M11 Flashcards
(272 cards)
1
Q
What happens when the pilot moves the control stick to the right?
A
The left aileron goes down, the right aileron goes up and the aircraft rolls right
2
Q
What is the purpose of a vertical stabiliser?
A
It provides stability around the vertical axis
3
Q
If the right rudder pedal is pushed forward the rudder
A
Moves right
4
Q
What is the function of leading edge slats?
A
Increase lift and as a result reduce stalling speed
5
Q
A Krueger flap is fitted to?
A
The leading edge of the wing
6
Q
Trailing edge flaps are fitted to an aircraft?
A
To increase lift and reduce stalling speed
7
Q
What is the main function of a spoiler system?
A
To provide roll control, airbraking, and destroy wing lift after landing
8
Q
What effect does a lift dumper have on the wing of an aircraft?
A
They decrease lift aft of the dumper panels and increase drag
9
Q
Wing tip effect may be reduced by?
A
A boundary layer fence fitted about mid span of a swept wing
10
Q
What is the purpose of a saw tooth profile on a wing?
A
It is the point where the wing chord is increased, airflow velocity is increased and spanwise flow is reduced
11
Q
Leading edge droop is used on some swept wing aircraft to minimise
A
Laminar separation at low speeds
12
Q
What is the purpose of wing root stall wedges?
A
To ensure airflow break-away at high angles of attack making the wing root stall before the tip
13
Q
A balance tab is used to?
A
Assist the pilot to move the controls
14
Q
What is meant by the term mass balance?
A
It is addition of mass to a control to prevent flutter or high speed oscillations
15
Q
Wing fences are sometimes used in high speed aircraft so that
A
Span-wise flow is reduced
16
Q
As altitude increases the local speed of sound will?
A
Decrease
17
Q
Dutch roll is?
A
Instability in roll and yaw
18
Q
The critical mach number is reached when?
A
The airflow at a point on the airframe reaches 1.0 M
19
Q
The mach number is the ratio between
A
True airspeed to local speed of sound
20
Q
A landing gear attachment beam in an aircraft structure would normally be classified as?
A
Primary structure
21
Q
A structure designed to give a specific number of flying hours without suffering major fatigue failure is described as
A
Safe life
22
Q
Where specifically is the point on an aircraft identified as being, -14.5”, BLL 15” and WL 18”?
A
In front of the datum line by 14.5”, to the left of the butt line (from above) by 15” and above the water line by 18”
23
Q
Strain may be defined as?
A
Fractional change of size of a member as a load is applied
24
Q
What part of a monocoque structure carries the stress?
A
The skin only
25
What is the purpose of using cabin pressure on an aircrafts overboard drain?
It prevents the valve from opening when the aircraft is pressurised
26
A tie is a structural member used in aircraft construction?
Which takes tensile loads only
27
Which loads do longerons resist?
Bending, compression, tensile and torsional loads
28
A member designed to take mainly a compressive load is called a?
Strut
29
Which of the following is a likely result or consequence of rapid loss of pressure during a functional check of an aircraft pressurisation system?
Moisture precipitation in the integral environment and equipment
30
The cabin pressure of an aircraft in flight is maintained at a selected altitude by?
Varying the rate of outflow of the air from the cabin
31
What is the purpose of the caging/setting knob on the direction indicator?
It is used to set the correct magnetic heading
32
The combined speed indicator displays a combination of what?
Mach number and indicated airspeed
33
Mach is calculated as?
c) (P-S)/S
34
How is the alert of a stall warning relayed to the pilot?
By the control column shaking
(Stick shaker)
35
The three-position scale on the right hand side of a horizontal situation indicator display will show either?
Glideslope, vertical navigation or vertical navigation failure flag
36
What is a level 3 alert?
Are emergencies that require immediate action
37
In a marker beacon system what is the light sequence from outer to inner marker?
Blue, amber, white
38
How does distance measuring equipment operate?
By use of interrogation and reply signals
39
The 4 main parts of an autopilot system are?
Command, follow up, control, error sensing
40
What frequency range is used for commercial quality speech?
300Hz to 3KHz
41
What is the maximum height that a GPWS will operate?
2500ft
42
What two types of pressure sensing modules have replaced capsule types in recent years?
Piezoelectric and capacitive
43
When the acceleration detected by an inertial reference system is integrated twice what does the output represent?
Distance travelled
44
What is the purpose of the stabilised actuating pin within the gyro horizon unit?
Magnifies aircraft movement in pitch
45
What mode in an ATCRBS equipped aircraft relays altitude information?
Mode C
46
Where are the autopilot disconnect switches located?
On the outboard side of each control wheel
47
QNE represents?
Standard sea-level barometric pressure
48
What is the frequency range of VHF?
30 to 300MHz
49
When operating the weather radar on the ground what degree of arc in front of the aircraft must be free of large metallic objects?
240°
50
Under which of the following conditions should a VHF radio ground transmission NOT take place?
When an aircraft is being refuelled
51
A vertical speed indicator measures?
Rate of change of static pressure
52
How is the constant speed drive disconnected in flight?
Electromechanically or thermally
53
What frequency bands can the SELCAL system operate on?
HF and VHF
54
What would the indication be if the aircraft was receiving both the 90Hz modulated signals on an ILS?
Fly down, fly right
55
In an emergency situation when load shedding is taking place what system is normally one of the first to lose power?
Galley
56
Within the autopilot flight director computer which processor calculates the autopilot and flight director control laws?
Processor C
57
What two main units are contained within the integrated drive unit?
Constant speed drive unit and AC generator
58
What is the purpose of the small pin on a 3 pin external power connector?
Prevents arcing as the power lead is removed from the aircraft receptacle
59
At what voltages will the generator control unit typically trip a 115V AC generator offline when there is an over voltage and undervoltage?
Over voltage = 125V, Under voltage = 100v
60
An increase in the speed of a DC generator will cause the voltage to rise. What will be the resultant action in a Carbon Pile voltage regulator?
The volts coil will exert more pull, thus increasing the resistance of the carbon pile
61
If two DC generators are operating in parallel, what current flows in the equalising loop if the load is equally shared?
Zero
62
What is the action in a vibrating contact voltage regulator when the output of the generator it regulates is too high?
A contact opens to bring the generator field to minimum strength
63
In a constant frequency AC system, reactive load sharing is achieved by regulating what?
Generator field strength
64
What aircraft systems are typically powered by a variable frequency supply?
Resistive circuits such as de-icing and galley
65
How is AC provided from a DC system?
By use of static inverters
66
In the event of a total failure of the AC generator system, how is power maintained to the essential AC bus bar?
By power fed from a battery supplied static inverter
67
How is differential protection achieved?
By comparing the current to the load with the current returning to the generator
68
When should a non-return valve be used in a battery ventilation system?
When using cabin pressure
69
A safety equipment CO2 gas bottle is checked for serviceability
By weight
70
What kind of structure is a seat rail?
Primary structure
71
What type of fires are CO2 extinguishers suitable for use on?
On any type of fires within the aircraft.
72
A protruding mechanical indicator on a fire extinguisher shows the fire extinguisher
Has been fired.
73
If the turnbuckles in a control system are tightened excessively the result would be that the
Aircraft will be heavy on the controls
74
Flying control locks are primarily fitted to ensure
Controls are not ‘snatched’ and damaged by gusts of wind
75
Flying control cable tension compensation is necessary in order to
Allow for temperature differential
76
What is the purpose of fuel booster pumps?
To supply fuel to the engines and transfer fuel to the other tanks
77
Where should the fuel tank be vented from?
The top of the tank.
78
Why should a fuel tank be kept partially filled?
Internal sealing may dry out causing cracking and leaking
79
A fuel tank contents may be checked on the ground with
Drop sticks, sight rod and drip sticks
80
A hydraulic power system that uses two EDPs if one engine fails, system operating times?
Will be doubled.
81
What is the purpose of the standpipe fitted to some reservoirs?
A reserve of fluid for emergency use.
82
Hydraulic fluid sampling is necessary?
As specified in the maintenance manual and whenever contamination is suspected.
83
In a hydraulic system, what factor dictates the fluid to be used?
The make-up of the seals, hoses and other non-metallic parts
84
Characteristics of Skydrol hydraulic fluid are?
Phosphate ester based, fire resistant, butyl rubber seals
85
Which of the following lists the desirable properties of a good hydraulic fluid?
Low viscosity, good chemical stability, high flash point
86
What happens to the nitrogen pressure in an accumulator when the hydraulic system is pressurised?
It increases.
87
Hydraulic accumulator gas pressure is checked ?
With the hydraulic system depressurised only.
88
Many hydraulic reservoirs contain a small quantity of fluid which is not available to the main engine driven pumps. This is to?
Provide fluid for an emergency system
89
Some large aircraft have a pressurised reservoir. Its purpose is to?
Prevent cavitation of the engine driven pumps
90
The purpose of a hydraulic power transfer unit is to?
Transfer hydraulic energy via motor and pump from one system to another
91
Before removing an aircraft hydraulic component, it is necessary to relieve the hydraulic system pressure. This is normally done by?
Operating a circuit until pressure is zero
92
Which component is designed to remain open to allow fluid flow to a specific line but close if the fluid increases above a specific rate?
A hydraulic fuse
93
A ram air driven hydraulic pump is driven by?
Ram air
94
If a red button or plunger is protruding from a high-pressure hydraulic filter body?
The filter should be replaced or cleaned before the next flight
95
A shuttle valve in a hydraulic system is?
Operated automatically to allow an alternative system to operate a component
96
Self-sealing couplings are used in an aircraft hydraulic system primarily to?
Allow the system to be disconnected at specific points for maintenance without fluid loss
97
How is the hot rod ice detector used?
It is placed at a convenient point visible to the crew where they can witness ice forming on it
98
Which ice formation causes the most danger to an aircraft in flight?
Glaze ice
99
Which part of the wing is anti iced?
The leading edge
100
When is the de icing system on an aircraft used?
When ice has formed on the aircraft
101
Windscreen wipers should always be operationally tested ?
On a wet windscreen
102
The principle of operation of an oleo pneumatic shock absorber is to convert?
Kinetic energy to pressure energy
103
What are proximity switches in mechanically sequenced landing gear systems used for?
Indicate the position of the landing gear
104
The primary purpose of a drag strut fitted in a main undercarriage is to
Resist braking and acceleration loads during take-off/landing
105
A ground lock is a device fitted to landing gear?
While the aircraft is on the ground and removed before flight.
106
What is found on the side wall of a tyre
Batch number
107
Fusible plugs are fitted to many modern aircraft wheels to?
Melt and allow the tyre to deflate on overheating
108
Before dismantling a wheel, the tyre
Should be deflated using a deflation valve, left until all ice formation has melted and the valve core removed
109
How is brake pad wear on a multi-piston plate brake checked?
Wheel brakes must be on, aircraft either on or off jacks
110
Aircraft brakes work by converting ?
Kinetic energy into heat
111
The wear indicator pin on a multi-plate segmented rotor brake unit indicates?
The total wear on the whole heat pack
112
Nose wheel shimmy may be reduced by?
Using a twin contact tyre
113
Hydraulic nose wheel steering is usually powered from ?
The landing gear down line
114
When power is first applied to the aircraft battery charger what mode does it initially enter?
Constant current mode
115
What is the rate of flash for a high intensity strobe light?
60 flashes a minute
116
An anti-collision light normally has what colour lens fitted?
Red
117
When the reading light reset switch is pressed how long is the reading light supply removed from the reading lights?
15 seconds
118
A network server system normally comprises of what 3 visual local area networks?
Airframe, airline, cabin
119
Whilst charging a gaseous system you must ensure?
Aircraft is earthed
120
Cabin oxygen masks automatically drop when?
Cabin altitude exceeds 14000 feet
121
Aircraft oxygen cylinders are normally pressurised to?
1800psi
122
Why are some oxygen cylinders wire wound?
To increase the strength of the cylinder
123
Rupture of a bursting disc in a gaseous oxygen storage system is indicated by?
A coloured disc being dislodged from its housing on the skin of the aircraft
124
Which valve enables the safe maintenance of high pressure pneumatic systems without the release of all the compressed air from the system?
Isolation valve
125
Pneumatic air is supplied from which component in flight?
APU and or main engine compressors or airblowers
126
In a water system hyperchlorination is used?
In potable water for bacterial control
127
The tank in a liquid flush system is normally made from
Composites or plastics
128
In a large passenger aircraft fitted with vacuum flush toilets, when the liquid waste is flushed it is?
Passed to a waste holding tank
129
In a passenger entertainment system (PES) what does the term head end refer to?
The area where the audio/video reproducers are located
130
What two type of test program to BITE systems perform?
Operational and maintenance
131
Within an integrated modular avionics system what does the abbreviation ADCN stand for?
Aircraft Data Communication Network
132
How many hours of data can a quick access recorder optical disc store?
41 hours
133
There are five major components in a vapour cycle cooling system. In the correct flow order they are?
Receiver dryer, thermal expansion valve, evaporator, pump, then condenser
134
When undertaking a structural repair, permission for the use of special fasteners will be found where?
In the SRM, engineering drawings, or concession letters
135
Where would you expect to find vortex generators on an aerofoil?
On the upper surface of an aerofoil
136
What type of fluid operated linear actuator would be used with the primary flight controls?
Balanced actuator
137
Asymmetry of a torque tube drive flap system can be automatically monitored by?
Electrical signals sent from synchro units built into the drive system to the flaps control unit
138
Using the zonal identification system which number would best identify an area of the upper fuselage to the major subzone level?
220
139
A hot rod ice detector?
Must be mounted where it can be seen from the flight deck
140
What type of fuel tank uses the wing box section to contain the fuel?
Integral tanks
141
Control rod fork end fittings are normally in ‘safety’ when?
A probe cannot be passed through the inspection hole
142
Control about the vertical axis is given by the?
Rudder
143
Fuel tanks should be kept partially filled because?
Internal sealing may dry out, causing cracking and leaking
144
The purpose of a sequence valve in an undercarriage circuit is to ensure that?
Movement of the landing gear and the doors are in the correct order
145
10. An aircraft with an axial flow gas turbine engine would normally take the air supply for the cabin pressurisation system from a?
Tapping near the high-pressure end of the engine compressor
146
1A hydraulic Ram Air Turbine (R.A.T) is driven by?
Airflow on the outside of the fuselage to provide an emergency source of hydraulic power
147
An oleo pneumatic shock absorber is charged with NITROGEN mainly to?
Absorb landing shocks
148
A hand pump is sometimes used in a hydraulic power circuit, fitted with an engine driven pump in order to?
Provide a flow of fluid in the event of engine driven pump failure or to check the operation of a system on the ground.
149
A bonded hydraulic seal will normally consist of?
Metallic outer ring and a rubber inner ring
150
What colour is mineral based hydraulic fluid?
Red
151
Before checking the hydraulic reservoir fluid level, the gas pressure in the accumulator must be?
Within limits
152
An accumulator is fitted to?
Absorb fluctuations in pressure
153
The internal resistance of a fluid which tends to prevent it from flowing easily is called?
Viscosity
154
Which component in the hydraulic system is used to direct the flow of fluid?
Selector valve
155
What type of trailing edge flap increases the total aerofoil area as well as the aerofoil camber?
Fowler flap
156
The potable water supply is usually delivered by?
Pneumatic pressure
157
Which component is designed to remain open to allow fluid to flow to a line, but close if the fluid flow increases above a specific rate?
Hydraulic fuse
158
Stress may be defined as?
Load per unit area acting on a body
159
A MACH trimmer is a device which?
Automatically compensates the trim changes in the transonic region
160
Where are balance panels often used?
Aileron system
161
The purpose of a ‘spring strut’ in a powered flying control system is to?
Absorb inputs to a failed/locked PFCU
162
How will you know the condition of an engine fire extinguisher bottle?
Bottle pressure gauge
163
How is hot water provided to the toilet sink taps?
An electrical heater below the toilet sink
164
In an aircraft with a domestic (drinking) water supply, the?
Aircraft water system must be hyper-chlorinated at set intervals
165
Why is mass balance used in aircraft controls and how is it achieved?
It reduces flutter by moving the CofG of the control near to the hinge line
166
Which of the following structural members would be classified as primary structure?
Wing spars
167
Passenger seats are?
Held into seat rails by a locking mechanism
168
The transonic range is?
M 0.8 to M 1.2
169
Station numbers are used to identify?
Location of structural members in the airframe
170
At what frequency does the vibrating rod ice detector vibrate at?
40KHZ
171
Cabin pressurisation is achieved by?
Maintaining a constant inflow of air to the cabin and varying the rate of outflow
172
What is a skin doubler?
An extra layer of skin to provide localised strengthening
173
The type of construction that consists of an outer and inner skin separated by a metal or composite honeycomb material is known as?
Sandwich construction
174
At what cabin altitude will oxygen drop out usually occur in an automatic system?
14000ft
175
On the fuselage of a modern semi-monocoque aircraft, longerons?
Transfer longitudinal loads and reinforce around doors and apertures
176
A ‘fail safe’ structure describes a structure which?
Has more than one main member carrying the major loads i.e. if one member fails, the other will carry the load
177
A thermal relief valve in a hydraulic system will?
will open when high ambient temperatures cause system pressure build up due to expansion of system fluid
178
What effect does wing sweep back have?
It increases the critical MACH number
179
On an aircraft fitted with both high low and high-speed ailerons, the low speed ailerons will generally be fitted?
Outboard of the high-speed ailerons
180
A fuselage frame?
Gives shape to and supports the skin
181
How is a fuel booster pump cooled?
By the fuel it is pumping and immersed in
182
Why is it necessary to vent a fuel tank?
To prevent pump cavitation when fuel leaves the tank
183
What component on a wing is designed to stimulate the boundary layer?
Vortex generators
184
Which of the following statements describes a function of a spoiler system?
A spoiler increases turbulence on the top of the wing in order to dump lift
185
What is the function and purpose of the oil within the landing gear oleo?
It damps the recoil after absorbing a shock
186
When is it permissible to use a hydraulic fluid different to that identified in the Aircraft Maintenance Manual (AMM)?
It is never permitted to use different fluid to that identified in the AMM
187
Where does the incipient shock wave form on a symmetrical aerofoil?
On the upper and lower surfaces
188
Zone 700 refers to which area of the aircraft?
The landing gear
189
When does the inward relief valve of a cabin pressurisation system operate?
When cabin pressure is less than ambient pressure
190
If the control column is moved right:
The right aileron moves up and the left down
191
What is the name of the area of the wing where the wing is up-swept at an extreme dihedral angle?
The winglet
192
Which of the following properties can be attributed to a hydraulic fluid?
It is relatively incompressible
193
Which component on a wing is used to control the span-wise flow of the boundary layer air?
Wing fence
194
To what pressure is an oxygen cylinder pressurised to?
1800psi
195
A fuel cross-feed valve?
Will remain in the last selected position
196
Which hydraulic fluid is used with synthetic rubber seals?
Only mineral based oils
197
What is the purpose of the horizontal stabiliser?
It provides stability around the lateral axis
198
Which of the following describes a lift dumper or spoiler?
Lift dumpers or spoilers are devices installed on the upper wing surface in order to increase drag
199
What type of force causes torsion stresses?
Twisting forces
200
When charging a hydraulic system accumulator with gas pressure you?
Ensure that the system pressure has been dissipated first
201
What effect will moving the pilots control column rearwards have on the control surfaces and the aircrafts attitude?
The elevator goes up lowering the tail and raising the nose of the aircraft
202
What are the generally accepted colour indications for landing gear operations?
Red during transit, green for down and locked
203
If flaps are extended on an aircraft, stalling speed?
Is decreased
204
Air supplied from the engines to the airframe will have some form of control for?
Pressure, temperature, flow rate
205
A canard design is an aeroplane with?
Horizontal stabiliser in front of the wings
206
What is the core of a chemical oxygen generator?
Sodium chlorate and iron fillings
207
How would you identify an American aircraft oxygen cylinder?
It is green
208
Which of the following statements is true concerning the by-pass valve fitted to micronic high pressure filters?
It operates when pressure differential either side of the filter reaches a pre-set value
209
Elevons combine the functions of both?
Elevator and aileron
210
A drag strut is normally fitted in a main undercarriage assembly to absorb?
Braking and take-off acceleration loads
211
A fusible plug is used in the landing system to?
Allow the tyre to safely deflate due to overheating
212
At high Mach numbers some aircraft metals?
Lose their strength due to the kinetic heating effect
213
In a stall warning system, when will the ‘stick shaker’ operate?
Before the stall occurs
214
What high lift device is used to delay airflow separation at the leading edge at high angles of attack?
Slats
215
What structural design feature is used on structural members to aid fluid drainage?
Lightening holes and ribs face downwards towards the lowest part of the structure
216
When an elevator using aerodynamic balance tabs is moved up, the relative tab movement will be?
Down
217
A horn balance on a flying control?
Is provided to assist the pilot to move the control
218
An anti-balance tab?
Moves further in the same direction as the main control
219
To trim an aircraft that is nose heavy an elevator trim tab would be?
Moved down
220
Critical Mach number of an aircraft is where?
the airflow at some point on the aircraft has reached Mach 1
221
Undercarriage ground locks are normally?
Fitted by engineers after the aircraft has stopped
222
What type of seal is usually found in hot air pipes?
Crush type metal seals
223
Trailing edge flaps are fitted to an aircraft to increase?
Lift and drag
224
How is the electrical operation of a heated drain mast normally tested?
By feeling for warmth, by hand
225
Aircraft landing wheels are usually made from?
Magnesium or aluminium alloy
226
What are the four main parts of an autopilot system?
Error sensing, correction, follow-up, command
227
What is recorded by channel 3 of the cockpit voice recorder?
Captain’s summed microphone and telephone audio
228
With regards to a standby attitude indicator, when will the gyro flag be out of view?
When the speed of the gyro has reached a pre-set RPM
229
What is the turn rate for a rate 2 turn?
360˚ per minute
230
To initiate a stall warning, what other input needs to be analysed in addition to the aircrafts angle of attack?
Flap position
231
VCR operates using?
Two 30Hz signals, one a reference signal, the other a variable signal
232
A solid orange circle on a TCAS display indicates?
A traffic advisory
233
What frequency does a DME operate in?
UFH
234
In the ground proximity warning system, what does mode 6 warn against?
Descent below selected decision height
235
What would the indication be if an aircraft was receiving both the 90Hz modulated signals on an ILS?
Fly down, fly right
236
With regards to integrated modular avionics, what does the abbreviation CPIOM stand for?
Core Processor Input & Output Module
237
The onboard maintenance system will display a yellow BAT TEMP light when the line battery temperature is?
Below -29˚C and above 60˚C
238
The aircraft battery charger will stop charging for any of the following three reasons?
The battery is fully charged, outside its normal temperature limits or the cells are not balanced
239
How a load sharing is a two DC generator system?
Using an equalising circuit
240
When a pressure reverting servo altimeter is selected to Reset:
It displays air data computer derived altitude
241
If the voltage across the voltage coil of a carbon pile regulator increases?
The pile would extend, its resistance would increase, and the field current would reduce
242
What is the typical range and accuracy of a carbon altimeter?
0-20,000ft with an accuracy of ±500ft
243
In a constant speed drive (CSD), the governor?
is connected to the CSD output gear and supplies charge oil to the control cylinder
244
which component within the generator control unit (GCU) connects the output of the field power supply to the generator exciter?
Generator Control Relay (GCR)
245
Which 3 methods of selection are used by the autopilot flight director computer input/output module to select a validated input signal?
Mid value selection, priority selection, forced selection
246
If a heavy load is placed on a generator, Over current Lockout will inhibit which two signals?
Under frequency and under voltage
247
What is the purpose of the inverter in a variable speed constant frequency (VSCF) power system?
Convert the DC link voltage to a 3 phase pulse width modulated waveform
248
The permanent magnet generator in a brushless AC generator is?
Connected to the rotor of the brushless AC generator and produces AC excitation current which is fed to the GCU
249
In a constant frequency AC system, reactive load sharing is controlled by adjustment of?
Generator field strength
250
What is meant by vital services?
Services which are required after an emergency wheels up landing
251
An APU is normally identical to an engine generator, typically delivering?
55KV/A on the ground and 45KV/A in flight
252
The global positioning system consists of what 3 parts?
Space segment, control segment, user segment
253
What instrument uses a restrictor to affect the rate at which the pressure can change inside the instrument case?
Vertical speed indicator
254
Transonic flight takes place at what speeds?
0.75 to 1.2 Mach
255
In the event of a total failure of the AC generation system, how is power maintained to the essential AC bus bay?
By power fed from the battery supplied static inverter
256
What is the purpose of the time delay in under-voltage protection?
To prevent tripping of the GCR due to transient under-voltages
257
During an Autoland sequence, at what height is the flare mode disengaged and the transition to the touchdown and roll out mode occur?
5 ft
258
What is the VHF emergency distress frequency?
121.50MHz
259
Within a fuse, what type of material is the fusible link typically made from?
Lead or tin
260
What type of radio wave propagations produce a skip zone?
Sky wave
261
On an external DC power socket, what is the purpose of the small pin?
DC supply for external power relay coil
262
Which safe band is used in civilian HF communication?
Upper side band only
263
What is the rate of flash for a high intensity strobe light?
60 flashes a minute
264
Where can emergency exit lights be found and how far apart are they spaced?
Left hand side of the aisle, 40 inches apart
265
The airplane condition monitoring function (ACMF) employs custom software. The logic equation software that detects defect conditions and records the data is in the:
Trigger format
266
With respect to the on-board information system, what three domains are hosted on the network server system?
Avionics, flight operations, communications & cabin
267
Starting at the receiver-drier there are four main components in a vapour cycle cooling system, in order they are?
Thermal expansion valve, evaporator, pump then condenser
268
The principle of operation of a hydraulic filter pop-up indicator is by?
The difference between inlet and outlet pressures within the component
269
In which hydraulic component system would you expect to find a differential linear actuator?
Landing gear extension/retraction system
270
Aeroplanes that utilise the horizontal stabiliser as a fuel tank will have its tank vent system connected to?
Its own surge tank compartment
271
Liquid flush tanks have a pre-charge of chemical of which capacity?
3 gallons
272
Most flight deck transparencies are manufactured from?
3 or 5 layers of glass and plastic
