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B1 M11 > M11 > Flashcards

M11 Flashcards

1
Q

What happens when the pilot moves the control stick to the right?

A

The left aileron goes down, the right aileron goes up and the aircraft rolls right

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2
Q

What is the purpose of a vertical stabiliser?

A

It provides stability around the vertical axis

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3
Q

If the right rudder pedal is pushed forward the rudder

A

Moves right

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4
Q

What is the function of leading edge slats?

A

Increase lift and as a result reduce stalling speed

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5
Q

A Krueger flap is fitted to?

A

The leading edge of the wing

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6
Q

Trailing edge flaps are fitted to an aircraft?

A

To increase lift and reduce stalling speed

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7
Q

What is the main function of a spoiler system?

A

To provide roll control, airbraking, and destroy wing lift after landing

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8
Q

What effect does a lift dumper have on the wing of an aircraft?

A

They decrease lift aft of the dumper panels and increase drag

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9
Q

Wing tip effect may be reduced by?

A

A boundary layer fence fitted about mid span of a swept wing

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10
Q

What is the purpose of a saw tooth profile on a wing?

A

It is the point where the wing chord is increased, airflow velocity is increased and spanwise flow is reduced

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11
Q

Leading edge droop is used on some swept wing aircraft to minimise

A

Laminar separation at low speeds

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12
Q

What is the purpose of wing root stall wedges?

A

To ensure airflow break-away at high angles of attack making the wing root stall before the tip

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13
Q

A balance tab is used to?

A

Assist the pilot to move the controls

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14
Q

What is meant by the term mass balance?

A

It is addition of mass to a control to prevent flutter or high speed oscillations

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15
Q

Wing fences are sometimes used in high speed aircraft so that

A

Span-wise flow is reduced

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16
Q

As altitude increases the local speed of sound will?

A

Decrease

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17
Q

Dutch roll is?

A

Instability in roll and yaw

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18
Q

The critical mach number is reached when?

A

The airflow at a point on the airframe reaches 1.0 M

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19
Q

The mach number is the ratio between

A

True airspeed to local speed of sound

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20
Q

A landing gear attachment beam in an aircraft structure would normally be classified as?

A

Primary structure

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21
Q

A structure designed to give a specific number of flying hours without suffering major fatigue failure is described as

A

Safe life

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22
Q

Where specifically is the point on an aircraft identified as being, -14.5”, BLL 15” and WL 18”?

A

In front of the datum line by 14.5”, to the left of the butt line (from above) by 15” and above the water line by 18”

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23
Q

Strain may be defined as?

A

Fractional change of size of a member as a load is applied

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24
Q

What part of a monocoque structure carries the stress?

A

The skin only

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25
Q

What is the purpose of using cabin pressure on an aircrafts overboard drain?

A

It prevents the valve from opening when the aircraft is pressurised

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26
Q

A tie is a structural member used in aircraft construction?

A

Which takes tensile loads only

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27
Q

Which loads do longerons resist?

A

Bending, compression, tensile and torsional loads

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28
Q

A member designed to take mainly a compressive load is called a?

A

Strut

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29
Q

Which of the following is a likely result or consequence of rapid loss of pressure during a functional check of an aircraft pressurisation system?

A

Moisture precipitation in the integral environment and equipment

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30
Q

The cabin pressure of an aircraft in flight is maintained at a selected altitude by?

A

Varying the rate of outflow of the air from the cabin

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31
Q

What is the purpose of the caging/setting knob on the direction indicator?

A

It is used to set the correct magnetic heading

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32
Q

The combined speed indicator displays a combination of what?

A

Mach number and indicated airspeed

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33
Q

Mach is calculated as?

A

c) (P-S)/S

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34
Q

How is the alert of a stall warning relayed to the pilot?

A

By the control column shaking
(Stick shaker)

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35
Q

The three-position scale on the right hand side of a horizontal situation indicator display will show either?

A

Glideslope, vertical navigation or vertical navigation failure flag

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36
Q

What is a level 3 alert?

A

Are emergencies that require immediate action

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37
Q

In a marker beacon system what is the light sequence from outer to inner marker?

A

Blue, amber, white

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38
Q

How does distance measuring equipment operate?

A

By use of interrogation and reply signals

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39
Q

The 4 main parts of an autopilot system are?

A

Command, follow up, control, error sensing

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40
Q

What frequency range is used for commercial quality speech?

A

300Hz to 3KHz

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41
Q

What is the maximum height that a GPWS will operate?

A

2500ft

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42
Q

What two types of pressure sensing modules have replaced capsule types in recent years?

A

Piezoelectric and capacitive

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43
Q

When the acceleration detected by an inertial reference system is integrated twice what does the output represent?

A

Distance travelled

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44
Q

What is the purpose of the stabilised actuating pin within the gyro horizon unit?

A

Magnifies aircraft movement in pitch

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45
Q

What mode in an ATCRBS equipped aircraft relays altitude information?

A

Mode C

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46
Q

Where are the autopilot disconnect switches located?

A

On the outboard side of each control wheel

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47
Q

QNE represents?

A

Standard sea-level barometric pressure

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48
Q

What is the frequency range of VHF?

A

30 to 300MHz

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49
Q

When operating the weather radar on the ground what degree of arc in front of the aircraft must be free of large metallic objects?

A

240°

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50
Q

Under which of the following conditions should a VHF radio ground transmission NOT take place?

A

When an aircraft is being refuelled

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51
Q

A vertical speed indicator measures?

A

Rate of change of static pressure

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52
Q

How is the constant speed drive disconnected in flight?

A

Electromechanically or thermally

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53
Q

What frequency bands can the SELCAL system operate on?

A

HF and VHF

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54
Q

What would the indication be if the aircraft was receiving both the 90Hz modulated signals on an ILS?

A

Fly down, fly right

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55
Q

In an emergency situation when load shedding is taking place what system is normally one of the first to lose power?

A

Galley

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56
Q

Within the autopilot flight director computer which processor calculates the autopilot and flight director control laws?

A

Processor C

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57
Q

What two main units are contained within the integrated drive unit?

A

Constant speed drive unit and AC generator

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58
Q

What is the purpose of the small pin on a 3 pin external power connector?

A

Prevents arcing as the power lead is removed from the aircraft receptacle

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59
Q

At what voltages will the generator control unit typically trip a 115V AC generator offline when there is an over voltage and undervoltage?

A

Over voltage = 125V, Under voltage = 100v

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60
Q

An increase in the speed of a DC generator will cause the voltage to rise. What will be the resultant action in a Carbon Pile voltage regulator?

A

The volts coil will exert more pull, thus increasing the resistance of the carbon pile

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61
Q

If two DC generators are operating in parallel, what current flows in the equalising loop if the load is equally shared?

A

Zero

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62
Q

What is the action in a vibrating contact voltage regulator when the output of the generator it regulates is too high?

A

A contact opens to bring the generator field to minimum strength

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63
Q

In a constant frequency AC system, reactive load sharing is achieved by regulating what?

A

Generator field strength

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64
Q

What aircraft systems are typically powered by a variable frequency supply?

A

Resistive circuits such as de-icing and galley

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65
Q

How is AC provided from a DC system?

A

By use of static inverters

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66
Q

In the event of a total failure of the AC generator system, how is power maintained to the essential AC bus bar?

A

By power fed from a battery supplied static inverter

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67
Q

How is differential protection achieved?

A

By comparing the current to the load with the current returning to the generator

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68
Q

When should a non-return valve be used in a battery ventilation system?

A

When using cabin pressure

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69
Q

A safety equipment CO2 gas bottle is checked for serviceability

A

By weight

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70
Q

What kind of structure is a seat rail?

A

Primary structure

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71
Q

What type of fires are CO2 extinguishers suitable for use on?

A

On any type of fires within the aircraft.

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72
Q

A protruding mechanical indicator on a fire extinguisher shows the fire extinguisher

A

Has been fired.

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73
Q

If the turnbuckles in a control system are tightened excessively the result would be that the

A

Aircraft will be heavy on the controls

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74
Q

Flying control locks are primarily fitted to ensure

A

Controls are not ‘snatched’ and damaged by gusts of wind

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75
Q

Flying control cable tension compensation is necessary in order to

A

Allow for temperature differential

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76
Q

What is the purpose of fuel booster pumps?

A

To supply fuel to the engines and transfer fuel to the other tanks

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77
Q

Where should the fuel tank be vented from?

A

The top of the tank.

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78
Q

Why should a fuel tank be kept partially filled?

A

Internal sealing may dry out causing cracking and leaking

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79
Q

A fuel tank contents may be checked on the ground with

A

Drop sticks, sight rod and drip sticks

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80
Q

A hydraulic power system that uses two EDPs if one engine fails, system operating times?

A

Will be doubled.

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81
Q

What is the purpose of the standpipe fitted to some reservoirs?

A

A reserve of fluid for emergency use.

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82
Q

Hydraulic fluid sampling is necessary?

A

As specified in the maintenance manual and whenever contamination is suspected.

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83
Q

In a hydraulic system, what factor dictates the fluid to be used?

A

The make-up of the seals, hoses and other non-metallic parts

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84
Q

Characteristics of Skydrol hydraulic fluid are?

A

Phosphate ester based, fire resistant, butyl rubber seals

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85
Q

Which of the following lists the desirable properties of a good hydraulic fluid?

A

Low viscosity, good chemical stability, high flash point

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86
Q

What happens to the nitrogen pressure in an accumulator when the hydraulic system is pressurised?

A

It increases.

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87
Q

Hydraulic accumulator gas pressure is checked ?

A

With the hydraulic system depressurised only.

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88
Q

Many hydraulic reservoirs contain a small quantity of fluid which is not available to the main engine driven pumps. This is to?

A

Provide fluid for an emergency system

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89
Q

Some large aircraft have a pressurised reservoir. Its purpose is to?

A

Prevent cavitation of the engine driven pumps

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90
Q

The purpose of a hydraulic power transfer unit is to?

A

Transfer hydraulic energy via motor and pump from one system to another

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91
Q

Before removing an aircraft hydraulic component, it is necessary to relieve the hydraulic system pressure. This is normally done by?

A

Operating a circuit until pressure is zero

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92
Q

Which component is designed to remain open to allow fluid flow to a specific line but close if the fluid increases above a specific rate?

A

A hydraulic fuse

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93
Q

A ram air driven hydraulic pump is driven by?

A

Ram air

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94
Q

If a red button or plunger is protruding from a high-pressure hydraulic filter body?

A

The filter should be replaced or cleaned before the next flight

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95
Q

A shuttle valve in a hydraulic system is?

A

Operated automatically to allow an alternative system to operate a component

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96
Q

Self-sealing couplings are used in an aircraft hydraulic system primarily to?

A

Allow the system to be disconnected at specific points for maintenance without fluid loss

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97
Q

How is the hot rod ice detector used?

A

It is placed at a convenient point visible to the crew where they can witness ice forming on it

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98
Q

Which ice formation causes the most danger to an aircraft in flight?

A

Glaze ice

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99
Q

Which part of the wing is anti iced?

A

The leading edge

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100
Q

When is the de icing system on an aircraft used?

A

When ice has formed on the aircraft

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101
Q

Windscreen wipers should always be operationally tested ?

A

On a wet windscreen

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102
Q

The principle of operation of an oleo pneumatic shock absorber is to convert?

A

Kinetic energy to pressure energy

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103
Q

What are proximity switches in mechanically sequenced landing gear systems used for?

A

Indicate the position of the landing gear

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104
Q

The primary purpose of a drag strut fitted in a main undercarriage is to

A

Resist braking and acceleration loads during take-off/landing

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105
Q

A ground lock is a device fitted to landing gear?

A

While the aircraft is on the ground and removed before flight.

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106
Q

What is found on the side wall of a tyre

A

Batch number

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107
Q

Fusible plugs are fitted to many modern aircraft wheels to?

A

Melt and allow the tyre to deflate on overheating

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108
Q

Before dismantling a wheel, the tyre

A

Should be deflated using a deflation valve, left until all ice formation has melted and the valve core removed

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109
Q

How is brake pad wear on a multi-piston plate brake checked?

A

Wheel brakes must be on, aircraft either on or off jacks

110
Q

Aircraft brakes work by converting ?

A

Kinetic energy into heat

111
Q

The wear indicator pin on a multi-plate segmented rotor brake unit indicates?

A

The total wear on the whole heat pack

112
Q

Nose wheel shimmy may be reduced by?

A

Using a twin contact tyre

113
Q

Hydraulic nose wheel steering is usually powered from ?

A

The landing gear down line

114
Q

When power is first applied to the aircraft battery charger what mode does it initially enter?

A

Constant current mode

115
Q

What is the rate of flash for a high intensity strobe light?

A

60 flashes a minute

116
Q

An anti-collision light normally has what colour lens fitted?

A

Red

117
Q

When the reading light reset switch is pressed how long is the reading light supply removed from the reading lights?

A

15 seconds

118
Q

A network server system normally comprises of what 3 visual local area networks?

A

Airframe, airline, cabin

119
Q

Whilst charging a gaseous system you must ensure?

A

Aircraft is earthed

120
Q

Cabin oxygen masks automatically drop when?

A

Cabin altitude exceeds 14000 feet

121
Q

Aircraft oxygen cylinders are normally pressurised to?

A

1800psi

122
Q

Why are some oxygen cylinders wire wound?

A

To increase the strength of the cylinder

123
Q

Rupture of a bursting disc in a gaseous oxygen storage system is indicated by?

A

A coloured disc being dislodged from its housing on the skin of the aircraft

124
Q

Which valve enables the safe maintenance of high pressure pneumatic systems without the release of all the compressed air from the system?

A

Isolation valve

125
Q

Pneumatic air is supplied from which component in flight?

A

APU and or main engine compressors or airblowers

126
Q

In a water system hyperchlorination is used?

A

In potable water for bacterial control

127
Q

The tank in a liquid flush system is normally made from

A

Composites or plastics

128
Q

In a large passenger aircraft fitted with vacuum flush toilets, when the liquid waste is flushed it is?

A

Passed to a waste holding tank

129
Q

In a passenger entertainment system (PES) what does the term head end refer to?

A

The area where the audio/video reproducers are located

130
Q

What two type of test program to BITE systems perform?

A

Operational and maintenance

131
Q

Within an integrated modular avionics system what does the abbreviation ADCN stand for?

A

Aircraft Data Communication Network

132
Q

How many hours of data can a quick access recorder optical disc store?

A

41 hours

133
Q

There are five major components in a vapour cycle cooling system. In the correct flow order they are?

A

Receiver dryer, thermal expansion valve, evaporator, pump, then condenser

134
Q

When undertaking a structural repair, permission for the use of special fasteners will be found where?

A

In the SRM, engineering drawings, or concession letters

135
Q

Where would you expect to find vortex generators on an aerofoil?

A

On the upper surface of an aerofoil

136
Q

What type of fluid operated linear actuator would be used with the primary flight controls?

A

Balanced actuator

137
Q

Asymmetry of a torque tube drive flap system can be automatically monitored by?

A

Electrical signals sent from synchro units built into the drive system to the flaps control unit

138
Q

Using the zonal identification system which number would best identify an area of the upper fuselage to the major subzone level?

A

220

139
Q

A hot rod ice detector?

A

Must be mounted where it can be seen from the flight deck

140
Q

What type of fuel tank uses the wing box section to contain the fuel?

A

Integral tanks

141
Q

Control rod fork end fittings are normally in ‘safety’ when?

A

A probe cannot be passed through the inspection hole

142
Q

Control about the vertical axis is given by the?

A

Rudder

143
Q

Fuel tanks should be kept partially filled because?

A

Internal sealing may dry out, causing cracking and leaking

144
Q

The purpose of a sequence valve in an undercarriage circuit is to ensure that?

A

Movement of the landing gear and the doors are in the correct order

145
Q
  1. An aircraft with an axial flow gas turbine engine would normally take the air supply for the cabin pressurisation system from a?
A

Tapping near the high-pressure end of the engine compressor

146
Q

1A hydraulic Ram Air Turbine (R.A.T) is driven by?

A

Airflow on the outside of the fuselage to provide an emergency source of hydraulic power

147
Q

An oleo pneumatic shock absorber is charged with NITROGEN mainly to?

A

Absorb landing shocks

148
Q

A hand pump is sometimes used in a hydraulic power circuit, fitted with an engine driven pump in order to?

A

Provide a flow of fluid in the event of engine driven pump failure or to check the operation of a system on the ground.

149
Q

A bonded hydraulic seal will normally consist of?

A

Metallic outer ring and a rubber inner ring

150
Q

What colour is mineral based hydraulic fluid?

A

Red

151
Q

Before checking the hydraulic reservoir fluid level, the gas pressure in the accumulator must be?

A

Within limits

152
Q

An accumulator is fitted to?

A

Absorb fluctuations in pressure

153
Q

The internal resistance of a fluid which tends to prevent it from flowing easily is called?

A

Viscosity

154
Q

Which component in the hydraulic system is used to direct the flow of fluid?

A

Selector valve

155
Q

What type of trailing edge flap increases the total aerofoil area as well as the aerofoil camber?

A

Fowler flap

156
Q

The potable water supply is usually delivered by?

A

Pneumatic pressure

157
Q

Which component is designed to remain open to allow fluid to flow to a line, but close if the fluid flow increases above a specific rate?

A

Hydraulic fuse

158
Q

Stress may be defined as?

A

Load per unit area acting on a body

159
Q

A MACH trimmer is a device which?

A

Automatically compensates the trim changes in the transonic region

160
Q

Where are balance panels often used?

A

Aileron system

161
Q

The purpose of a ‘spring strut’ in a powered flying control system is to?

A

Absorb inputs to a failed/locked PFCU

162
Q

How will you know the condition of an engine fire extinguisher bottle?

A

Bottle pressure gauge

163
Q

How is hot water provided to the toilet sink taps?

A

An electrical heater below the toilet sink

164
Q

In an aircraft with a domestic (drinking) water supply, the?

A

Aircraft water system must be hyper-chlorinated at set intervals

165
Q

Why is mass balance used in aircraft controls and how is it achieved?

A

It reduces flutter by moving the CofG of the control near to the hinge line

166
Q

Which of the following structural members would be classified as primary structure?

A

Wing spars

167
Q

Passenger seats are?

A

Held into seat rails by a locking mechanism

168
Q

The transonic range is?

A

M 0.8 to M 1.2

169
Q

Station numbers are used to identify?

A

Location of structural members in the airframe

170
Q

At what frequency does the vibrating rod ice detector vibrate at?

A

40KHZ

171
Q

Cabin pressurisation is achieved by?

A

Maintaining a constant inflow of air to the cabin and varying the rate of outflow

172
Q

What is a skin doubler?

A

An extra layer of skin to provide localised strengthening

173
Q

The type of construction that consists of an outer and inner skin separated by a metal or composite honeycomb material is known as?

A

Sandwich construction

174
Q

At what cabin altitude will oxygen drop out usually occur in an automatic system?

A

14000ft

175
Q

On the fuselage of a modern semi-monocoque aircraft, longerons?

A

Transfer longitudinal loads and reinforce around doors and apertures

176
Q

A ‘fail safe’ structure describes a structure which?

A

Has more than one main member carrying the major loads i.e. if one member fails, the other will carry the load

177
Q

A thermal relief valve in a hydraulic system will?

A

will open when high ambient temperatures cause system pressure build up due to expansion of system fluid

178
Q

What effect does wing sweep back have?

A

It increases the critical MACH number

179
Q

On an aircraft fitted with both high low and high-speed ailerons, the low speed ailerons will generally be fitted?

A

Outboard of the high-speed ailerons

180
Q

A fuselage frame?

A

Gives shape to and supports the skin

181
Q

How is a fuel booster pump cooled?

A

By the fuel it is pumping and immersed in

182
Q

Why is it necessary to vent a fuel tank?

A

To prevent pump cavitation when fuel leaves the tank

183
Q

What component on a wing is designed to stimulate the boundary layer?

A

Vortex generators

184
Q

Which of the following statements describes a function of a spoiler system?

A

A spoiler increases turbulence on the top of the wing in order to dump lift

185
Q

What is the function and purpose of the oil within the landing gear oleo?

A

It damps the recoil after absorbing a shock

186
Q

When is it permissible to use a hydraulic fluid different to that identified in the Aircraft Maintenance Manual (AMM)?

A

It is never permitted to use different fluid to that identified in the AMM

187
Q

Where does the incipient shock wave form on a symmetrical aerofoil?

A

On the upper and lower surfaces

188
Q

Zone 700 refers to which area of the aircraft?

A

The landing gear

189
Q

When does the inward relief valve of a cabin pressurisation system operate?

A

When cabin pressure is less than ambient pressure

190
Q

If the control column is moved right:

A

The right aileron moves up and the left down

191
Q

What is the name of the area of the wing where the wing is up-swept at an extreme dihedral angle?

A

The winglet

192
Q

Which of the following properties can be attributed to a hydraulic fluid?

A

It is relatively incompressible

193
Q

Which component on a wing is used to control the span-wise flow of the boundary layer air?

A

Wing fence

194
Q

To what pressure is an oxygen cylinder pressurised to?

A

1800psi

195
Q

A fuel cross-feed valve?

A

Will remain in the last selected position

196
Q

Which hydraulic fluid is used with synthetic rubber seals?

A

Only mineral based oils

197
Q

What is the purpose of the horizontal stabiliser?

A

It provides stability around the lateral axis

198
Q

Which of the following describes a lift dumper or spoiler?

A

Lift dumpers or spoilers are devices installed on the upper wing surface in order to increase drag

199
Q

What type of force causes torsion stresses?

A

Twisting forces

200
Q

When charging a hydraulic system accumulator with gas pressure you?

A

Ensure that the system pressure has been dissipated first

201
Q

What effect will moving the pilots control column rearwards have on the control surfaces and the aircrafts attitude?

A

The elevator goes up lowering the tail and raising the nose of the aircraft

202
Q

What are the generally accepted colour indications for landing gear operations?

A

Red during transit, green for down and locked

203
Q

If flaps are extended on an aircraft, stalling speed?

A

Is decreased

204
Q

Air supplied from the engines to the airframe will have some form of control for?

A

Pressure, temperature, flow rate

205
Q

A canard design is an aeroplane with?

A

Horizontal stabiliser in front of the wings

206
Q

What is the core of a chemical oxygen generator?

A

Sodium chlorate and iron fillings

207
Q

How would you identify an American aircraft oxygen cylinder?

A

It is green

208
Q

Which of the following statements is true concerning the by-pass valve fitted to micronic high pressure filters?

A

It operates when pressure differential either side of the filter reaches a pre-set value

209
Q

Elevons combine the functions of both?

A

Elevator and aileron

210
Q

A drag strut is normally fitted in a main undercarriage assembly to absorb?

A

Braking and take-off acceleration loads

211
Q

A fusible plug is used in the landing system to?

A

Allow the tyre to safely deflate due to overheating

212
Q

At high Mach numbers some aircraft metals?

A

Lose their strength due to the kinetic heating effect

213
Q

In a stall warning system, when will the ‘stick shaker’ operate?

A

Before the stall occurs

214
Q

What high lift device is used to delay airflow separation at the leading edge at high angles of attack?

A

Slats

215
Q

What structural design feature is used on structural members to aid fluid drainage?

A

Lightening holes and ribs face downwards towards the lowest part of the structure

216
Q

When an elevator using aerodynamic balance tabs is moved up, the relative tab movement will be?

A

Down

217
Q

A horn balance on a flying control?

A

Is provided to assist the pilot to move the control

218
Q

An anti-balance tab?

A

Moves further in the same direction as the main control

219
Q

To trim an aircraft that is nose heavy an elevator trim tab would be?

A

Moved down

220
Q

Critical Mach number of an aircraft is where?

A

the airflow at some point on the aircraft has reached Mach 1

221
Q

Undercarriage ground locks are normally?

A

Fitted by engineers after the aircraft has stopped

222
Q

What type of seal is usually found in hot air pipes?

A

Crush type metal seals

223
Q

Trailing edge flaps are fitted to an aircraft to increase?

A

Lift and drag

224
Q

How is the electrical operation of a heated drain mast normally tested?

A

By feeling for warmth, by hand

225
Q

Aircraft landing wheels are usually made from?

A

Magnesium or aluminium alloy

226
Q

What are the four main parts of an autopilot system?

A

Error sensing, correction, follow-up, command

227
Q

What is recorded by channel 3 of the cockpit voice recorder?

A

Captain’s summed microphone and telephone audio

228
Q

With regards to a standby attitude indicator, when will the gyro flag be out of view?

A

When the speed of the gyro has reached a pre-set RPM

229
Q

What is the turn rate for a rate 2 turn?

A

360˚ per minute

230
Q

To initiate a stall warning, what other input needs to be analysed in addition to the aircrafts angle of attack?

A

Flap position

231
Q

VCR operates using?

A

Two 30Hz signals, one a reference signal, the other a variable signal

232
Q

A solid orange circle on a TCAS display indicates?

A

A traffic advisory

233
Q

What frequency does a DME operate in?

A

UFH

234
Q

In the ground proximity warning system, what does mode 6 warn against?

A

Descent below selected decision height

235
Q

What would the indication be if an aircraft was receiving both the 90Hz modulated signals on an ILS?

A

Fly down, fly right

236
Q

With regards to integrated modular avionics, what does the abbreviation CPIOM stand for?

A

Core Processor Input & Output Module

237
Q

The onboard maintenance system will display a yellow BAT TEMP light when the line battery temperature is?

A

Below -29˚C and above 60˚C

238
Q

The aircraft battery charger will stop charging for any of the following three reasons?

A

The battery is fully charged, outside its normal temperature limits or the cells are not balanced

239
Q

How a load sharing is a two DC generator system?

A

Using an equalising circuit

240
Q

When a pressure reverting servo altimeter is selected to Reset:

A

It displays air data computer derived altitude

241
Q

If the voltage across the voltage coil of a carbon pile regulator increases?

A

The pile would extend, its resistance would increase, and the field current would reduce

242
Q

What is the typical range and accuracy of a carbon altimeter?

A

0-20,000ft with an accuracy of ±500ft

243
Q

In a constant speed drive (CSD), the governor?

A

is connected to the CSD output gear and supplies charge oil to the control cylinder

244
Q

which component within the generator control unit (GCU) connects the output of the field power supply to the generator exciter?

A

Generator Control Relay (GCR)

245
Q

Which 3 methods of selection are used by the autopilot flight director computer input/output module to select a validated input signal?

A

Mid value selection, priority selection, forced selection

246
Q

If a heavy load is placed on a generator, Over current Lockout will inhibit which two signals?

A

Under frequency and under voltage

247
Q

What is the purpose of the inverter in a variable speed constant frequency (VSCF) power system?

A

Convert the DC link voltage to a 3 phase pulse width modulated waveform

248
Q

The permanent magnet generator in a brushless AC generator is?

A

Connected to the rotor of the brushless AC generator and produces AC excitation current which is fed to the GCU

249
Q

In a constant frequency AC system, reactive load sharing is controlled by adjustment of?

A

Generator field strength

250
Q

What is meant by vital services?

A

Services which are required after an emergency wheels up landing

251
Q

An APU is normally identical to an engine generator, typically delivering?

A

55KV/A on the ground and 45KV/A in flight

252
Q

The global positioning system consists of what 3 parts?

A

Space segment, control segment, user segment

253
Q

What instrument uses a restrictor to affect the rate at which the pressure can change inside the instrument case?

A

Vertical speed indicator

254
Q

Transonic flight takes place at what speeds?

A

0.75 to 1.2 Mach

255
Q

In the event of a total failure of the AC generation system, how is power maintained to the essential AC bus bay?

A

By power fed from the battery supplied static inverter

256
Q

What is the purpose of the time delay in under-voltage protection?

A

To prevent tripping of the GCR due to transient under-voltages

257
Q

During an Autoland sequence, at what height is the flare mode disengaged and the transition to the touchdown and roll out mode occur?

A

5 ft

258
Q

What is the VHF emergency distress frequency?

A

121.50MHz

259
Q

Within a fuse, what type of material is the fusible link typically made from?

A

Lead or tin

260
Q

What type of radio wave propagations produce a skip zone?

A

Sky wave

261
Q

On an external DC power socket, what is the purpose of the small pin?

A

DC supply for external power relay coil

262
Q

Which safe band is used in civilian HF communication?

A

Upper side band only

263
Q

What is the rate of flash for a high intensity strobe light?

A

60 flashes a minute

264
Q

Where can emergency exit lights be found and how far apart are they spaced?

A

Left hand side of the aisle, 40 inches apart

265
Q

The airplane condition monitoring function (ACMF) employs custom software. The logic equation software that detects defect conditions and records the data is in the:

A

Trigger format

266
Q

With respect to the on-board information system, what three domains are hosted on the network server system?

A

Avionics, flight operations, communications & cabin

267
Q

Starting at the receiver-drier there are four main components in a vapour cycle cooling system, in order they are?

A

Thermal expansion valve, evaporator, pump then condenser

268
Q

The principle of operation of a hydraulic filter pop-up indicator is by?

A

The difference between inlet and outlet pressures within the component

269
Q

In which hydraulic component system would you expect to find a differential linear actuator?

A

Landing gear extension/retraction system

270
Q

Aeroplanes that utilise the horizontal stabiliser as a fuel tank will have its tank vent system connected to?

A

Its own surge tank compartment

271
Q

Liquid flush tanks have a pre-charge of chemical of which capacity?

A

3 gallons

272
Q

Most flight deck transparencies are manufactured from?

A

3 or 5 layers of glass and plastic

B1 M11 (1 decks)

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