Lung Drugs & Bugs Flashcards

1
Q

What are some signs and symptoms of an infection of the lungs?

A
  • Cough
  • Chest pain
  • Fever
  • Fatigue
  • Dyspnea
  • Increased tactile fremitus
  • Egophony
  • Tubular breath sounds
  • Wheezes
  • Dullness
  • Elevated WBC
  • Abnormal chest imaging
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2
Q

Nosocomial pneumonia is defined as a pneumonia that begins _ hours after admission

A

Nosocomial pneumonia is defined as a pneumonia that begins 48 hours or more after admission

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3
Q

Ventilator-associated pneumonia is defined as a pneumonia that begins _ hours after intubation

A

Ventilator-associated pneumonia is defined as a pneumonia that begins 48 hours after intubation

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4
Q

Name the defense mechanisms in the airways/lungs that pneumonia must overcome

A
  1. Mechanical filtering (nose and upper airways)
  2. Mucociliary clearance and cough
  3. Antimicrobial substances (IgA, lactoferrin, lysozymes, defensins)
  4. Cellular immunity (macrophages, T cells, PMNs)
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5
Q

Infection of the lung can take one of three routes of entry:

A

Infection of the lung can take one of three routes of entry:
1. Aspiration (pathogens colonizing the oropharynx, GI)
2. Inhalation (droplets or particles in the air)
3. Hematogenous (ex: Staph that gets in via IV drug use)

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6
Q

Aspiration pneumonia is most common in _ population

A

Aspiration pneumonia is most common in individuals with altered mental status
* Aspiration pneumonia is the reason that we can’t eat before surgery

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7
Q

Explain microaspiration vs gross aspiration

A

Microaspiration is a minor aspiration event where individuals aspirate pathogens colonizing the oropharynx without even noticing

Gross aspiration involves contents of the mouth or GI tract

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8
Q

This is _ pneumonia

A

This is lobar pneumonia

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9
Q

This is _ pneumonia

A

This is bronchopneumonia

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10
Q

This is _ pneumonia

A

This is interstitial pneumonia

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11
Q

What type of pneumonia?

A

Bronchopneumonia

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12
Q

What type of pneumonia?

A

Lobar pneumonia

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13
Q

A pneumonia caused by _ may be confirmed with urine antigens

A

A pneumonia caused by Legionella may be confirmed with urine antigens

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14
Q

A pneumonia caused by mycoplasma may be confirmed by _

A

A pneumonia caused by mycoplasma may be confirmed by mycoplasma

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15
Q

_ is the most common cause of pneumonia in an immunocompromised host; however, _ are also possible

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of pneumonia in an immunocompromised host; however, possible to have:
* Atypical mycobacterium
* M tuberculosis
* Pneumocystis jiroveci
* Crytococcus
* Histoplasma

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16
Q

The most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia is _

A

The most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia is streptococcus pneumoniae
* It is also a cause of childhood otitis media, sinusitis, conjunctivitis
* It colonizes the upper respiratory tract
* Spreads via respiratory droplets

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17
Q

Strep pneumoniae is _ hemolytic, has _ shape, is catalase _ and optochin _

A

Strep pneumoniae is alpha hemolytic, has diplococci shape, is catalase negative and optochin sensitive

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18
Q

“Rusty sputum” is usually pathoneumonic for

A

“Rusty sputum” is usually pathoneumonic for strep pneumo

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19
Q

Strep pneumo has 4 important virulence factors:

A

Strep pneumo has 4 important virulence factors:
1. Polysaccharide capsule to hide from phagocytosis
2. Adhesins to bind host cells
3. Pneumolysin a pore-forming toxin
4. IgA protease which cleaves mucosal IgA

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20
Q

We can take advantage of the _ structure of strep pneumo to vaccinate individuals < 2, > 65, and chronic medical conditions

A

We can take advantage of the polysaccharide capsule of strep pneumo to vaccinate individuals < 2, > 65, and chronic medical conditions
* We now recommend the conjugate vaccine Prevnar

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21
Q

What makes conjugate vaccines so effective against bacteria with polysaccharide capsules like strep pneumo?

A

In these vaccines, the polysaccharides are covalently conjugated to carrier proteins that will engage the help of T cells

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22
Q

What color will strep pneumo be when plated on blood agar plate?

A

Green- alpha hemolytic

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23
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa has gram _ rods and is _ hemolytic and _ positive

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa has gram negative rods and is beta- hemolytic and oxidase positive

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24
Q

“fruity odor”

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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25
Q

Pseudomonas has a _ pigment when plated due to its _

A

Pseudomonas has a blue-green pigment when plated due to its pyocyanin

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26
Q

Pseudomonas can be found in _

A

Pseudomonas can be found in soil, water, human throat and stool

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27
Q

In healthy individuals, Pseudomonas can cause _ or _

A

In healthy individuals, Pseudomonas can cause hot tub folliculitis or otitis externa (swimmer’s ear)

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28
Q

We primarily worry about pseudomonas in immunocompromised patients like patients with _

A

We primarily worry about pseudomonas in immunocompromised patients like patients with burns, CF, AIDs, diabetes, neutropenia
* Often cause hospital acquired infections (VAP, CAUTIs)

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29
Q

Pseudomonas virulence factors include:

A

Pseudomonas virulence factors include:
* Alginate/biofilm formation- encapsulated
* ExoA- inhibits host cell protein synthesis
* ExoS- disrupts the host cytoskeleton
* Elastase- disrupts the ECM

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30
Q

Pseudomonas has two exotoxins;
ExoA _
ExoS _

A

Pseudomonas has two exotoxins;
ExoA ADP ribosylates EF2 and inhibits host cell protein synthesis
ExoS disrupts host cytoskeleton

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31
Q

Gram-negative coccobacilli, non-hemolytic, aerobic, twitching motility via pili

A

Gram-negative coccobacilli, non-hemolytic, aerobic, twitching motility via pili: Acinetobacter baumannii

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32
Q

Acinetobacter baumannii is found in _

A

Acinetobacter baumannii is found in in moist environments; colonizes human skin and RT
* It is an opportunistic pathogen that causes VAP

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33
Q

The smallest free-living organism that only infects humans is _

A

The smallest free-living organism that only infects humans is mycoplasma penumoniae

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34
Q

Bacteria that has a “fried egg” appearance when plated

A

Bacteria that has a “fried egg” appearance when plated: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

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35
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae cannot be gram stained because _

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae cannot be gram stained because it lacks a cell wall

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36
Q

_ is the most common cause of community-acquired “atypical” pneumonia

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae is the most common cause of community-acquired “atypical” pneumonia

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37
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae does not have any known toxins; instead it secretes _ to cause damage

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae does not have any known toxins; instead it secretes H2O2 to cause damage

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38
Q

_ bacteria lives within amoebas in freshwater and often causes pneumonia in people who are exposed to contaiminated water in AC units and water towers

A

Legionella bacteria lives within amoebas in freshwater and often causes pneumonia in people who are exposed to contaiminated water in AC units and water towers

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39
Q

Legionnaires disease occurs when _

A

Legionnaires disease occurs when Legionella colonizes the lower RT and alveolar macrophages phagocytose the bacteria –> pneumonia

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40
Q

_ is a flu-like infection that is caused by legionella (not pneumonia)

A

Pontiac fever is a flu-like infection that is caused by legionella (not pneumonia)

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41
Q

Legionella must be stained using _ stain and it requires _ to grow

A

Legionella must be stained using silver stain and it requires charcoal yeast extract agar with iron and cysteine to grow

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42
Q

The groups most at risk of legionella include _

A

The groups most at risk of legionella include smokers, > 50 yo, COPD patients

43
Q

_ is a common electrolyte abnormality associated with Legionella

A

Hyponatremia is a common electrolyte abnormality associated with Legionella

44
Q

_ is Legionella virulence factor and it is able to replicate within _

A

T4SS (Dot/Icm) is Legionella virulence factor and it is able to replicate within macrophage vacuoles (the bacteria survive by inhibiting phagosome-lysosome fusion)
* It uses nutrients from the host cell and evades host immunity
* It causes damage via macrophage cytokine release and inflammation

45
Q

Bordetella pertussis is an aerobic gram _ , _ (shape)

A

Bordetella pertussis is an aerobic gram-negative , coccobacilli

46
Q

“100 day cough”

A

“100 day cough” : Bordetella pertussis
* It is highly transmittable via respiratory droplets
* Causes the whooping cough

47
Q

The highest risk group of bordetella pertussis is _

A

The highest risk group of bordetella pertussis is unvaccinated infants

48
Q

B pertussis has _ virulence factor which enables it to bind to ciliated respiratory epithelial cells

A

B pertussis has pili (Fim) virulence factor which enables it to bind to ciliated respiratory epithelial cells

49
Q

Virulence factors _ and _ help B pertussis with adhesion

A

Virulence factors pertactin and filamentous hemagglutinin help B pertussis with adhesion

50
Q

B pertussis has three toxins:

A

B pertussis has three toxins:
1. Tracheal cytotoxin
2. Adenylate cyclase toxin
3. Pertussis toxin

51
Q

Tracheal cytotoxin causes _

A

Tracheal cytotoxin causes ciliary paralysis

52
Q

Adenylate cyclase toxin causes _

A

Adenylate cyclase toxin causes increased cAMP –> inhibition of PMN function

53
Q

Pertussis toxin causes _

A

Pertussis toxin causes AB toxin that ADP-ribosylates G proteins –> causes the systemic pertussis symptoms of fever and increased WBC count

54
Q

The _ vaccine protects against B pertussis

A

The DTaP and Tdap booster protects against B pertussis

55
Q

_ and _ are two gram-positive branching, filamentous beaded rods that can cause pneumonia

A

Nocardia and Acinomyces are two gram-positive branching, filamentous beaded rods that can cause pneumonia
* They almost look like fungus-like hyphae

56
Q

(Nocardia/ Actinomyces) can be distinguished from its counterpart by being weakly acid-fast

A

Nocardia can be distinguished from its counterpart by being weakly acid-fast
* It is an aerobe, while Actinomyces is anaerobic

57
Q

Actinomyces can be found in _ so is often associated with _

A

Actinomyces can be found in normal oral flora so is often associated with cervicofacial abscesses

58
Q

_ forms “molar tooth” colonies on plates

A

Actinomyces forms “molar tooth” colonies on plates

59
Q

Actinomyces has low virulence but is known to form the characteristic _

A

Actinomyces has low virulence but is known to form the characteristic yellow sulfur granules
* Composed of bacteria, immune cells, calcium phosphate, and pus that drains through the sinus tracts

60
Q

Nocardia is found in the _

A

Nocardia is found in the soil

61
Q

Nocardia causes pneumonia that is characterized by _

A

Nocardia causes pneumonia that is characterized by abscess formation and cavity formation –> can spread to cause brain abscesses

62
Q
A

Nocardia: forms dry, chalky, wrinkled colonies on plates & fluffy, “cotton balls” under dissecting scope

63
Q

Nocardia virulence factors

A
  1. Cord factor: inhibits phagosome-lysosome fusion
  2. SOD: detoxifies oxygen radicals
  3. Catalase: detoxifies oxygen radicals
64
Q

Name some of the common causes of community acquired pneumonia

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae G+
Hemophilus influenzae G-
Moraxella catarrhalis G-
Mycoplasma pneumoniae Atypical
Staphylococcus aureus G+
Legionella pneumophila Atypical

Initial empiric treatment for CAP must cover G+ G- and Atypical bacteria

65
Q

Patients with CAP and no other risk factors who are treated outpatient may receive _ , _ , or _

A

Patients with CAP and no other risk factors who are treated outpatient may receive:
Amoxicillin
Macrolide (Azithromycin)
Doxycycline

Note that amoxicillin does not cover atypical bacteria

66
Q

Amoxicillin MOA:

A

Amoxicillin inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding one or more of the penicillin binding proteins (PBPs)

67
Q

Macrolide MOA:

A

Macrolides like azithromycin bind the bacterial 50S ribosomal subunit causing the cessation of bacterial protein synthesis

68
Q

Doxycycline MOA

A

Doxycycline is a tetracycline so it binds to the 30S ribosomal subunit

69
Q

For mild inpatient cases, where the local macrolide resistance is high we may give a combination of _ or _

A

For mild inpatient cases, where the local macrolide resistance is high we may give a combination of
Amoxicillin + Macrolide
Amoxicillin + Doxycycline

70
Q

For patients with severe inpatient pneumonia we might give a combination of _ or _

A

For patients with severe inpatient pneumonia we might give a combination of
Amoxicillin/ Clavulanic acid + macrolide
Amoxicillin/ Clavulanic acid + doxycycline

71
Q

If patient has had recent amoxicillin use or cannot have amoxicillin, we might give _ drug on its own to treat mild or severe inpatient pneumonia

A

If patient has had recent amoxicillin use or cannot have amoxicillin, we might give fluoroquinolone on its own to treat mild or severe inpatient pneumonia
* Alternatively we can combine 3rd generation cephalosporin with a macrolide or with doxy

72
Q

Fluoroquinolone MOA

A

Fluoroquinolone impairs DNA replication by targeting DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV

73
Q

Cephalosporin MOA

A

Cephalosporin work by binding to penicillin binding proteins and interfere with cell wall enzymes

74
Q

Fluoroquinolone treatment for CAP must be a respiratory pneumonia like _

A

Fluoroquinolone treatment for CAP must be a respiratory pneumonia like levofloxacin, moxifloxacin, gemifloxacin
* Note that ciprofloxacin is not a respiratory fluoroquinolone because it is not effective against Strep pneumo

75
Q

Antibiotics for hospital acquired pneumonia need to cover _ and _ specifically

A

Antibiotics for hospital acquired pneumonia need to cover Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Staph aureus specifically

76
Q

In simple cases of HAP against drug sensitive strains we can give _ antibiotics

A

In simple cases of HAP against drug sensitive strains we can give:
* Piperacillin-Tazobactam
* Cefepime
* Levofloxacin

77
Q

If we are worried about MRSA, we must treat HAP with:

A
  • Piperacillin-Tazobactam
  • Cefepime
  • Levofloxacin

PLUS

  • Vancomycin or
  • Linezolid
78
Q

If we are worried about MRSA and drug resistant pseudomona aeruginosa then we must give a combination of three drugs:

A
  • Piperacillin-Tazobactam
  • Cefepime
  • Levofloxacin

PLUS

  • Vancomycin or
  • Linezolid

PLUS

  • Ciprofloxacin or
  • Amikacin
79
Q

Amikacin MOA

A

Amikacin is an aminoglycoside so it works by binding the 30S ribosomal subunit
* Recall that the aminoglycosides (-mycin) and the tetracyclines (-cyclin) target 30S
* Macrolides (-ithromycin) target 50S

80
Q

Linezolid works by targeting _

A

Linezolid works by targeting 50S ribosomal subunit

81
Q

Recall that vancomycin is a common drug used against MRSA, it works by _

A

Recall that vancomycin is a common drug used against MRSA, it works by binding the D-ala-D-ala terminus and inhibiting cell wall synthesis

82
Q

Name an example of each

A
83
Q

Ro represents _

A

Ro represents the number of people that a single infected person can be expected to transmit that disease to
* Dependent on transmission efficiency, how long a person is infectious, number of susceptible people exposed

84
Q

_ is a member of the orthomyxovirus family and is enveloped and has a helical capsid

A

Influenza is a member of the orthomyxovirus family and is enveloped and has a helical capsid

85
Q

Influenza has _ type genome and replicates in the _

A

Influenza has a negative sense ssRNA segmented genome and replicates in the nucleus

86
Q

Most other negative sense ssRNA viruses replicate in the _

A

Most other negative sense ssRNA viruses replicate in the cytosol
* Influenza is an exception because it carries its own RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

87
Q

_ is a influenza’s glycoprotein that binds to the host sialic acid for attachment

A

Hemagglutinin (HA) is a influenza’s glycoprotein that binds to the host sialic acid for attachment

88
Q

_ is influenza’s enzyme that cleaves sialic acid for release

A

Neuraminidase (NA) is influenza’s enzyme that cleaves sialic acid for release

89
Q

M2 channel is a proton ion channel that _

A

M2 channel is a proton ion channel that maintains proper pH for membrane fusion to endosomal membrane and virus uncoating

90
Q

_ is the accumulation of point mutations that change the HA/NA sequence each year and requires us to get yearly flu vaccinations

A

Antigenic drift is the accumulation of point mutations that change the HA/NA sequence each year and requires us to get yearly flu vaccinations

91
Q

_ is the reassortment or swapping of genome segments in type A viruses that causes pandemics every 10-40 years

A

Antigenic shift is the reassortment or swapping of genome segments in type A viruses that causes pandemics every 10-40 years

92
Q

Respiratory syncytial virus is a member of _ family

A

Respiratory syncytial virus is a member of paramyxovirus family

93
Q

Describe the features of RSV

A

RSV:
* Enveloped
* Helical capsid
* Negative sense RNA genome
* Carries its own RNA-dep-RNA polymerase

94
Q

RSV is the most common cause of _ in infants

A

RSV is the most common cause of bronchiolitis in infants

95
Q

RSV has a G protein (glycoprotein) that _ and fusion protein (F) that _

A

RSV has a G protein (glycoprotein) that binds cilitated cells (RT) and fusion protein (F) that mediates membrane fusion for viral entry

96
Q

_ is a member of the coronavirus family that is enveloped, +ssRNA, with a helical capsid

A

SARS-CoV-2 is a member of the coronavirus family that is enveloped, +ssRNA, with a helical capsid

97
Q

SARS has _ proteins that allow it to bind to the host receptor _

A

SARS has spike proteins that allow it to bind to the host receptor ACE2
* ACE2 is expressed on epithelial cells of the oral cavity, nose, lung, intestines, kidney, blood vessels
* Airway inflammation is driven by pro-inflammatory cytokines

98
Q

_ is a nucelotide analog drug that can be used to treat RSV; howevever, it is not commonly used due to its _

A

Ribavirin is a nucelotide analog drug that can be used to treat RSV; howevever, it is not commonly used due to its narrow therapeutic window

99
Q

Ribavirin works as a _ to disrupt the action of _

A

Ribavirin works as a nucleotide analog to disrupt the action of viral RNA polymerase in a number of ways

100
Q

Ribavirin blocks host _ and therefore is a pregnancy x drug; it is also known to cause _

A

Ribavirin blocks host DNA replication and therefore is a pregnancy x drug; it is also known to cause hemolytic anemia
* It is stored in RBCs and has a very long half life of 40 days

101
Q

Amantadine is a flu drug that inhibits _

A

Amantadine is a flu drug that inhibits M2; it blocks virus uncoating

102
Q

Oseltamivir, zanamivir, and peramivir are all release inhibitors; they inhibit the action of _

A

Oseltamivir, zanamivir, and peramivir are all release inhibitors; they inhibit the action of neuraminidase

103
Q

Nirmatrelvir is a _ that can be used to treat SARS; it is often paired with _ in order to slow the metabolism

A

Nirmatrelvir is a protease inhibitor that can be used to treat SARS; it is often paired with ritonavir in order to slow the metabolism

104
Q

Ritonavir is a CYP3A4 _

A

Ritonavir is a CYP3A4 inhibitor