M1 DRILLS Flashcards by Sam Agao

What is the Pauli’s Exclusion Principle?
A. No two electrons in an atom may have the same principal quantum number
B. An atom cannot have 2 electrons in the same energy level or orbital that have the same set of quantum numbers
C. No more than 2 electrons may have the same set of quantum numbers
D. Electrons in an atom may differ by, at most, one of four quantum numbers

B. An atom cannot have 2 electrons in the same energy level or orbital that have the same set of quantum numbers

C. ❌more than (Exclusive)

D. ❌at most (at least)

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What property decreases from left to right, increases from top to bottom?
A. Electron affinity
B. Nonmetallic property
C. Electronegativity
D. Metallic property
E. Ionization energy

D. Metallic property (& atomic radius)

A. – Energy released when n0 atom gains extra e-

C. –Atom’s ability to attract e-

• F – Most EN

• Cs –Most electropositive

E. – Min. energy req to remove e- in n0 atom -> +

• He – Highest ionization energy

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Which of the following statements best describe elements in the Periodic Table?
I. Helium is the first element in Group IA
II. Nonmetals occupy the upper right area of the periodic table
III. Metals are located in the left area of the periodic table
IV. Diagonally related elements are known as Bridge elements

A. I, II, IV
B. I, III, IV
C. I, II, III
D. II, III, IV

D. II, III, IV

I. ❌He (H)

IV. – Period 2 (Li, Be, BCNO)

*Metalloids/ Semimetals: Si, Ge, Po, Sb (ni) As, Te, B

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Which of the following is an alkaline earth metal? (BEQ)
A. NH4
B. Na
C. Mg
D. K

C. Mg

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Which group is referred to as the Coinage?
A. Group 0
B. Group IIB
C. Group IB
D. Group IIIA

C. Group IB

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Which group is referred to as the Alkali Metals?
A. Group IVA
B. Group IA
C. Group IIA
D. Group IIIA

B. Group IA

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Which elements are referred to as the Triads of Group VIII?
I. Co
II. Mn
III. Ni
IV. Fe

A. I, II, IV
B. I, III, IV
C. I, II, III
D. II, III, IV

B. I, III, IV

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Which of the elements is the most electronegative? (BEQ)
A. I
B. F
C. Cl
D. Br

B. F

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In the reaction: U + V ↔ UV
When U is added, where will the reaction shift?

A. Right
B. Left
C. Neither
D. Insufficient data

A. Right

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Identify the Lewis acid in the equation:

Cl- + BCl3 ⇌ BCl4-

A. Cl-
B. BCl3
C. BCl4-
D. Cannot be determined

B. BCl3

*Electrophile/ Lewis acid – e- acceptor

*Nucleophile/ Lewis base – e- donor

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If the ion product is greater than Ksp, the solution is: (BEQ)

A. Saturated
B. Supersaturated
C. Unsaturated
D. Cannot be determined

B. Supersaturated

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All of the following statements about solubility is not true, EXCEPT?

A. For many solids dissolved in liquid water, the solubility increases with temperature
B. Increased temperature causes a decrease in kinetic energy. Therefore, as the temperature increases, the solubility of a gas decreases
C. Decreasing the surface area of a substance increases its solubility
D. NOTA

A. For many solids dissolved in liquid water, the solubility increases with temperature

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States that the entropy of a pure, crystalline solid at absolute zero temperature is zero

A. Third law of thermodynamics
B. Second law of thermodynamics
C. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
D. First law of thermodynamics

A. Third law of thermodynamics

A. Third law of thermodynamics – Entropy of perfectly crystalline subs is zero @ 0K

B. – Law of Entropy/ Disorderliness/ Randomness; entropy can only incr. or remain constant

C. – Thermal equilibrium of 2 systems w/ 3rd system

D. – Law of conservation of energy (Neither created nor destroyed but can be transformed from one form to another)

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The following are true about acids & bases, EXCEPT:

I. According to Arrhenius, acids are proton donors
II. According to Lewis concept, acids are electron acceptors
III. According to Bronsted-Lowry concept, bases are proton donors
IV. According to Lewis concept, bases are electron donors

A. I, II, IV
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. II, III, IV

B. I, III

I. ❌Arrhenius (Bronsted-Lowry)

III. ❌donors (acceptors)

*Arrhenius – Acids & base liberate H+ and OH- ions in water

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Released by an acid in a solution (BEQ)

A. Photon
B. Proton
C. Neutron
D. Hydroxide

B. Proton

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The following will react with water forming an acid solution, EXCEPT:

A. Ammonia
B. Carbon Dioxide
C. Sulfur Dioxide
D. Nitrogen Dioxide

A. Ammonia

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The following elements form Basic oxides, EXCEPT:

A. Sulfur
B. Calcium
C. Strontium
D. Magnesium

A. Sulfur

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What is the normality of sulfuric acid containing 73.5g/500 mL of solution? (MW= 98 g/mol)

A. 2.0 N
B. 2.5 N
C. 3.0 N
D. 1.0 N

C. 3.0 N

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Which of the following refers to a kind of chemical reaction whereby a substance splits into simpler substances?

A. Decomposition reaction
B. Single replacement reaction
C. Double displacement reaction
D. Combination reaction

A. Decomposition reaction

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Water is essential to life. Which of the following statements holds true for water?

I. Has high boiling point
II. Solid form is more dense than its liquid form
III. Has high specific heat
IV. Has low surface tension
V. Undergoes self-ionization

A. I, II, III
B. I, IV, V
C. I, III, V
D. I, III, IV

C. I, III, V

I. = 100ºC

II. ❌more (less)

IV. ❌low (high)

Others: Amphoteric (can act as acid or base), exhibits adhesion & cohesion

Attractive forces:

Cohesion – Bet. similar molecules
Adhesion – Bet. different molecules

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When water undergoes electrolysis forming Hydrogen & Oxygen molecules, which of the following changes describes this occurrence?

A. Physical Change
B. Chemical Change
C. Evaporation
D. Substitution reaction

B. Chemical Change

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Which of the following is used as the unit of measure for radioactivity?

A. Bq
B. Ci
C. Gy
D. Sv

A. Bq

B. Ci – (3.7 x 10^10 decay/sec); Common unit; Discovered Po, Ra

C. Gy – Gray; Bq absorbed dose

D. Sv –Sievert; Bq dose equivalent

*RAD & REM for Ci

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1 Becquerel is equivalent to _______

A. 2.7 x 10-5 Curie
B. 2.7 x 10-11 Curie
C. 2.7 x 10-6 Curie
D. 2.7 x 10-10 Curie

B. 2.7 x 10-11 Curie

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Most penetrating of all types of radiation

A. Alpha particles
B. Beta particles
C. Gamma rays
D. X-rays

C. Gamma rays – Photon of electromagnetic radiation (Low ionization, shortest wavelength, highest frequency & energy)

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Beta particles penetrate tissue up to ____ cm A. 100 B. 10 C. 1000 D. 1

D. 1

The effect of radioactive particles passing through a biological tissue would depend upon which of the following characteristics? I. The ability of the radiation to penetrate the tissue II. The nature of radiation emitted by radioactive elements III. The energy of radiation IV. The dose rate of the radiation A. I, II, IV B. I, III, IV C. II, III, IV D. AOTA

D. AOTA

Which of the following is correct regarding the handling & storage of radioactive materials? I. Radioactive materials should never be touched by hand II. Sufficient protective clothing must be used while handling the materials III. Radioactive materials should be kept in suitable labeled containers IV. Should be cost effective A. I, II, IV B. I, III, IV C. II, III, IV D. AOTA

D. AOTA

Which among the processes of separating components of mixtures makes use of difference in solvent affinity? A. Decantation B. Evaporation C. Chromatography D. Distillation

C. Chromatography

The following are principles of chromatography, EXCEPT: A. Size B. Charge C. Partition coefficient D. pH

D. pH

Conformation of organic molecules is most commonly determined by which of the following analytical methods? A. Nuclear Magnetic Resonance B. pKa Determination C. Mass Spectrophotometry D. Optical Rotation

A. Nuclear Magnetic Resonance

Movement of particles in the body which is also means solvent shifts is referred to as_______ A. Passive diffusion B. Facilitated transport C. Active transport D. Bulk transport

D. Bulk transport

The following are characteristics of active transport, EXCEPT: (BEQ) A. Higher to lower concentration gradient B. Expenditure of energy C. Carrier mediated D. Follow saturation kinetics

A. Higher to lower concentration gradient – Passive diffusion *Against conc. gradient (i.e., low conc. to high conc.), req. energy & carrier

Which of the following represents the index of the protective power of colloids? A. Lumina B. Poise C. Zsigmondy D. Nuggets

C. Zsigmondy

Compounds that result from a combination of electron donor & a metal forming a ring structure is called _______ A. Ligand B. Lactam ring C. Chelate D. Prodrug

C. Chelate

A complex structure whereby the interactant is a surfactant & a molecule that is composed of both a non-polar & a polar portion? (BEQ) A. Micelle B. Self-associated aggregate C. Clathrate D. Inclusion Complexes

A. Micelle – Polar head & nonpolar tail; involved in lipid absorption - C. – Ice-like inclusion cmpd formed @ high pressure & low temp w/ non-polar guest molecule surrounded by H-bonded water cages D. – Guest molecule (size & shape) fitted into the cavity of host molecule (cyclodextrins)

Elements in atmosphere (BEQ) I. Hydrogen is 14 times lighter than air II. Nitrogen is heavier than Oxygen III. Hydrogen was discovered by Cavendish A. I only B. I and II C. I and III D. II and III E. I, II, III

C. I and III

Monel contains A. Copper B. Nickel C. Tin D. A & B E. A & C

D. A & B *Monel/ Constantan *German Silver – Copper + Ni + Zn *Raney nickel – Al + Ni

50% Bi + 25% Pb + 25% Sn A. Type Metal B. Rose Metal C. Pewter D. Solder E. Plumber’s solder

B. Rose Metal

Type of phosphorus that is poisonous A. Red B. Black C. Yellow D. NOTA

C. Yellow

Carbon dioxide is stored in: A. Black container B. Brown container C. Blue container D. Gray container E. Green container

D. Gray container

What reagent can be used to test for nickel, giving a red precipitate? A. Methanol & flame B. Dimethylglyoxime C. Pyridine in acetic anhydride D. Ammonium molybdate

B. Dimethylglyoxime A. – Borate (Green bordered flame) BEQ C. – Denige’ test D. – PO4 (Yellow ppt)

The positive result when ferric salts are combined with ammonium thiocyanate. (BEQ) A. Beautiful blue B. Blood red C. Turnbull's blue D. Thenard's blue

B. Blood red A. – Co(SCN)2 in Vogel’s C. – Ferrous FerriCN D. – Al cobaltinitrite *Prussian blue –Ferric FerroCN *Rinmann’s green – Zn cobaltinitrite

Carbon tetrachloride exhibits an orange-brown color when placed in a solution containing ____ (BEQ) A. Iodine B. Bromine C. Fluorine D. Ethylene

B. Bromine

Which are true from these statements? I. Arsenates give chocolate brown precipitate to silver nitrate test II. Arsenites give yellow precipitate to silver nitrate test III. Citrate given with Denige’s reagent results to a purple color IV. Tartrate given with Denige’s reagent result to an emerald green color A. I, II, III B. I, II, IV C. I, III, IV D. II, III, IV

B. I, II, IV

Caused by the excessive ingestion of NaHCO3 & CaCO3 with large amount of milk. A. Burnett’s syndrome B. Wilson disease C. Parakeratosis D. Shavers disease

A. Burnett’s syndrome

Bordeaux mixture: I. Contains lime & cupric sulfate II. Used as fungicide III. Contains lime & cuprous sulfate IV. Used as anti-acne A. I, II B. I, III C. III, IV D. II, III

A. I, II

Which of the following substances lose water of crystallization upon exposure to air? I. Copper sulfate II. Sodium hydroxide III. Sodium carbonate IV. Ammonium chloride A. I, III B. I, IV C. III, IV D. I, II

A. I, III *Sulfates & Carbonates – Efflorescent *Hydroxides, Chlorides, Nitrates – Deliquescent I. Copper sulfate - Pentahydrate (Blue vitriol) III. Sodium carbonate - Decahydrate (Sal/ Washing soda) *Others: CaSO4 Dihydrate (Gypsum) II. NaOH – Deliquescent

Ferrous ammonium sulfate A. Green vitriol B. Mohr’s salt C. Oesper’s salt D. Fergon E. Toleron

B. Mohr’s salt

Compound responsible for the pink color of Calamine USP 24: (BEQ) A. Talc B. Zinc oxide C. zinc stearate D. Ferric oxide E. FD and C Red

D. Ferric oxide

What is Saltpeter? (BEQ) A. Calcium Nitrate B. Magnesium Nitrate C. Sodium Nitrate D. Potassium Nitrate

D. Potassium Nitrate

The predominant physiological anion outside the cell (BEQ) A. Phosphate B. Chloride C. Sulfate D. Bicarbonate

B. Chloride PISO (1) Intracellular CATIONS : Potassium In Extracellular CATIONS : Sodium Out MICO (2) Intracellular CATIONS : Magnesium In Extracellular CATIONS : Calcium Out PICHLO (1) Intracellular ANIONS : Phosphate In Extracellular ANIOS : Chloride Out SULIBIO (2) Intracellular ANIONS : Sulfate In Extracellular ANIONS : Bicarbonate Out

Which are the dissolved compounds found in Hard Water? I. Calcium Salts II. Magnesium Salts III. Polyhydroxy Ketones IV. Manganese Salts A. I, II, IV B. II, III, IV C. I, III, IV D. I, II, III

A. I, II, IV Salt form: *Bicarbonates – Temporary (Removed by boiling) *SO4 & Cl – Permanent hardness

Which of the following compounds exhibits Amphoteric Properties that makes it suitable to prevent Systemic Alkalosis? A. Magnesium Sulfate B. Calcium Hydroxide C. Aluminum Hydroxide D. Barium Sulfate

C. Aluminum Hydroxide

Which among the following salts is used as an electrolyte replenisher in dehydration? A. Sodium Carbonate B. Sodium Iodide C. Sodium Sulfate D. Sodium Chloride

D. Sodium Chloride – Solar salt (BEQ) A. – (+ Pp = Dark pink/ Bicarbonate = Light pink) B. – I2 solubilizer in I2 soln/tincture (KI – strong) C. – Saline laxative

The method of preparation must be indicated on labels for: (BEQ) A. Sterile water for injection B. Bacteriostatic water C. Water for injection D. Purified water

D. Purified water

Which of the following is used to induce bowel movement by increasing osmotic load of the gastrointestinal tract? A. Bentonite B. Kaolin C. Pumice D. Saline cathartic

D. Saline cathartic

Which of the following are deliquescent substances? I. NaOH II. CaO III. NaNO3 IV. NaCl A. I, II B. II, III C. I, III D. II, IV

C. I, III Deliquescent – Absorb water & dissolves I. NaOH; also KOH III. NaNO3 Others: CaCl2, MgCl2, FeCl3 *Hygroscopic – Absorb water but does not dissolve NaCl, Sucrose, CaO, CuO

Simethicone is a component of several antacid formulation, how is it chemically classified? A. Silicone B. Ketone C. Alcohol D. Wax

A. Silicone Simethicone (Antiflatulent) Dimethicone (Emollient)

Which of the following preparations is made up of a combination of non-ionic surfactant with iodine? A. Strong iodine solution B. Povidone Iodine C. Iodine in Potassium Iodide solution D. Tincture of Iodine

B. Povidone Iodine

For a compound to be considered aromatic, it must have the following characteristics: I. planar (flat) & cyclic II. sp3 hybridization III. follows the 4n+2 rule IV. cumulated double bonds A. I, IV B. I, III C. I, II, III, IV D. I, II, III

B. I, III

True about resonance I. Involves delocalization of both sigma & pi bonds II. Overall charge of the system remains the same III. Bonding can be expressed by one single Lewis formula A. I, III B. II C. III D. I, II, III

B. II

Which is TRUE for alcohols? A. Water solubility increases as the molecular weight increases B. Polarity decreases with increase in number of Hydroxyl groups C. Water solubility decreases with the branching of the carbon chain of alcohols D. Water solubility increases with an increase in the number of Hydroxyl groups

D. Water solubility increases with an increase in the number of Hydroxyl groups A. ❌increases (decreases) – Incr. C-chain length/ MW (incr. VdW à less H bonding) = Decr. solubility B. ❌decreases (increases) – OH (Polar group) C. ❌decreases (increases) – Incr. branching (Weaker VdW) = Incr. solubility

Which statements best characterize stereoisomers? I. They do not differ in the order of their Atoms II. They differ in the order and kind of atoms III. They differ in the spatial arrangement of their atoms IV. They do not differ in their configuration A. I, III B. III, IV C. II, III D. I, II

A. I, III II. (❌order and kind) – Structural/ Constitutional isomers IV. (❌do not) differ

What is the IUPAC name of Lactic Acid? (BEQ) A. 2-Hydroxypropanoic acid B. 2-Hydroxybutanedioic acid C. 2,3-Dihydroxybutanedioic acid D. Ethanedioic acid

A. 2-Hydroxypropanoic acid

STRUCTURE A. Hexyl-3-methylbutanoate B. Hexyl-4-methybutanoate C. Butyl-3-methylhexanoate D. Butyl-2propylbutanoate

C. Butyl-3-methylhexanoate

Benzene-1,3-diol A. Hydroquinone B. Xylene C. Catechol D. Orcinol E. NOTA

E. NOTA

Which of the following is NOT TRUE? A. The Cahn-Ingold-Prelog rules are used for naming enantiomers & diastereomers B. The D- & L- configuration is also called (+) & (-) notation C. Two groups with higher priorities on the same side is described as (Z)-isomer D. NOTA

B. The D- & L- configuration is also called [❌(+) & (-) notation] (Fischer-Rosanoff notation) – For AAs & sugars A. – ↑ atomic # = ↑ Priority: 1H < 4C < 7N < 8O < X; CW (R) or CCW (S) C.– Zusammen (Z) is Zame Side; Entgegen (E) is Opposite side

Azlocillin is one of the few penicillins effective for Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Which of the structures is it? A. B. C. D.

Which are the two chemical groups that comprise alpha agonist? I. Phenylethylamines II. Catecholamines III. 2-Arylimidazolines IV. Xanthines A. I, II B. III, IV C. II, III D. I, III

D. I, III

A semisynthetic tetracycline used in SIADH A. Minocycline B. Tigecycline C. Oxytetracycline D. Demeclocycline

D. Demeclocycline

STRUCTURE A. Hydroxylation B. Demethylation C. Methylation D. A & B E. A & C

D. A & B

Which of the following HIV drugs is also used as treatment for Hepatitis B infection A. Azidothymidine B. Saquinavir C. Lamivudine D. Efavirenz

C. Lamivudine –NRTI (Cytidine analog) A. – Aka Zidovudine, NRTI (Thymidine analog) B. Saquinavir –Protease Inh D. – NNRTI Analogs of nucleosides: N-base + pentose sugar PurGA (Guanine, Adenine) PyrCUT (Cytosine, [❌Uracil], Thymine)

What is the mechanism of action of Trimethoprim? (BEQ) A. Inhibits protein synthesis B. Competitive inhibitor for the incorporation of PABA C. Folate reductase inhibitor D. Destruction of bacterial cell wall

C. Folate reductase inhibitor

8-aminoquinoline antimalarial agent for radical cure for P. vivax & P. ovale & is effective in exoerythrocytic stage of malaria A. Primaquine B. Chloroquine C. Amodiaquine D. Quinine

A. Primaquine

Which is TRUE to the alkaloid Quinine Sulfate? A. Has a sweet & pleasant taste B. May be dissolved in water by addition of a small amount of sulfuric acid to convert it to a more soluble bisulfate C. This alkaloid is poorly absorbed from the Gastrointestinal tract D. It is not affected by exposure to light

B. May be dissolved in water by addition of a small amount of sulfuric acid to convert it to a more soluble bisulfate A. [❌sweet & pleasant] (bitter) C. [❌poorly absorbed] (readily) D. It is [❌not] affected (darkens)

Which of the following is the major organ for drug metabolism? A. Liver B. Small intestine C. Kidney D. Lung

A. Liver

Phase I biotransformation reaction includes the following, EXCEPT? A. Methylation B. Hydroxylation C. Deamination D. Hydrolysis

An example of glycine conjugation pathway: A. Phenol to Phenolsulfate B. Benzoic acid to Hippuric acid C. Noradrenaline to Epinephrine D. Antabuse (Disulfiram) to 2-diethylthiocarbamic acid

B. Benzoic acid to Hippuric acid

Which of the following enzymes is involved in the process of sulfonation? A. Sulfatases B. Sulfotransferase C. DT-Diaphorase D. Monoamine Oxidases

B. Sulfotransferase A. – Hydrolyzes SO4 conjugate C. – Quinone oxidoreductase (2e- reduction of Quinone to Hydroquinone) D. – (Degrades NE, Dopamine; also 5-HT)

The combination Trimethoprim & Sulfamethoxazole is also known as: A. Cotrimoxazole B. Clotrimazole C. Cotrimazine D. Miconazole

A. Cotrimoxazole – Folate antagonist (Synergistic) C. Cotrimazine –TMP + Sulfadiazine

Which of the following combination therapy is the treatment of choice for P. carinii pneumonia (PCP)? A. Trimethoprim & Sulfamethoxazole B. Emetine & Dehydroemetine C. Metronidazole & Iodoquinol D. Pyrimethamine & Sulfadiazine

A. Trimethoprim & Sulfamethoxazole

Reactive reduction metabolites of metronidazole believed to be responsible for triggering lethal effect on the microorganism include: I. Nitroxide II. Nitroso III. Hydroxylamine IV. Iodoquinol A. II, III, IV B. I, II, III C. I, III, IV D. I, II, IV

B. I, II, III IV. – aka Diiodohydroxyquin (Halogenated hydroxyquinoline); used w/ metronidazole as luminal amebicide

Which of the following combination therapy is most effective against Toxoplasmosis? A. Emetine & Dehydroemetine B. Pyrimethamine & Sulfadiazine C. Metronidazole & Iodoquinol D. Trimethoprim & Sulfamethoxazole

B. Pyrimethamine & Sulfadiazine

Which of the following are classified as Amebicides I. Emetine & Dehydroemetine II. Nitroimidazole derivatives such as Metronidazole III. Arsenical compound: Carbarsone IV. Dimercaprol A. I, II, IV B. I, III, IV C. I, II, III D. II, III, IV

C. I, II, III IV. Dimercaprol – BAL (Chelating agent EXCEPT Fe, Cd, Se, Te)

Which of the following is the metabolite of the red dye prontosil responsible for antimicrobial activity? A. Sulfamethoxazole B. Sulfanilamide C. Sulfacetamide D. Sulfapyridine

B. Sulfanilamide

Derivatives of Benzylsulfonylurea are useful as? A. Spasmolytics B. Anti-inflammatory C. Oral Hypoglycemics D. Diuretics

C. Oral Hypoglycemics

Which of the following anesthetics is the most prone to hydrolysis: A. Xylocaine B. Lidocaine C. Procaine D. Prilocaine

C. Procaine – Ester local anesthetic (more prone to hydrolysis than amide)

Which of the following statements best characterize Gamma-amino butyric acid? I. It is the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain II. It is biosynthesized from Glutamic Acid III. High levels of GABA may be linked to anxiety or mood disorder IV. GABA is degraded by a Pyridoxal-dependent enzyme, GABA transaminase, producing Butyric acid & Succinic acid semi-aldehyde A. II, III B. III, IV C. I, IV D. I, II

D. I, II

The Structure presented above has the following as adverse effects, EXCEPT: A. Hypotension B. Reflex tachycardia C. AV block D. Two of the above

C. AV block – A/E of Non-dihydropyridine CCBs; structured presented is Nifedipine (Dihydropyridine CCB) A & B (Hypotension and Reflex tachycardia) – Due to vasodilation

Hormones that form lipophilic esters without prior structural modifications include: I. Hydrocortisone II. Testosterone III. Progesterone A. If I only is correct B. If III only is correct C. If I & II are correct D. If II & III are correct

C. If I & II are correct I. – (21 OH) Acetate II. – (17 OH) Propionate III. – No Alcohol grp; can’t form ester

Insulin preparations that contain a modifying protein include: I. Insulin Glargine II. Regular Insulin III. Isophane Insulin A. If I only is correct B. If III only is correct C. If I & II are correct D. If II & III are correct

B. If III only is correct

Conditions that tend to increase the action of an orally administered drug that undergoes Phase II metabolism include: I. Enterohepatic recirculation II. Enzyme saturation III. First pass effect A. If I only is correct B. If III only is correct C. If I & II are correct D. If II & III are correct

C. If I & II are correct I. Enterohepatic (Re)circulation –Glucuronide (non-polar) reabsorption

Which of the following statements concerning CYP450 are correct? I. The CYP7, CYP11 & CYP27 subfamilies are involved in Cholesterol metabolism II. A single drug may be metabolized by multiple isoforms of CYP450 III. The majority of Xenobiotics, or drugs, are metabolized by CYP4B & CYP1A subfamilies A. If I only is correct B. If III only is correct C. If I & II are correct D. If II & III are correct

C. If I & II are correct

Metabolic reactions likely to be affected by protein-deficient diet include/s: I. Glycine Conjugation II. Hydrolysis III. Glucuronidation A. If I only is correct B. If III only is correct C. If I & II are correct D. If II & III are correct

A. If I only is correct

Structure of Meperidine Functional groups present in Meperidine I. Ester II. Tertiary Amine III. Carboxylic acid A. If I only is correct B. If III only is correct C. If I & II are correct D.If II & III are correct

C. If I & II are correct

Meperidine is classified as: I. Weak Acid II. Salt III. Weak Base A. If I only is correct B. If III only is correct C. If I & II are correct D. If II & III are correct

B. If III only is correct

Assuming that Meperidine is absorbed after oral administration & that a large percentage of the dose is excreted unchanged, the effect of alkalinization of the urine will increase its: I. Duration of Action II. Rate of Excretion III. Ionization in the Glomerular Filtrate A. If I only is correct B. If III only is correct C. If I & II are correct D. If II & III are correct

A. If I only is correct II. – Decrease III. – Decrease *A+A/ B+B -> LUNA: Lipophilic, Unionized, Non-polar, Absorbed; Decr. GFR/ Excretion -> Incr DOA

Which of the following indicators can be used in the titration of Quinine? I. Bromophenol Blue pKa = 4.0 II. Methyl Red pKa = 5.1 III. Cresol Red pKa = 8.3 IV. Chlorophenol Blue pKa = 6.0 A. I, IV B. II, III C. II, IV D. I, II

D. I, II

Phytopharmaceutical compounds: I. Atropine II. Colchicine III. Curcumin IV. Digoxin V. Gingerol VI. Eugenol VII. Hesperidin VIII. Quinine Which of the listed phytopharmaceuticals are classified as alkaloids? A. I, II, IV, VIII B. I, IV, VII, VIII C. III, IV, V, VIII

A. I, II, IV, VIII I. Atropine – Tropane alkaloid II. Colchicine – Protoalkaloid (No heterocyclic ring; N-atom outside the ring) III. Curcumin – Aromatic polyketide IV. Digoxin – Cardiac glycoside V. Gingerol – Aromatic polyketide VI. Eugenol – Phenylpropene VII. Hesperidin – & Rutin; Flavonol glycoside VIII. Quinine –Quinoline alkaloid

Which of the following will develop a green color which turns slowly to dark green blue coloration, when an aliquot portion of the residue obtained by dissolving the unknown in hot methanol is treated with ferric chloride TS? (BEQ) A. Hesperidin B. Atropine C. Digoxin D. Quinine

A. Hesperidin – Flavonol glycoside (Non-hydrolysable/ condensed tannins) B. – Vitali-Morin test (KOH). (+) Violet D. – & Quinidine. Thalleioquin test (Br TS). (+) Emerald green

M1 DRILLS Flashcards

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