m and m 14 - Adrenergic Agonists and Antagonists Flashcards

(97 cards)

1
Q

What is the major neurotransmitter for the sympathetic nervous system? What is the sympathetic tissue that doesn’t use this neurotransmitter?

A

Norepinephrine. Only exception where NE isn’t released at the end organ is eccrine sweat glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the neurotransmitter for all the preganglionic sympathetic fibers and all the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

Acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What spinal cord levels give rise to the sympathetic nervous system? The parasympathetic?

A

Sympathetic arises from T1-L3

Parasympathetic is cranio-sacral in distribution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a the major difference between the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems regarding location of the ganglion relative to the end organ innervated?

A

The sympathetic ganglion are usually paraspinal and thus very far from the end organ innervated, vs parasympathetic that are closer to the end organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In what part of the sympathetic postganglionic nerve ending is norepi made? How is it released?

A

Made in cytoplasm, stored in vesicles and released by exocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the major mechanism for terminating the activity of NE? What is a drug class that blocks this activity

A

Reuptake - can be blocked by tricyclic antidepressants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are two enzymes that metabolize NE?

A

Catechol-O-Methyltransferase

Monoamine oxidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the rate limiting step in the synthesis of norepinephrine?

A

Hydroxylation of tyrosine to dopa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Norepinephrine is the precursor to epinephrine. Where does this conversion occur?

A

In the adrenal medilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the common end product of enzymatic metabolism of NE or epi?

A

Vanillylmandelic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What type of receptors are adrenergic receptors?

A

GPCRs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the associated g-proteins for alpha 1, alpha 2 and the beta receptors?

A

Gq, Gi and Gs, respectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where are alpha 1 receptors located? What is the effect of their activation?

A

Located in smooth muscle all across the body. Activation causes increase in intracellular calcium and muscle contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the effect of alpha 1 agonists on

  • eye
  • lungs
  • vasculature
  • uterus
  • GI sphincters
A
  • eye - mydriasis (pupil dilation from contraction of radial eye muscles)
  • lungs - bronchoconstriction
  • vasculature - vasoconstriction
  • uterus - contractions
  • GI sphincters - constrictions of sphincters
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the effect of alpha 1 on insulin secretion and lipolysis?

A

It inhibits both of those processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is effect of alpha 1 agonists on peripheral vascular resistance, afterload and blood pressure?

A

Increases all of them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Are alpha 2 receptors presynaptic or postsynaptic? Where is the exception? What is the mechanism for its effect on NE?

A

Presynaptic (some post-synaptic is vascular smooth muscle)

Activation blocks adenylate cyclase activity, reduces calcium in the neuronal terminal, decreases release NE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the net effect of stimulation of alpha 2 in the CNS?

A

Sedation and decreased sympathetic outflow (decreased BP and lower blood pressure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How many types of beta receptors are there? How does the potency of epi and NE compare with these receptors?

A

beta 1,2,3
NE and Epi equipotent on beta 1
Epi significantly more potent on beta 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where are beta 1 receptors located? What is the effect of their activation of chronotropy? dromotropy? inotropy?

A

Located on post synaptic membranes of the heart.

Activation increases chronotropy, dromotropy (conduction) and inotropy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Where are beta 2 receptor located?

A

Post synaptically on smooth muscles and gland cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the effect of beta 2 activation on:

  • lungs
  • vasculature
  • uterus
  • bladder
  • gut
A

Causes relaxation of all these muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the effect of beta 2 activation of glycogenolysis, lipolysis, gluconeogenesis and insulin release?

A

All increased / stimulated by beta-2 activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the 2 known locations of beta 3 receptors?

A

Gall-bladder and brain adipose tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Activation of D1 causes vaso-[constriction/dilation] of 3 organ systems. What are they?
Vasoconstriction | Heart, kidneys and intestines
26
What is the significance of D2 receptors in anesthesiology?
Thought to play a role in antiemetic actions of droperidol
27
What are the 2 mechanistic ways that indirect agonists of adrenergic receptors work?
Increased release or decreased reuptake of norepinephrine
28
A patient who uses a monoamine oxidase inhibitor as an outpatient has intraoperative hypotension. What type of agonist [direct/indirect] should be used and why?
Should use direct agonist because the response to an indirect agonist is likely altered in this patient
29
What is the chemical group that distinguishes catecholamines? What structures confer specificity?
The 3,4 dihydrobenzene structure | The R 1,2,3 side chains confer specificity
30
Why are isoproterenol and dobutamine "special" compared to the other catecholamines?
These are synthetic catecholamines that were developed after changing the side chains of the naturally occuring catecholamines
31
What is the receptor target of phenylephrine? What is effect on SVR, BP, HR?
alpha 1 agonist increases SVR and BP Decreases HR (reflex bradycardia mediated by vagus nerve)
32
Phenylephrine can be used as a continuous infusion. What organ system may end up not getting enough blood flow? Why would you need to uptitrate dose of infusion?
Renal blood flow may go down | Tachyphylaxis a problem, may need to uptitrate dose
33
What are 3 uses of clonidine?
Antihypertensive Negative chronotrope Sedation / anxiolysis
34
What is a possible advantage of clonidine from a circulation perspective? what is the mechanism?
It enhances intraoperative circulatory stability by decreasing catecholamine levels
35
What is the effect of clonidine on a regional anesthetic?
Clonidine will prolong the block duration
36
3 possible benefits of intraoperative clonidine are?
Decreased post op shivering Inhibition of opioid induced muscle rigidity Attenuation of opioid withdrawal symptoms
37
Which has higher affinity at the alpha 2 receptor, clonidine or dexmeditomidine? Which is more selective (compared to alpha 1)? Which has a longer half life?
Dexmeditomidine has higher affinity and selectivity | Clonidine has higher half life
38
The sedative and analgesic effects of dexmeditomidine are mediated by alpha 2 receptors located where?
Brain (locus ceruleus) and spinal cord
39
True or false - both clonidine and dexmeditomidine can reduce anesthetic requirement?
True
40
Dexmeditomidine is useful for the sedation of patient undergoing awake fiberoptic intubation, or needing post-op sedation. What property of this drug make it useful in this setting?
It is a sedative that has minimal ventilatory depressive effects
41
What is the effect of abrupt discontinuation of clonidine or dexmeditomidine after long term use? Mechanism?
Hypertensive crisis | Mechanism is upregulation of adrenergic receptors, leading to supersensitization
42
What is the time line for hypertensive crisis after discontinuation of dexmeditomidine? Mechanism? Sooner or later than clonidine?
Hypertensive crisis can occur after using dex for 48 hours Because of the higher affinity for alpha 2 Way faster than with clonidine
43
What is the mechanism of epinephrine increasing myocardial oxygen demand?
Increases contractility and heart rate
44
Epinephrine [increases/decreases] coronary perfusion pressure. Mechanism?
Increases perfusion pressure by increasing aortic diastolic pressure (diastole is when the coronaries are perfused)
45
What are 3 known complications of epinephrine?
Cerebral hemorrhage Coronary ischemia Ventricular Dysrhythmias (potentiated by volatile anesthetics, especially halothane)
46
What is the dosage of epinephrine for anaphylaxis?
100-500 mcg
47
Ephedrine and Epi have similar actions. Which is more potent? Longer duration of action?
Epinephrine is more potent | Ephedrine has a longer duration of action
48
True or false - ephedrine is a MAC sparing agent?
False - it stimulates the CNS, will therefore cause more anesthetic to be used (Raises the MAC)
49
What is the proposed mechanism of the indirect agonist properties of ephedrine?
Peripheral postsynaptic NE release or by inhibitionr of NE re-uptake
50
What are the preferred vasopressors for obstetric use? Why?
Phenylephrine and ephedrine - these 2 anesthetics are believed to not reduce uterine blood flow. ** Phenylephrrine preferred because of faster onset, shorter duration of action, better titratability and maintenance of fetal ph)
51
What are the 3 adrenergic subtypes that Norepi has effects on?
Works on beta 1, alpha 1 and 2. Minimal effect on beta 2
52
What is the effect norepi on cardiac output? Why?
No significant increase in CO. Despite its beta 1 effects, it will also increase systolic and diastolic BP, causing reflex bradycardia
53
What is the thinking re: norepinephrine in shock?
Not used because it decreases renal and splanchnic blood flow and increases myocardial oxygen demand
54
What is the net effect of low dose dopamine?
Vasodilates the renal vasculature | Promotes naturesis and diureses
55
What are the receptors that are targeted as you increase the doses of dopamine? What is the net effect?
DA-1 - vasodilates renal vasculature Beta 1 - increases contractility, HR and CO Alpha 1 - increases peripheral vascular resistance and decreases renal blood flow
56
What is the basis of the indirect effects of dopamine?
Can cause release of norepinephrine from the presynaptic nerve ganglion
57
When dopamine is used to treat patients in shock (improves CO, BP and maintain renal function), what else is co-administered to maximize cardiac output?
Usually used with a vasodilator (e.g. nitroglycerin or nitroprusside) to reduce afterload and further improve cardiac output
58
What are 2 known side effects of dopamine that may limit its use, especially in shock patients?
It increases chronotropy | It is pro-arrythmic
59
What is the receptor targeted by isoproterenol? What is the effect on HR, contractility, CO, peripheral vascular resistance and diastolic BP?
Pure beta agonist Will increase HR, contractility and CO Will decrease peripheral vascular resistance and diastolic BP (via beta-2 mechanism)
60
Why is a pure beta agonist, e.g. isoproterenol a poor inotropic choice in most situations?
While it will increase HR, myocardial O2 demand will increase while O2 supply will fall (will drop diastolic BP, perfusion of coronaries will drop)
61
Dobutamine binds which type of adrenergic receptor? Is there any subtype selectivity?
Will bind beta 1 and beta 2, more selective for beta 1 over beta 2
62
What is the effect of dobutamine on - CO - contractility - peripheral vascular resistance - LV filling pressures - Coronary blood flow
- CO -> increases - contractility -> increases - peripheral vascular resistance -> decreases (beta 2) - LV filling pressures -> decreases - Coronary blood flow -> increases
63
Dobutamine is thought to be a good choice for the treatment of patients with CHF and CAD, especially if there is increased peripheral vascular resistance. Why?
It has a "favorable effect on myocardial oxygen balance" i.e. increases contractility and CO while increasing coronary blood flow
64
What is dopexamine? How is it different from dopamine?
It is a structural analogue of dopamine, but less beta -1 activity and less alpha 1 effects. Still has it "pro-renal" effects
65
What are the receptors affected by fenoldopam?
It is able to bind D1 as well as dopamine. It has little effect on the alpha, beta and D2 receptors
66
What is the effect of fenoldopam on - peripheral vascular resistance - Renal blood flow - diuresis - natriuresis
Decreases PVR, increases everything else
67
What type of patient (i.e. what constellation of circumstances) will particularly benefit from fenoldopam?
Patient undergoing aortic aneurysm repair with high risk of renal impairment. ** can also be used for severely hypertensive patients with suspected renal impairment **
68
What is an adrenergic agent that is indicated for prevention of contrast media induced nephropathy?
Fenoldopam
69
Phentolamine is a [competitive/non-competitive] blocker of what receptor(s)?
Competitive alpha-1 and alpha 2
70
What is the net effect of phentolamine use on the cardiovascular system (2 things)?
- peripheral vasodilation, decrease in BP (alpha 1 block) - Reflex tachycardia (alpha 2 block and response to decreased BP - activation of alpha-2 decreases release of NE, phentolamine does opposite, therefore more NE released)
71
What 2 side effects limit the use of phentolamine in the tx of hypertension from too much alpha stimulation?
Postural hypotension | Reflex tachycardia
72
What are the targets of prazosin and phenoxybenzamine?
Both are also alpha antagonists, phenoxybenzamine is a non-competitive agent
73
What are the receptors blocked by labetalol? What is the net effect on the CV system?
Alpha 1, beta 1 and beta 2. Will decrease BP with minimal effect on HR and cardiac output
74
What are 3 potential (reported) side effects of labetalol?
Bronchospasm Paradoxical hypertension LV failure
75
Why should beta-2 blockers be used with caution in patients with peripheral vascular disease?
Blocking of beta 2 can theoretically reduce blood flow to the peripheral vasculature (blocking by beta 2)
76
What is the effect of beta 2 blockers on patients with glaucoma?
Can theoretically reduce intraoccular pressure in patients with glaucoma
77
What are the 3 beta blockers that are thought to be selective for beta 1? Which is a mixed antagonist? Which is more beta 2?
beta 1 - metop, esmolol and atenolol | mixed - labetalol and propranolol
78
What 3 beta blockers are metabolized by the liver? which is metabolized unchanged by kidneys? Which is metabolized in blood?
Liver - propranolol, metoprolol and labetalol Kidneys - atenolol Blood - esmolol
79
What is the major effect of esmolol on CV system?
Blocks increase in HR to lesser extent, BP. Beta 1 selective
80
What happens to esmolol as higher doses are used in patients?
At higher doses, will now become less selective for beta 1 and will start blocking beta 2 in the smooth muscles and bronchioles
81
How is esmolol metabolized?
Hydrolyzed by red blood cell esterases
82
What are 4 contraindications for esmolol?
Sinus bradycardia More than 1st degree heart block Heart failure Cardiogenic shock
83
What is the receptor target of metoprolol? Does it have intrinsic sympathomimetic activity?
Beta 1 selective. No intrinsic sympathomimetic activity
84
What is the receptor target of propranolol?
Beta 1 and beta 2
85
What is the mechanism by which propranolol decreases BP (3)?
Decreased contractility Decreased HR Decreased renin release (all above leads to decreased cardiac output and myocardial oxygen demand)
86
What beta blocker has the following characteristics? - slows AV conduction and stabilizes cardiac membranes - slows ventricular response in SVT - Blocks beta effects in thyrotoxicosis and pheochromocytoma?
Propranolol
87
What are possible side effects of propranolol?
Bronchospasm CHF Bradycardia AV block
88
What beta blocker may worsen the myocardial depression of halothane and unmask the negative inotropic characteristics of indirect cardiac stimulants?
Propranolol
89
What class of drug, when used with propranolol can synergistically depress HR, contractility and AV conduction?
Calcium channel blockers
90
What is the receptor target of nebivolol? What is unique about it?
- Highly beta 1 selective | - Unique in that it can directly cause vasodilation via stimulation of endothelial nitric oxide synthase
91
What is the receptor target of carvedilol? What are its inducations?
Mixed alpha and beta blocker | Indicated for CHF from cardiomyopathy, LV dysfunction after MI and hypertension
92
True or false - in a patient already on beta blockers, they should be asked to stop this medication before surgery?
False. These shouldn't be stopped if pateints are using for tx of angina, symptomatic arrythmias, HF, HTN
93
What are potential complications of stopping beta blockers? What is the time line? Mechanism?
HTN, tachycardia and angina 24-48 hours Possible upregulation
94
What is a pheochromocytoma?
An adrenal medulla tumor of chromaffin tissue that makes NE and epi
95
How is pheochromocytoma diagnosed?
Urinary excretion of vanillylmandelic acid is measure. Usually high in these patients
96
What is the perioperative drug of choice for treatment of pheochromocytoma?
Phenoxybenzamine
97
Why should the following drugs be avoided in a patient with pheochromocytoma? Ketamine Halothane Vagolytics (anticholinergics and pancuronium)
Ketamine - a sympathomimetics Halothane - sensitizes myocardium to arrhythmogenic effects of epinephrine Vagolytics - will tip balance to increased tone