect? A: If possible, both the first and second arriving engines should take separate hydrants outside the block, each on separate mains. B: Two of the second alarm engine companies should be used to seal off the ends of the street. C: Tower ladders should be placed in front of the collapsed structure, outside of the collapse danger zone. D: Aerial ladders should be kept away from the front of the building in a secondary staging area unless they are SOC Support Ladder Companies; in which case they should be placed in front of the collapsed structure, outside of the collapse danger zone.

Answer 48

Answer: D Explanation: D) Aerial ladders should be kept away from the front of the building in a secondary staging area unless NEEDED FOR SPECIFIC RESCUE PURPOSES. SOC Support Ladder Companies shall position the SAME as other ladder apparatus, with their second pieces located near the main apparatus. A Note: The third and fourth engines should take similar positions at the rear of the structure. B Note: Remaining engine companies should be positioned well away from the scene, for they will probably be responding for personnel needs only. C Note: Initially, the first arriving tower ladder should be the only unit in front of the collapse building, unless there is a specific need for additional units. Subsequent arriving tower ladders should be positioned to reach and protect a different exposure. Collapse 5.3, 5.4

Question 49

Question 49: Lt Dave Magadan is working in L-500 in the Great Borough of the Bronx when he receives a ticket for an odor of gas on the 4th floor of a 100X200 "H" type multiple dwelling. In which choice did Lt Magadan operate correctly? A: As Lt Magadan started walking up the stairs an odor of gas was detected on the Altair meter. Lt Magadan and his inside team proceeded to the 4th floor, and sent his outside team to the cellar to investigate. B: As Lt Magadan started walking up the stairs an odor of gas was detected on the Altair meter. Lt Magadan turned around and proceeded directly to the cellar, and sent the Engine Officer to the 4th floor C: The main mission of this run is to ensure there is not a minor gas leak D: As Lt Magadan and his members searched for the origin of the natural gas leak, Lt Magadan ensured his members did not vent so as to not dilute the atmosphere in order for the meter and detector to work properly

Answer 49

Answer: B Explanation: Emergency Procedures Natural Gas Emergencies A- If any natural gas levels are displayed on the Natural Gas Meter upon entering the building, or while proceeding to the reported location within the building, the inside team should proceed directly to the basement/cellar to evaluate conditions...p-20 B- Engine Officer to proceed to the reported location/caller noting odors, information gathered and detector activity. Report info to Ladder officer and BC ....p- 20 C- The main mission of this run is to ensure there is not a MAJOR gas leak...p- 20 D- A safer procedure may be to vent while searching for the leak and if the leak is not located, units can continue their investigation until the arrival of the appropriate Utility Company.....p-19

Question 50

Question 50: Which one of the following occurrences requires an officer to make direct phone notification to BITS? A: Any instance of incompetence so serious that the officer believes disciplinary charges are warranted. B: Preference of charges against a member. C: Dangerous misuse of a Department vehicle. D: Misuse or misappropriation of the Department’s time.

Answer 50

Answer: C Explanation: Phone is “ABCD”: Alcohol on duty; arrest of member Brawls amongst members Confrontation on duty with PD, government agencies, or civilians Dangerous misuse of Department vehicle; drugs on duty Written is “IMMAC”: Incompetence Misconduct not falling within jurisdiction of IG Misuse of Department’s time Arrest of member follow-up information Charges AUC 268 3.1, 4.1

Question 51

Question 51: At the scene of a collapse, the chief in charge orders your unit, Ladder 100, to mark your search of an area using the search assessment marking system. You entered the area at 1400 hours, and exited at 1500 hours on 3/15/22. You found one deceased victim and one open shaft. You would be most correct in which marking? A: The Top Quadrant should read “1400 hours and 3/15/22.” B: The Right Quadrant should state “open shaft.” C: The Bottom Quadrant should read “Lad-100.” D: The Left Quadrant should read “1-Dead.”

Answer 51

Answer: B Explanation: A) The Top Quadrant should read “1500 hours and 3/15/22.” The time and date that the company/team personnel LEFT the structure/area. Note: Your unit designation should be in the left quadrant. The LEFT Quadrant should read “Lad-100.” The BOTTOM Quadrant should read “1-Dead.” Collapse Add 2 4.3-4.6

Question 52

Question 52: The telescoping ladder is an extremely compact and versatile tool and may be especially useful for certain non-fire emergencies. Of the following choices, which is incorrect regarding this ladder? A: It is easily carried by one member and can be transported through crowded, confined spaces to where it is needed. B: The length, when nested, is 32 inches and it can be extended incrementally up to just over 12 feet. C: It is useful for laddering the rear of a fire building. D: It must not be used horizontally as a bridge or plank.

Answer 52

Answer: C Explanation: C) It must NOT be used for laddering a fire building. C Note: This is due to lack of heat resistance. Note: It must also not be secured at the top and hung vertically (like a straight hook ladder). Lad 1 8.5

Question 53

Question 53: The correct amount of foam and operating time when 3 Engines and 2 Ladder Companies are on scene can be found in which choice? A: 65 gallons of foam solution with approximately 17 minutes of operating time B: 65 gallons of finish firefighting foam with approximately 17 minutes of operating time C: 75 gallons of foam solution with approximately 20 minutes of operating time D: 65 gallons of foam concentrate with approximately 17 minutes of operating time

Answer 53

Answer: D Explanation: 2005 Lts exam A first alarm assignment of 3 Engines and 2 Ladders should provide 13 five-gallon containers of foam which is a total of 65 gallons of AR-AFFF foam concentrate. This will provide approximately 17 minutes of finished firefighting foam at a 3% setting on the eductor with the aerating foam nozzle. At 3% the eductor will be consuming 3.75 gallons of foam concentrate per minute NOTE: there is a difference between foam concentrate, foam solution and finish firefighting foam......On scene is 65 gallons of foam concentrate Foam sec 7.2

Question 54

Question 54: While operating at a radiological emergency, at what dose should members normally be rotated if staffing and equipment are sufficient? A: 5 mR B: 10 mR C: 5 Rem D: 10 Rem

Answer 54

Answer: C Explanation: PROTECTIVE ACTION GUIDELINES 50 REM: LIFESAVING FOR A CATASTROPHIC EVENT 25 REM: LIFESAVING OR PROTECTION OF LARGE POPULATIONS 10 REM: PROTECTION OF MAJOR PROPERTY 5 REM: GENERAL OPERATIONS AT A RADIOLOGICAL EMERGENCY ERP Addendum 4 3.2.2 A

Question 55

Question 55: In an effort to notify a member that an emergency situation just developed during fire conditions, the FDNY crafted an emergency touch signal by forcibly striking another member to make him/her aware of the situation. The correct procedure can be found in which choice? A: When one member forcibly strikes another member with four distinct blows on the shoulder and then pulls that member in a specific direction, the second member will recognize that the other member knows of an emergency and should promptly follow in that direction B: When one member forcibly strikes another member with three distinct blows on the back and then pulls that member in a specific direction, the second member will recognize that the other member knows of an emergency and should promptly follow in that direction C: When one member forcibly strikes another member with three distinct blows on the shoulder and then pulls that member in a specific direction, the second member will recognize that the other member knows of an emergency and should promptly follow in that direction D: When one member forcibly strikes another member with five distinct blows on the shoulder and then pulls that member in a specific direction, the second member will recognize that the other member knows of an emergency and should promptly follow in that direction

Answer 55

Answer: A Explanation: SCBA sec 7.4.1

Question 56

Question 56: Your Engine Company is operating at a fire on the 46th floor of a high rise office building. What is the recommended pump pressure in this specific instance? A: 250 psi B: 300 psi C: 350 psi D: 400 psi

Answer 56

Answer: C Explanation: Floors 41 to 50 - 350 psi HROB 4.1.7

Question 57

Question 57: There are certain procedures when the PSS/Personal Harness is damaged or being placed OOS. The correct procedure can be found in which choice? A: When the PSS bag needs replacement (damaged) the officer shall contact the Battalion for replacement B: When the PSS bag and rope have been grossly contaminated with fireground contamination they shall be placed OOS. Officer shall call Division for replacement C: When the Personal Harness is damage the officer shall call the Battalion for replacement D: When the Personal Harness becomes contaminated from fireground contaminants, the Personal Harness shall be decontaminated in quarters using a sponge and water

Answer 57

Answer: D Explanation: A- When the PSS bag needs replacement (damaged) the officer shall contact the DIVISION for replacement B- When the PSS bag and rope have been grossly contaminated with OTHER THAN fireground contamination they shall be placed OOS. Fax EDR-1 to DSU. Officer shall call Division for replacement C- When the Personal Harness is damage the officer shall call the DIVISION for replacement Rope 4 add 1

Question 58

Question 58: Which staffing guideline below is not in accordance with FDNY procedures? A: After the start of the tour, while awaiting details, units staffed with an officer an minimum three firefighters (at least one of which is a chauffeur), shall respond to all alarms. B: An additional ladder company (above the FAST truck) shall be assigned to a 10-75 when both of the two initially assigned ladder companies report responding with four firefighters. C: Units with only an officer and a chauffeur shall be placed OOS, however this unit, while staffed with only an officer and chauffeur shall respond to any verbal alarms received while in quarters. D: An understaffed unit is any unit staffed with less than four firefighters.

Answer 58

Answer: A Explanation: A. After the start of the tour, while awaiting details, units staffed with an officer an MINIMUM TWO firefighters (at least one of which is a chauffeur), shall respond to all alarms. NOTE: WHEN NOTIFIED THAT A COMPANY IS RESPONDING UNDERSTAFFED THE DISPATCHER SHALL SPECIAL CALL ANOTHER UNIT (ENGINE FOR ENGINE, LADDER FOR LADDER, ETC.) TO RESPOND IN ADDITION TO THE UNDERSTAFFED UNIT. NOT TO EXCEED FOUR ENGINES AND FOUR LADDERS *KNOW THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN REDUCED STAFFED AND UNDERSTAFFED* AUC 8.2.4, 8.3.1, 8.3.4, 8.3.5

Question 59

Question 59: Proper placement of the tip of a portable ladder provides for easier and safer mounting and dismounting. Of the following choices, which placement option is not in accordance with Department guidelines? A: When placed at a window, the tip shall be level with window sill. B: When placed at a roof, the tip shall be at least 2 feet above the roof or parapet. C: When placed alongside a fire escape on a building wall, the tip shall be 1 to 3 feet above the fire escape railing. D: When placed against a fire escape, the tip shall be level with the fire escape railing.

Answer 59

Answer: D Explanation: D) When placed against a fire escape, the tip shall be SLIGHTLY ABOVE the fire escape railing. Lad 1 7.4

Question 60

Question 60: Aerial ladder placement may affect the outcome of an operation and all members should be well versed in proper positioning. Of the following choices, which is incorrect? A: When placing the aerial ladder to the roof, extend the ladder so that the tip is at least 5 feet above the point where the ladder comes in contact with the building. B: Recommended distance of the tip from the objective is 2" to 6". In case of rescue, use the 2" positioning. C: At a very extreme angle, (e.g., placing the ladder to the roof of a seven story building,) allow the ladder to barely touch the building. D: When positioning a ladder at a window, the ladder tip should be a minimum of 6" over the window sill.

Answer 60

Answer: D Explanation: D) When positioning a ladder at a window, the ladder tip should be LESS THAN 6" over the window sill. Lad 2 3.1.5, 3.1.6, 7.13

Question 61

Question 61: Lt Mookie Wilson is working the 6X9 tour in L500 on October 1st, 2022, when a ticket comes in for a fire on the 22nd floor of a 30 sty 100X100 Cl 1 MD. Upon arrival, Lt Wilson transmitted the 10-77 for a fire out the window on the 22nd floor. In an effort to make the hallway, the K.O. curtain was deployed, and the fire was extinguished. In regards to the K.O. Curtain, the most correct procedure following deployment can be found in which choice? A: The IC will prepare a brief letterhead report to the Chief of Operations detailing the use of the device and a description of any damage that may have occurred from the deployment of the device at the incident. In addition, a report shall be sent to the Chief of the Fire Academy B: The Company Commander of L500 will prepare a brief letterhead report to the Chief of Operations detailing the use of the device and a description of any damage that may have occurred from the deployment of the device at the incident. In addition, a report shall be sent to the Chief of the Fire Academy C: Lt Wilson will prepare a brief letterhead report to the Chief of Operations detailing the use of the device and a description of any damage that may have occurred from the deployment of the device at the incident. In addition, a report shall be sent to the Chief of the Fire Academy D: The Fire Sector Supervisor will prepare a brief letterhead report to the Chief of Operations detailing the use of the device and a description of any damage that may have occurred from the deployment of the device at the incident. In addition, a report shall be sent to the Chief of the Fire Academy

Answer 61

Answer: C Explanation: Upon completion of operations where a K.O. Curtain is deployed, the K.O. Curtain will be confiscated by the Safety Battalion, then turned over to R and D. The Ladder Company Officer of the confiscated Curtain will prepare a brief letterhead report to the Chief of Operations detailing the use of the device and a description of any damage that may have occurred from the deployment of the device at the incident. In addition, a report shall be sent to the Chief of the Fire Academy **** If a Company's KO Curtain is damaged in other than fire operations, the Company Commander will complete a letterhead report with all details to the Chief of Operations. The letterhead requires full endorsements and a replacement Curtain shall be obtained from the Division Training Bulletins Tools 2

Question 62

Question 62: Which of the following items may be stored inside a members personal locker: 1. Bunker pants and bunker coat; 2. Helmet; 3. Gloves; 4. Helmet; 5. Hood? A: 5 only B: 2,3,4,5 only C: 1,2,3,4,5 D: None

Answer 62

Answer: D Explanation: ALL THESE ITEMS ARE CONSIDERED PART OF MEMBERS FIREFIGHTING PROTCTIVE ENSEMBLE. FIREFIGHTING PROTECTIVE ENSEMBLE MAY NOT BE STORED IN PERSONAL LOCKERS. AUC 310 Addendum 3 1.2, 3.1

Question 63

Question 63: Operation of the Aerial Ladder should be the subject of company drill and all members should be familiar with basic Aerial Ladder controls. Which of the following choices is incorrect? A: When both stabilizers are properly in place, both STABILIZER DOWN red lights will be illuminated. B: Stabilizer jack pads shall be placed under the area where the stabilizers come in contact with the ground. Manual Safety Pins must be placed in the highest hole possible in the stabilizers. C: Wheel chocks should be placed to prevent movement of the apparatus. Carry one set of chocks on each side of apparatus. D: For unobstructed climbing of the Aerial Ladder, align the rungs. This is accomplished when the “Rung Alignment Indicator Light” is illuminated.

Answer 63

Answer: A Explanation: A) When both stabilizers are properly in place, both STABILIZER DOWN ”GREEN” lights will be illuminated. Note: Place the inboard side of the apparatus not more than 35' from the building line. Lad 2 8.2, 8.3, 8.5, 8.6

Question 64

Question 64: Initial tactics at vacant building fires require a cautious approach. Which of the following choices is not in accordance with Department guidelines? A: Members should stretch hose lines consistent with Department policies for each building type (e.g., stretch a 1 ¾” hose line for a fire in a vacant rowframe building). B: Engine Companies shall be alert to the need for a 3 ½” hose line to supply a Tower Ladder when consistent with operational needs. Whenever possible, a separate Engine shall be dedicated to the sole task of supplying water to a Tower Ladder in order to ensure proper water delivery. C: If it is absolutely necessary to use the drop ladder of a fire escape, either for a civilian life hazard or for fire operations, members lowering the drop ladder should stand directly in front of the fire escape balcony to reduce the risk of being injured if the fire escape balcony collapses. D: When operating on a fire escape, members should pay particular attention to areas of the metal structure that appear rusted or loose, and climb ladders with their feet as close to supporting stringers as possible to minimize step deflection. Members should avoid gooseneck ladders associated with vacant buildings whenever possible.

Answer 64

Answer: C Explanation: C) If it is absolutely necessary to use the drop ladder of a fire escape, either for a civilian life hazard or for fire operations, members lowering the drop ladder should STAND BENEATH the fire escape balcony in order to reduce the risk of being injured if the drop ladder falls free from its supporting guides. Vacants 6.1, 6.2

Question 65

Question 65: Upon arrival to the Fire Sector Supervisor during a HRFPMD fire, Lt Gary Carter who is working in L400 has just been tasked with deploying the Fire Window Blanket. Since the Fire Window Blanket is not discussed often, Lt Carter is struggling to remember the correct procedures. Lt Carter was correct in which procedure? A: The Fire Window Blanket will be found on the floor below the fire, which was delivered by the Rescue Company B: Any Unit may be used to deploy the Fire Window Blanket C: Due to the length of the top supporting straps, the blanket can be lowered from three floors above the fire floor D: Upon completion of operations, Lt Carter shall prepare a brief Letterhead report to the Chief of Operations detailing the use of the Blanket and a copy sent to the Chief of the Fire Academy

Answer 65

Answer: B Explanation: Training Bulletins Tools 3 Fire Window Blanket A- Squad Company carries and delivers the Fire Window Blanket to the floor below the fire...sec 3.3 B- sec 3.4 C- Due to the length of the top supporting straps, the blanket can be lowered from TWO floors above the fire floor...sec 3.5 D- The officer of the confiscated Fire Window Blanket (Safety Battalion takes Blanket).....In this case it would be the Squad officer does Letterhead report to Chief of Operations and copy sent to Chief of Fire Academy....sec 4.2

Question 66

Question 66: The Drager PAC 6500 CO meter is a relatively new tool in the FDNY. Which one feature of this meter is described correctly? A: The meter must remain on while outside of quarters only. B: The meter will retain the lowest reading the meter has been subjected to. C: Alarm threshold 1, (A1) is activated at 35 PPM. When the CO concentration falls below 35 PPM, the alarm will automatically turn off. D: Alarm threshold 2 (A2) is activated at 100 PPM. Alarm threshold 2 (A2) cannot be acknowledged or silenced.

Answer 66

Answer: C Explanation: A. The meter IS ALWAYS TO REMAIN ON. THE ON/OFF FUNCTION HAS BEEN DISABLED. B. The meter will retain the HIGHEST reading the meter has been subjected to. DUE TO THE CO METER REMAINING CONSTANTLY ON, THIS PEAK READING IS NOT TO BE RELIED ON OR USED DURING ANY OPERATION OR INCIDENT. D. Alarm threshold 2 (A2) is activated at 100 PPM. Alarm threshold 2 (A2) CAN BE ACKNOWLEDGED OR SILENCED BY PRESSING THE OK BUTTON. NOTE THE ‘”D” CHOICE WAS AN UPDATE IN MARCH 2021 Hazardous Materials Ch 4 Addendum 2 2.1, 2.3, 2.4, 2.5, 2.7

Question 67

Question 67: If fire originates in the center commercial occupancy of a taxpayer with 5 commercial occupancies, how would you designate the occupancy which is 2 stores to the left of where the fire originated? A: 2OA B: O2B C: O2A D: 2OB

Answer 67

Answer: C Explanation: Comm Ch 10 Add 2 Illustration 3

Question 68

Question 68: At an Under River Rail emergency, in what order should victims be removed? A: 1. Ambulatory Victims; 2. Non-Ambulatory Victims - Yellow Tag (Delayed Transport); 3. Non-Ambulatory Victims - Red Tag (Immediate Transport); 4. Victims Requiring Disentanglement/Extrication - Yellow Tag (Delayed Transport); 5. Victims Requiring Disentanglement/Extrication - Red Tag (Immediate Transport); 6. Black Tag (deceased victims) B: 1. Ambulatory Victims; 2. Non-Ambulatory Victims - Red Tag (Immediate Transport); 3. Non-Ambulatory Victims - Yellow Tag (Delayed Transport); 4. Victims Requiring Disentanglement/Extrication - Red Tag (Immediate Transport); 5. Victims Requiring Disentanglement/Extrication - Yellow Tag (Delayed Transport); 6. Black Tag (deceased victims) C: 1. Non-Ambulatory Victims - Yellow Tag (Delayed Transport); 2. Non-Ambulatory Victims - Red Tag (Immediate Transport); 3. Victims Requiring Disentanglement/Extrication - Yellow Tag (Delayed Transport); 4. Victims Requiring Disentanglement/Extrication - Red Tag (Immediate Transport); 5 Ambulatory Victims; 6. Black Tag (deceased victims) D: 1. Ambulatory Victims; 2. Victims Requiring Disentanglement/Extrication - Red Tag (Immediate Transport); 3. Victims Requiring Disentanglement/Extrication - Yellow Tag (Delayed Transport); 4 Non-Ambulatory Victims - Red Tag (Immediate Transport); 5. Non-Ambulatory Victims - Yellow Tag (Delayed Transport); 6. Black Tag (deceased victims)

Answer 68

Answer: B Explanation: 1. Ambulatory Victims 2. Non-Ambulatory Victims - Red Tag (Immediate Transport) 3. Non-Ambulatory Victims - Yellow Tag (Delayed Transport) 4. Victims Requiring Disentanglement/Extrication - Red Tag (Immediate Transport) 5. Victims Requiring Disentanglement/Extrication - Yellow Tag (Delayed Transport) 6. Black Tag (deceased victims) URR 7.1

Question 69

Question 69: The most correct procedure when using the Maxi Force Airbags can be found in which choice? A: Never have the bag connected to the air supply prior to placing it under or between a load B: When the high pressure gauge falls below 250 psi, change the air cylinder C: Air bags are not meant to be stacked during use. D: The low pressure gauge shall be set at 135 psi

Answer 69

Answer: D Explanation: Training Bulletins Tools 20 Maxi Force Air Bags A- ALWAYS have the bag connected to the air supply prior to placing it under or between a load to minimize the operator's exposure to the load area and to eliminate the possibility of the operator placing the bag with the air inlet under the load....sec 3.2.7.note B- When the high pressure gauge falls below 200 psi, change the air cylinder ...sec 3.1.4.Note and 5.1 C- Never stack more than 2 bags on top of each other and always place the smaller bag on top of the larger one...,,When stacking bags, generally inflate the bottom bag first ....sec 6.9.3 and 6.9.4 D- sec 3.1.4

Question 70

Question 70: Who shall be notified to respond to voucher currency at any operation where large amounts of currency are discovered? A: NYPD B: Fire Marshals C: IG D: BITS

Answer 70

Answer: B Explanation: SIMILAR QUESTION ON 2009 LT EXAM AUC 317 5.14

Question 71

Question 71: All members assigned to a Tower Ladder Unit should have a basic understanding of this apparatus’ operation. Which of the following choices is incorrect? A: Tower Ladders have indentations in the turntable to accept outriggers and this necessitates that outriggers must be moved clear of the turntable before operating the boom. Also, the boom must be returned to its original position (turntable arrow markings aligned) before outriggers are bedded. B: Detailed members should not operate on the turntable unless they are presently assigned to a Tower Ladder Unit or are a qualified Chauffeur-Tiller (QCT, School Trained). C: A test of the intercom system shall be made each tour and at the initial stages of placing the Tower Ladder into operation. If results are negative, members shall rely on the HT for communication between the bucket and pedestal. D: Under normal conditions the member on the pedestal should control movement of the bucket. However, the member operating from an elevated position should take over when delicate maneuvers are required.

Answer 71

Answer: D Explanation: D) Under normal conditions the MEMBER OPERATING FROM AN ELEVATED POSITION should control movement of the bucket. However, the MEMBER ON THE PEDESTAL should take over when delicate maneuvers are required, as long as this member’s line of sight is not obstructed. TL Ch 1 1.1, 1.3, 1.5

Question 72

Question 72: If the Tower Ladder bucket makes contact with a building, structure or other obstruction, a potentially dangerous condition may present itself, with likelihood of the bucket becoming wedged or stuck dramatically increasing. If this occurs, each of the following actions would be correct except? A: Verify all members are secured to a substantial part of the bucket using the installed safety belt, life belt or personal harness. B: Notify the Incident Commander (transmitting an “URGENT” message after depressing the EAB) of the condition. C: Remain low in the bucket. All members should immediately crouch, sit or otherwise remain low in the bucket to lower their center of gravity in anticipation of possible sudden, violent movements. D: Both P.T.O. and the apparatus should be shut down.

Answer 72

Answer: D Explanation: D) P.T.O. should REMAIN ENGAGED and the apparatus SHUT DOWN. TL Ch 3 3.6

Question 73

Question 73: The most correct procedure when operating at an Incinerator/Compactor fire can be found in which choice? A: For Incinerator operations the Ladder Company Inside Team will report directly to the basement/cellar, and the OV FF will operate with the Engine Company to locate and extinguish the blockage that's on fire B: During an Incinerator fire, if you open a chute door on a floor and smoke comes out, the blockage is generally above that floor C: For a Compactor fire, the Engine Company shall report to the floor of the reported fire and operate into the chute to extinguish the fire D: For Compactor operations, the Ladder Company Inside Team will report to the floor above where the fire is located and operate with the engine company to extinguish all fire

Answer 73

Answer: B Explanation: Training Bulletins Fires 7 Incinerator & Compactor Fires A- Inside Team of the Ladder Company will generally operate inside the building to ventilate, search, and to locate the blockage...sec 2.1 B- During an Incinerator fire, you open a chute door on a floor and smoke comes out, the blockage is generally above that floor.....If instead when you open it, a draft goes inward or there is little smoke, the blockage is generally below that floor or the blockage has freed itself...sec 2.2 C- For a Compactor fire, the Engine Company shall report to the floor ABOVE of the reported fire and operate into the chute to extinguish the fire ...sec 8.2.A D- For Compactor operations, the OV FF will report to the floor above where the fire is located and operate with the engine company to extinguish all fire....Ladder Inside Team will operate in the compactor room...sec 8.2

Question 74

Question 74: Company officers need to be familiar with the probationary firefighter development program. At the end of each monthly training module is a twenty question quiz that must be completed. If a passing mark is not attained after the _______ attempt, the program will be temporarily locked and will require the company officer to contact the Probationary Firefighters Development Program Group via email. A: First B: Second C: Third D: Fourth

Answer 74

Answer: C Explanation: AUC 323 2.1

Question 75

Question 75: Which tactic to be employed at an Old Law Tenement is described incorrectly below? A: Going from front to rear apartments or vice versa through the common partition may be used as an escape route. To accomplish this use the halligan, hook or axe. This is the order of preference but all can do the job. B: Cutting a floor with the saw is the most efficient; however, the area must be vented to prevent buildup of carbon monoxide. C: Cutting a floor with an axe requires the floor to be cut at a 90 degree angle and on a bias. This is easier than cutting across the grain. D: Trim around windows and doors is put on last during the construction stage and should be the first pieces removed if examination is required at these points. Removal of the trim is generally sufficient to allow an adequate examination and application of water.

Answer 75

Answer: C Explanation: C) Cutting a floor with an axe requires the floor to be cut at a 60 DEGREE angle and on a bias. This is easier than cutting across the grain. Lad 3 6.1, 7.4.2 A, B, 7.4.3

Question 76

Question 76: Proper Tower Ladder operation takes both knowledge and skill. Of the following choices, which is incorrect? A: The Tower Ladder may be used as a high point anchor and the preferred location for the high point anchor is under the bucket. Under no circumstances shall the landing pads of the bucket be used as a high point anchor. B: Overhead wires may interfere with Tower Ladder operations and present serious safety and operational concerns. Positioning the turntable directly under wires may allow for upper floor VEIS/roof access and positioning the center of the apparatus directly under overhead wires, (or in between wires and the fire building) at times utilizing the sidewalk, may also allow for safe clearance and utilization of the bucket. C: Live overhead wires can present a problem if they fall onto the apparatus and it is possible for the apparatus to be energized, particularly if the jacks and outriggers are up. If this should occur, notify the Incident Commander (transmitting an “URGENT” message after depressing the EAB) of the condition. D: When trees obstruct operations, it is possible to extend or raise the boom through light branches. However, retracting or lowering the boom through branches may present a problem and some cutting may be required.

Answer 76

Answer: C Explanation: C) Live overhead wires can present a problem if they fall onto the apparatus and it is possible for the apparatus to be energized, particularly if the jacks and outriggers are DOWN IN PLACE. If this should occur, notify the Incident Commander (transmitting an “URGENT” message after depressing the EAB) of the condition. C Note: If this occurs, No member shall touch the apparatus; also consider supply lines and the supply pumper. Safeguard civilians and other unsuspecting members. Any members already in position on an energized apparatus should attempt to remain in place and are not to be touched until power has been removed. TL Ch 2 2.7, 2.8, Ch 5 5.4

Question 77

Question 77: The correct procedure when using NYCHA key FOBs and Elevator Machinery room keys can be found in which choice? A: When NYCHA key FOBs fail to unlock the door, use conventional forcible entry methods B: Should the building lose power, the NYCHA door will remain locked. A special key will be needed to unlock the door from the outside, which has been issued to all units. C: NYCHA Elevator Machinery Room Keys have been issued to all Units. These keys have a serial number printed on them and must be recorded in the Office Record Journal D: If the key FOB or Elevator Machinery Room Key is lost or damaged, the officer on duty shall call NYCHA 24 hour number to obtain new ones. A Lost Property report is not necessary

Answer 77

Answer: D Explanation: NEW as of March 2022.....Training Bulletins Tools 41 A- Should the key FOB fail to unlock the door, it can be unlocked remotely by NYCHA security by calling their emergency number directly or indirectly (dispatcher)...sec 1.3 B- The key is not issued to FDNY Units at this time, but it can be requested from building management office...sec 1.4 C- NYCHA Elevator Machinery Room Keys are standard issue and do not have serial numbers ..sec 2.1..............Key FOBS have serial numbers and need to be recorded in Office Record Journal....sec 3.1 D- sec 3.3, 3.4, and 3.4.note

Question 78

Question 78: FDNY units are participating in a multi-agency drill with PAPD concerning major aircraft incidents. Which one policy discussed is incorrect? A: Ensuring an adequate delivery of water is the primary function of the Fire Department at airport emergencies. B: When the FDNY supplies water to the PA/ARFF Crash Trucks Engine Company Chauffeurs should not exceed 60-psi at the intakes of ARFF Crash Trucks. C: Units should be ready to develop and operate water or foam streams, utilizing handlines and large caliber streams, from FDNY apparatus or PA crash trucks. D: The PAPD escort should remain with units until a positive water supply can be confirmed.

Answer 78

Answer: B Explanation: When the FDNY supplies water to the PA/ARFF Crash Trucks Engine Company Chauffeurs should NOT EXCEED 80-PSI at the intakes of ARFF Crash Trucks. AUC 325 4.1.1, 4.1.2, 4.1.3, 4.1.4

Question 79

Question 79: Two officers working in Queens were discussing the proper use of the eCIDS application. In which choice below was the comment made incorrect? A: A Fire-Protected structure occupied as a residential building should be classified as “CL2” in eCIDS. B: To submit an immediate eCIDS for an imminently hazardous condition, change the “CIDS type” dropdown from “Original” or “Revised” to “Immediate”. After submitting the eCIDS entry, notify the administrative BC by phone. C: It is mandatory that every building designated as a Bowstring Truss (BWSTRG), CFR Hold (CFRH), Major Alteration (MJALT), Pre-Incident Guideline (PG), Rehabilitated (REHAB), or Mega High-Rise, which is any building over 800' (MEGA), be included in the CIDS program. D: When submitting an eCIDS for an interconnected/attached building or building complex with a separate house numbers posted on each building, a separate eCIDS entry must be entered for each address, with the "Transmitted Data" portion of each entry indicating the number of buildings in the complex.

Answer 79

Answer: A Explanation: A) A Fire-Protected structure occupied as a residential building should be classified as “CL2R” in eCIDS. Comm Ch 4 4.3.1, 4.3.3 B, 4.5.1 A4, 4.5.3 B

Question 80

Question 80: For a fire on the 5th floor of a 5-story, nonfireproof multiple dwelling, the 2nd arriving Roof Firefighter would be most correct to bring which of the following tools? A: Handie-Talkie, Flashlight, Halligan, & 6’ Halligan Hook. B: Handie-Talkie, Flashlight, Saw, & 6’ Halligan Hook. C: Handie-Talkie, Flashlight, Saw, & Halligan. D: Handie-Talkie, Flashlight, Halligan, & 6’ Hook.

Answer 80

Answer: B Explanation: A Note: Handie-Talkie, Flashlight, Halligan, & 6’ Halligan Hook. - This would be correct for fire on any floor except for the top floor. For top floor fires the saw and the 6’ Halligan Hook are taken. Lad 3 3.4.7

Question 81

Question 81: When operating at a motor vehicle accident on a highway with the estimated speed of 70 MPH, it is important to place flares on the roadway to warn oncoming traffic of the accident. In this situation, the minimum distance to the furthest flare can be correctly found in which choice? A: 550 feet B: 420 feet C: 310 feet D: To be determined by the Ladder Company Officer

Answer 81

Answer: A Explanation: 70 mph x 7 + 60 = 550 60 mph x 6 + 60 = 420 50 mph x 5 + 60 = 310 Training Bulletins Fires 8 Operations at Motor Vehicle Incidents and Emergencies

Question 82

Question 82: At ConEd transmission and distribution substations, when raising aerial ladders and tower ladder buckets, a safe clearance of how many feet shall be maintained horizontally from the substations exterior fence line? A: 10 B: 18 C: 25 D: 32

Answer 82

Answer: B Explanation: VOLTAGE OF 345kV SAFE DISTANCE IS 18 FEET VOLATGE OF 15kV TO 38kV SAFE DISTANCE IS 10 FEET WE DEFAULT TO THE HIGHER VOLTAGE DISTANCE AND MAINTAIN 18 FEET SIMILAR QUESTION ASKED ON PREVIOUS PROMOTIONAL EXAM AUC 338 Addendum 2 Table 3 & 6.0

Question 83

Question 83: In company quarters, during a discussion of overhaul operations in nonfireproof multiple dwellings, a newly transferred firefighter pointed out which incorrect statement made? A: Hanging ends of cable such as electric (BX), telephone and coaxial television shall be secured near the ceiling. Loops of cable hanging down shall be pushed up out of the way. B: When performing overhaul operations, all members must wear their Department issued PPE including bunker coat, bunker pants, bunker boots, helmets, protective hoods and gloves. C: Care should be exercised when overhauling in bathrooms. Consider using the reach of the hook and standing just inside the bathroom to open up the ceiling. D: Floor joists or roof joists should not be removed if complete extinguishment can be accomplished in any other manner. Lintels in brick walls over exterior doorways and windows should not be removed, regardless of charring.

Answer 83

Answer: C Explanation: C) Care should be exercised when overhauling in bathrooms. Consider using the reach of the hook and standing OUTSIDE the bathroom to open up the ceiling. Lad 3 8.4, 8.10, 8.16, 9.3

Question 84

Question 84: Ladder Company 199 is operating at a roof deck fire in lower Manhattan. On arrival at the roof, the Lieutenant working in Ladder 199 sees a conduit running across the roof that has yellow labeling on it. He would be correct to identify this as which one of the following contents? A: Natural gas piping B: Fuel oil piping C: High voltage wiring D: Low voltage wiring

Answer 84

Answer: A Explanation: 1. High voltage wiring: Red 2. Low voltage wiring: Orange 3. Natural gas piping: Yellow 4. Other compressed gas piping: Yellow, labeled at regular intervals with the type of gas 5. Fuel oil piping: Yellow with black stripes AUC 5 Ch 2 Addendum 3 Pg 5

Question 85

Question 85: Which Dangerous Fire Event is stated correctly? A: Flashover occurs during the Fully Developed Stage of the fire B: Rollover over occurs during the Fully Developed Stage of the fire C: Black fire occurs in areas of the fire building which are said to be in the Growth Stage of the fire D: Smoke explosions are caused when there is an introduction of oxygen to a compartment that has been pressurized by the smoke and fire gases of an oxygen deficient fire in the Decay Stage

Answer 85

Answer: C Explanation: Training Bulletins Fire Dynamics ch 3 (NEW as of May 2021) A- Flashover occurs during the Growth Stage of the fire........Once flashover has occurred, the fire within the compartment is said to be in the Fully Developed Stage.... sec 3.5 B- Rollover occurs during the Growth Stage of the fire.....Rollover is different from flashover because in rollover primarily the gasses are burning not the entire contents of the room.....Rollover indicates that flashover is imminent...sec 2.3 and 2.4 C- Sec 5.1 D- BACKDRAFTS are caused when there is an introduction of oxygen to a compartment that has been pressurized by the smoke and fire gases of an oxygen deficient fire in the Decay Stage SMOKE EXPLOSIONS occur when a smoke air mixture falls within its flammable range, either internal or external to the fire compartment, and is ignited in a manner resulting in a significant pressure front. A smoke explosion occurs without an immediate ventilation triggering event...sec 6.2 and 7.1

Question 86

Question 86: To ensure that the In-Rig EBF-4 application continues to work properly, and to ensure that all officers are familiar with it, it should be used to submit the riding list instead of the EBF-4 application on the intranet during which one of the following tours? A: Saturday 9x6 B: Saturday 6x9 C: Sunday 9x6 D: Sunday 6x9

Answer 86

Answer: C Explanation: AUC 346 6.6

Question 87

Question 87: Your unit is inspecting a 4-story wood frame building that was completely gutted and outfitted with metal studs and c-joists. When submitting eCIDS, you would be most correct to designate this building as a? A: CL2LW B: CL3LW C: CL4LW D: CL2

Answer 87

Answer: C Explanation: A Wood Frame structure which is constructed, renovated or repaired using ANY type of structural Light-Weight materials should be classified as CL4LW. Comm Ch 4 4.5.3 B

Question 88

Question 88: Members may encounter serious fire events such as backdrafts and smoke explosions while operating at taxpayer fires. Which of the following choices is incorrect? A: Members should conduct vertical ventilation (when possible and safe to do so) in conjunction with a flanking attack. However, if vertical ventilation will be delayed, the flanking attack should be withheld until vertical ventilation is completed first. B: “Smoke Explosions” can occur without warning and without a sudden change in ventilation. C: ”Backdrafts” occur when there is an introduction of oxygen into a compartment pressurized by the smoke and fire gases of an oxygen-deficient fire in the Decay Stage. D: Water application onto the fire must not be delayed. If there will be a delay, the ladder company officer or IC should order roof ventilation to be delayed or withheld until water can be applied to the fire.

Answer 88

Answer: A Explanation: A) Members should conduct vertical ventilation (when possible and safe to do so) in conjunction with a flanking attack. However, the flanking attack should NOT be delayed for vertical ventilation to be completed first. Txpyrs 4.4.1, 4.4.3 A2-4

Question 89

Question 89: The correct order of shutting an appliance that's leaking natural gas can be found in which choice? A: Appliance valve, Interior Gas Riser Valve, Individual Meter Valve, Master Meter Valve, Head of Service Valve, Street Valve B: Appliance valve, Interior Gas Riser Valve, Individual Meter Valve, Master Meter Valve, Head of Service Valve, Curb Valve/Service Valve C: Appliance valve, Individual Meter Valve, Interior Gas Riser Valve, Master Meter Valve, Head of Service Valve, Curb Valve/Service Valve D: Appliance valve, Interior Gas Riser Valve, Individual Meter Valve, Head of Service Valve, Master Meter Valve,, Street Valve

Answer 89

Answer: B Explanation: Emergency Procedures Natural Gas Emergencies p-22 ***FDNY is not permitted to shut a Street (Main) valve p- 25 ****Although the FDNY is authorized to shut curb valves/service valves, it should only be done as a last resort and in consultation with the utility company p- 24

Question 90

Question 90: When dealing with lithium ion battery mobility device fires what is the correct order of preference for moving the involved device until it can be appropriately over packed/mitigated by Haz Mat Company 1 or a Haz Mat Tech Unit? A: Sink; tub; garbage pail or bucket; fire apartment window B: Tub; sink; garbage pail or bucket; fire apartment window C: Fire apartment window; tub; sink; garbage pail or bucket D: Tub; sink; fire apartment window; garbage pail or bucket

Answer 90

Answer: B Explanation: CODE: “BATTERIES SHOULD GET WET” BATHROOM TUB (WITH ALL CELLS FULLY SUBMERGED) SINK (LARGE ENOUGH THAT CELLS CAN BE FULLY SUBMERGED) GARBAGE PAIL OR BUCKET (LARGE ENOUGH THAT CELLS CAN BE FULLY SUBMERGED) WINDOW IN THE FIRE APT (THE IC MAKES THIS CALL) Hazardous Material Ch 20 5.5, 5.6

Question 91

Question 91: There are four major types of loft buildings that may be found in NYC. Which loft building is incorrectly described below? A: Older Cast Iron Lofts may have sidewalk vaults (three-wall enclosures under the front sidewalk) which can extend downward to all sub-levels of the building and may extend the full width of the sidewalk. An indicator of a “full” vault is a large piece of granite stone covering the sidewalk to the curb line. B: For Fireproof Loft Buildings of “Residential Use,” when the standpipe system is used the initial hoselines may have a lead length of 1 3/4” hose. However, when using the standpipe system for large fires in large, uncompartmented areas in any Loft building, a lead length of 2” lightweight hose with a 1” tip should be used. C: In Mill Lofts, a general rule of thumb for the run of original hardwood finished flooring is from the front to the rear of the building. A firefighter lost on a floor can utilize this knowledge to find a front or rear means of egress. D: Segmental Arch Floors are found in Newer Cast Iron Lofts as well as some Mill construction. All parts of a floor arch system are in compression and these floors should not be breached for fear of causing a general floor collapse spanning a wide area.

Answer 91

Answer: B Explanation: B) For Fireproof Loft Buildings of “Residential Use,” when the standpipe system is used the initial hoselines may have a lead length of 2” lightweight hose (with a 1” tip). However, when using the standpipe system for large fires in large, uncompartmented areas in any Loft building, a lead length of 2 ½” lightweight hose should be used. Lofts 5.1.1, 5.2.1, 5.3.3, 6.3.1 A

Question 92

Question 92: Lt Wally Backman is working his first tour out of FLSTP in L-100 when a ticket comes in to respond to a car accident with reports of people pinned inside the car. Upon arrival, Lt Backman confirms there are people pinned and starts auto extrication/disentanglement tactics/procedures. Lt Backman and members operated correctly in which choice? A: When removing the front windshield, there are 4 tools that may be used; windshield saw, sawzall, Beluga auto glass knife, or an axe. The sawzall shall be used as a last resort B: With the vehicle laying on its side, one method to accessing the occupant that is pinned is cutting a hole in the roof. In this case the air chisel would be the tool of choice C: With the vehicle laying on its roof, one method in gaining access to the occupants that are pinned is door removal. In this case, members attacking the Nader pin side of the door would be the preferred method of removing the door D: When operating at this incident, members shall use caution when near the airbags; 10" from the side airbags, 5" from the driver airbags, and 20" from the passenger airbags

Answer 92

Answer: B Explanation: Emergency Procedures Vehicle Disentanglement & Pt Extrication A- Axe should be considered as a last resort. When using an axe take firm but not full strokes and strike the windshield with the corner of the axe blade...sec 11.3 B- sec 12.2 C- Attacking the hinge side would be the preferred method of removing the door....sec 13 D- 5" from the side airbags, 10" from the Driver airbags, and 20" from the passenger airbags...sec 14.4

Question 93

Question 93: The companies in Battalion 99 arrive at a fire in a 2½ story private dwelling with a rear bilco door as the secondary cellar entrance. Heavy fire was venting from the exposure 4 cellar windows on arrival and the first line was not advanced down the interior cellar stairs. Which company operation at this fire was CORRECT? A: The 1st arriving engine repositioned the first line from the first floor to the rear bilco doors for entry into the cellar prior to the arrival of the battalion. B: The 1st arriving ladder initiated a primary search of the 1st floor before repositioning to the rear bilco door for entry and search of the cellar. C: The 2nd arriving ladder company conducted a primary search of the cellar after gaining entry through the rear bilco doors. D: The 3rd arriving engine company operated the handline into the windows to protect the search of the ladder company in the cellar.

Answer 93

Answer: C Explanation: FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – PRIVATE DWELLINGS – CHAPTERS 3 & 4 C IS CORRECT – 10.4.2 – When there is a secondary entrance and the first hoseline does not advance down the interior cellar stair, the 2nd arriving ladder inside team will coordinate their advance with the second hoseline into the cellar via a secondary entrance. A – The decision to reposition the first hoseline to a secondary entrance can only be made by an acting chief officer or chief officer CH 3 -2.7.4 note B – When there is a secondary entrance and the first line does not advance down the interior stair, the first ladder company will assume responsibility for primary search of the first floor and floors above. 10.4.2 D – This should only be attempted when there are no members operating in the cellar. In an emergency such as members trapped in the cellar or endangered by fire because a collapse occurred, the IC should order the immediate operation of a hoseline into the cellar. CH 3 - 2.6

Question 94

Question 94: You are covering in Engine 2 on a busy April night tour when you hear the tone alarm. The response ticket lists your unit as “E002S.” You should know that your unit will function as the? A: Systems Control Unit B: Communications Unit C: High Pressure Engine D: Transport Backup Unit

Answer 94

Answer: B Explanation: A) E002Y C) E002P D) E002T Comm Ch 2 p18

Question 95

Question 95: Engine 299 arrives on-scene of a fire in a 3-story multiple dwelling. CIDS information indicates that the building has an exterior insulation finish system. The on-duty Lieutenant would be most correct to transmit which of the following signals on arrival? A: 10-75 B: 10-75 with an additional engine and ladder company C: Second Alarm D: Second alarm with an additional Tower Ladder

Answer 95

Answer: B Explanation: NOTE: THE EXTRA LADDER COMPANY SHALL BE A TOWER LADDER IF ONE IS NOT ASSIGNED ON THE FIRST ALARM ASSIGNMENT. THIS IS A SIMILAR RESPONSE POLICY TO WINDOW BARS: CROSS REF SB 7 CH 1 4.2 AUC 362 2.8

Question 96

Question 96: The fire department is charged with distributing spray caps to the public during the summer months in order to provide heat relief to the public while reducing water consumption. Which of the following is CORRECT regarding members of the public requesting Spray Caps? A: The requesting party must be at least 21 years old with valid ID. B: Spray Caps may only be used from 1000 to 2100 hrs C: Spray Caps shall not be placed on mains larger than 30 inches, are red or yellow, are on two-way streets, near intersections, on bus routes, or on access routes to main traffic arteries. D: The Officer on duty should schedule the unit to turn off the hydrant during the 6x9 tour, leaving the spray cap in place.

Answer 96

Answer: B Explanation: ENGINE COMPANY OPERATIONS – CHAPTER 3 ADD 2 - HYDRANT MAINTENANCE B IS CORRECT – 1000 HRS TO 2100 HRS – 3.3.7 A – Requesting party must be at least 18 years old. 3.3.1 C – Not larger than 20 inches. 3.3.6 D – Schedule the unit to turn off the hydrant and remove the spray cap. 3.3.5

Question 97

Question 97: Which of the following choices is INCORRECTLY listed as a flagging column entry? A: COLL B: DSP C: HID D: Mess

Answer 97

Answer: C Explanation: COMPANY JOURNAL ENTRIES C IS INCORRECT – HID (Hydrant Inspection Duty) with the Apparatus is not listed as a flagging column entry. A – COLL – Collision B – DSP – Discipline D – Mess – Messenger

Question 98

Question 98: A 1077 is transmitted for a fire on the 10th floor of a 21-story, Class 2 Multiple Dwelling and the first and second ladder companies are heavily engaged in 1045 removal and fire operations on that floor. Which choice is INCORRECT about Ladder Company Operations at this fire? A: The 2nd Ladder Company is responsible for ensuring all of the elevators are recalled and searched B: The 2nd Ladder Company will confirm the evacuation stairway doors have been closed on the fire floor and are maintained in the closed position. C: The 3rd Ladder Company is responsible for searches in the apartment above the fire apartment. D: The 4th Ladder Company is responsible for searches of the hallways and stairs above the fire and apartments above and below the fire as necessary and directed.

Answer 98

Answer: B Explanation: FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – CLASS 2 MD’S B IS INCORRECT – 9.3.2 CH 2 – 3rd Ladder Company responsibility to CONFIRM. 2nd due ENSURES all doors have been closed. A – 9.2.1A CH 2 C – 10.3.2 A – CH 4 – Search the apartment above when the 2nd ladder was required on the fire floor. D – 10.4.2 A – When the 3rd ladder is operating in the apartment above the fire, search all hallways and stairs above the fire on a continual basis.

Question 99

Question 99: Engine 99 was conducting a drill on air pressurized standpipes when the chief arrived at quarters and began to make points about these types of systems. Which of the following statements made by the chief officer to the members was INCORRECT? A: The manual air release valve does not need to be opened when augmenting the standpipe with a second pumper. B: Buildings are required to have the number of release valves so that all pressure shall be expelled in no more than 3 minutes. C: Breakaway caps are an indication that the system is an air pressurized system. D: The location of the Fire Department Connection is required to be marked by a sign and lit by a red light at night.

Answer 99

Answer: C Explanation: ENGINE OPERATIONS – CHAPTER 8 – ADDENDUM 4 C IS INCORRECT -- Screw-in type FDC caps are required in order to provide the air-tight seal necessary for an air pressurized standpipe system. 2.7. A – 2.10 B – 2.2 D – 2.5

Question 100

Question 100: While discussing the potential for collapse in private dwellings, the officers of Engine 299 and Ladder 199 made the following statements to the company. Which statement was CORRECT? A: At a content or structure fire in a private dwelling constructed of lightweight materials, collapse may occur within 5 to 10 minutes. B: At an advanced fire in traditional or lightweight construction, collapse can occur suddenly, and with little or no warning signs. C: At a fire in a traditional private dwelling where there is no ceiling to provide protection, therefore exposing structural components, failure can occur within 20 minutes D: At a minor fire in a lightweight building under construction, the primary emphasis is that of an exterior attack.

Answer 100

Answer: C Explanation: PRIVATE DWELLINGS CHAPTER 6 – LIGHTWEIGHT CONSTRUCTION C IS CORRECT – 1.6 A – When fire extends from the building’s contents to its structural components collapse may occur within 5-10 minutes. 1.7 B – Collapse in lightweight structures can occur suddenly, and with little or no warning signs. 1.7 D – Unless the fire is minor, or confined to a small area, the primary emphasis for fire in a lightweight structure UNDER CONSTRUCTION is that of an exterior attack. 4.1.7