MAF MSPC Flashcards
(255 cards)
1
Q
Responsible for making changes in GO81 for approved SCR actions.
A
Unit Training Manager (UTM)
2
Q
This organization is responsible for determining the appropriate deviation code after coordination with applicable agencies.
A
Command Post
3
Q
Scanners and wing walkers are required within how many feet of an obstruction?
A
25
4
Q
These units serve roles in both federal and state.
A
Air National Guard (ANG)
5
Q
Owning MXG/CC, MXG/CD, or designated individual is this type of release authority?
A
Impoundment
6
Q
90 days is the blank number of days of supervision for civilians prior to an appraisal.
A
Minimum
7
Q
The aircraft subsystem required for a specific mission are identified in this column of the MESL. Lists a unit’s specifically assigned wartime, training, and test mission and the systems and subsystems that must work for a unit to accomplish those missions.
A
Basic System List (BSL)
8
Q
Tool used to help aircrews determine aircraft worthiness.
A
Minimum Equipment Listing (MEL)
9
Q
Pro Super and this organization are CANN authorities.
A
Execution Operations Control Logistics (XOCL)
10
Q
Two up and one down is the allowed substitution for _____ personnel deploying.
One up and one down is the allowed substitution for _____ personnel deploying.
A
- Enlisted
- Officer
11
Q
Coordinates aircraft maintenance schedules between maintenance and operations.
A
Plans Scheduling and Documentation
12
Q
Number of days maintenance has to turn in a MICAP DIFM assets to supply.
A
4
13
Q
Air Force blank manual covers how to read a grid map and cordon overlay.
A
Airman’s
14
Q
Acronym used to help you develop a comprehensive ETIC.
A
WARCAP
15
Q
Five character alpha-numeric code that uniquely identifies a capability of each type of unit in the Air Force.
A
Unit Type Code (UTC)
16
Q
Documented whenever a maintenance action is stopped prior to completion or a change of maintenance technician occurs.
A
Work Stoppage
17
Q
Primary work/rest authority for these individuals rests with the Aircraft Commander.
A
Flying Crew Chief (FCC)
18
Q
The AF Form 2407 is used to make what to the flying schedule?
A
Changes
19
Q
Why safety nets are not 100% reliable. Humans are what?
A
Fallible
20
Q
This person moves people, resources, and ensures maintenance is accomplished.
A
Expediter
21
Q
Installation Emergency Management Plan dealing with natural disasters.
A
Annex B
22
Q
Training class designed to improve safety by reducing all types of maintenance induced human errors.
A
Logistics Resource Management (LRM)
23
Q
Tool used to determine what missions an aircraft is capable of performing. (Does not determine airworthiness, safety of flight, and should not gauge go/no-go decisions).
A
Minimum Essential Subsystems List (MESL)
24
Q
This maintenance discipline breakdown indicator can occur due to task familiarity.
A
Complacency
25
Codes assigned to track aircraft departure delays.
Deviations
26
Component of the UTC identifying the equipment required.
LOGDET
27
The 200 deviation code is used for what kind of delays?
Aircrew
28
Estimated 80% of all aviation accidents are caused by this type of error.
Human
29
Responsible for the on-scene recovery actions in support of an off station NMC aircraft.
Maintenance Recovery Team (MRT) Chief
30
DOD civilian organization that develops special test equipment and helps until resolve complex or unusual technical aircraft problems.
Air Force Engineering and Technical Services (AFETS)
31
Single source for information about the manpower a unit requires to perform its mission.
Unit Manning Document (UMD)
32
Their primary role is to train traditional reservists.
Active Reserve Technicians (ART)
33
Useful AMC A4 Website used for checking the status or your aircraft.
Global Reach
34
The symbol * on the UPMR means there is a what?
Mismatch
35
This person manages the maintenance production efforts by assigning priorities to meet the flying and maintenance schedules.
Pro Super
36
Leads monthly DIT meetings.
Analysis
37
A newly assigned individual would be most likely to notice these safety issues.
Norms
38
This NCOIC is responsible for developing work-center training requirements.
Section
39
What is the AFSO21 methodology and standardized method and mindset to reduce waste in processes used in unit?
LEAN
40
Publication that establishes base specific guidance for emergency response actions.
Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP)
41
MXG/CD normally chairs this meeting.
Production
42
What are the three components of a UTC?
MISCAP (Mission Capability)
LOGDET (Logistics Detail)
MANFOR (Manpower Force)
43
SNCO’s and Officers who have less than 12 months experience on their assigned aircraft should take this training.
Command Aircraft System Training (CAST)
44
First Emergency Management objective is to what?
Save Lives
45
The 900 deviation code is used for what kind of delay?
Maintenance
46
This Commander is responsible to ensure their unit is capable to respond to Wing taskings.
Squadron
47
Max number of hours you are allowed by regulation to schedule personnel for.
12 Hours
48
The Pro Super is ultimately responsible for setting what?
The Estimated Time In Commission (ETIC)
49
MESL column that identifies all system and subsystems needed for full mission performance.
Full System List (FSL)
50
When developing the blank, identify all task requirements within your duty section to ensure 100% task covers.
Master Task List (MTL)
51
Type of evaluation that QA must observe a technician accomplish maintenance every 18 months.
Personnel Evaluation (PE)
52
What are T-0, T-1, T-2 and T-3?
Waiver Authorities
- T-0 (HAF)
- T-1 (MAJCOM/CC - Delegable no lower than appropriate MAJCOM director)
- T-2 (MAJCOM/CC - Delegable no lower than the first GO in the Chain of Command)
- T-3 (Wg/CC or equivalent - Delegable no lower than the Sq/CC or equivalent)
53
Who approves the SCR?
Maintenance Operations Officer / Maintenance Superintendent
54
Who selects personnel for the SCR?
AMU OIC, Superintendent, Flight Commander, or Flight Chief
55
Who recommends individuals for addition to the SCR?
Section NCOIC / Section Chief
56
When Expediter and Pro Super duties be combined?
If there are 8 or fewer assigned aircraft
57
What responsibility does the Production Superintendent have in regards to the CDDAR program?
Monitor
58
How often should the Quick Response Checklist be reviewed by the MXG/CC?
Annually
59
Installation Emergency Management Plan dealing with major accidents.
Annex A
60
Installation Emergency Management Plan dealing with an enemy CBRN attack.
Annex C
61
Installation Emergency Management Plan dealing with Terrorist use of CBRN.
Annex D
62
A large spill is consider a spill larger than ____ gallons where as a small spill is ____ gallons or less.
55
63
How often should Pilot Units review UTC's?
Every 2 years
64
Air Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) should be updated every ____ days or ____ hours of a status change.
30 days / 24 hours
65
What are Force Modules?
A group of Unit Line Number (ULNs) for TPFDD analysis and force tracking
66
When must a deviation be input?
When a mission departs a station 15 minutes or more past the scheduled departure
67
Deviation message reports must be submitted ASAP, but NLT ____ hours after an aircraft launch.
2
68
What are the purpose of deviation codes?
The purpose of recording controllable deviations is to take steps to improve processes in future operations
69
What kind of indicators show problem first, as they directly reflect maintenance's capability to provide resources to execute the mission?
Leading
70
What kind of indicators show firmly established trends?
Lagging
71
What type of indicators do we have more control over?
Leading Indicators
72
What deviation is used for an unresolved deviation? (Place-holder)
555
73
After 48 hours if there is still no reason provided for a deviation of 555, the deviation changes to ____.
255
74
How often is Supply supposed to conduct visits to the maintenance work-centers for maintaining bench stock, shop stock, and operating stock?
Quarterly
75
Who's responsibility is supply discipline?
Everyones
76
- 1A is used for ___ conditions.
- JA is used for ___ conditions.
- BQ is used for ___ conditions.
- NMC
- PMC
- FMC
77
Can PMC conditions be ordered 1A?
Yes, when it is Mission Essential.
78
What are the rank requirements to be a CANN Authority?
SNCOs, Officers, or Civilian Equivalents. (MSgt or higher)
79
CANN Authority should coordinate with whom prior to a home-station CANN?
Plans Scheduling and Documentation (PS and D)
80
CANN Authority for aircraft away from home?
XOCL
81
Why are Deficiency Reports used?
To identify bad actors
82
What is the Evaluation and Inspection Plan?
A contract with units on what to inspect over the next quarter
83
What is the rank requirements to be a FOD Monitor?
TSgt or higher
84
What is the purpose of the MSEP?
Provide units with a method of evaluating technical compliance and measure how well they comply with established standards
85
What makes something a Category I write-up?
Required step / inspection carded item missed or improperly completed
86
What makes something a Category II write-up?
Readily detectable but not a specified item
87
What makes something a Major Finding?
Endangers personnel or affects safety
88
What makes something a Minor Finding?
Unsatisfactory condition
89
Do not taxi or tow an aircraft within ____ feet of obstructions without wing-walkers monitoring the clearance between the aircraft and the obstruction.
25
90
Do not taxi aircraft closer than ____ feet to any obstruction.
10
91
Large aircraft will not be turned while within ____ feet of any obstacle.
25
92
What is Wing and Tail Growth?
It occurs when turning a swept wing aircraft as the outside wing and tail will grow anywhere from 3-24 feet
93
What is the minimum signature for Maintenance and Aircrew?
Maintenance: First Name Initial. Last Name & Employee Number
Aircrew: First Name Initial. Last Name, Crew Position & Unit Designator
94
How must warning notes be written in the 781 Forms?
Written or Underlined in Red
95
How must Aircrew Operating Restrictions be written in the 781 Forms?
Written or Underlined in Red
96
How do you update a discrepancy in the 781 Forms in the 781A section?
Line through the discovered by and employee number and print your minimum signature and employee number directly above.
97
How do you downgrade a Red X in the 781 Forms in the 781A section?
Entered in the corrective action, "Symbol downgraded from a Red X to a Red / IAW 00-20-1 para XXXX. See page XX item XX.
In the next open 781A discrepancy block enter, "Updated discrepancy followed by Symbol downgraded from a Red X to a Red / on 2019XXXX by XXXX.
98
If an operational check or leak check cannot be completed concurrently or immediately following a maintenance action, what must the technician do?
Write up the operational or leak check with the appropriate T.O reference in the next open discrepancy block.
99
Where must a technician look to verify/confirm if the status of the day is correct?
The 781A and 781K. (Highest Symbol)
100
How do you signify that no known discrepancies or conditions exists on the 781H?
Enter a Black Letter Initial in the Status Today Block
101
What is an Exceptional Release (ER)?
An ER serves as a certification that the authorized individual who enters their minimum signature has reviewed the active forms to ensure that the aerospace vehicle is safe for flight
102
Who is authorized to sign an Exceptional Release (ER)?
Individuals approved by the MXG/CC
103
What is the rank requirements to sign an Exceptional Release (ER)?
Maintenance Officers, SNCOs, or Civilian Equivalents
104
If after a thorough review, the MXG/CC has determined that local conditions require the assignment of other than Maintenance Officers, SNCOs, or their Civilian Equivalents to sign the Exceptional Release (ER), the MXG/CC must forward a waiver request to whom for approval?
Major Command (MAJCOM)
105
When designated personnel are not available to sign an Exceptional Release (ER), whom may do so?
The Aircraft Commander (A/C)
106
When an Exceptional Release (ER) is signed by the pilot, it will only be affective for which flights?
Flights in which the releasing pilot participates
107
How will an Exceptional Release (ER) be signed off in the 781 Forms?
A Red Line must be drawn under the last entry on the 781A with the person's initials at the left margin beside the Red Line. Afterwards, the releaser will enter their minimum signature in Block 6 (Status Today) located on the 781H
108
What must occur if new red symbol entries are recorded on the 781A?
A new line will be drawn under the last item.
If the status does not change the ER/CR, nothing is required on the 781H. (Only the Red Line will be updated on the 781A)
109
If a new entry is recorded on the 781A which does not change the status but the individual signing off the Exceptional Release (ER) / Conditional Release (CR) changes, what must be done?
The new individual must enter their minimum signature on the 781H. (Initials on the 781H and 781A must match)
110
What allows an aircraft to fly although a discrepancy exists which restricts capabilities?
Conditional Release (CR)
111
How is a Conditional Release (CR) entered on the 781H?
When a Conditional Release (CR) is granted, the conditions of the release will be described by an appropriate entry in the 781A. Additionally, in the next open line after the Exceptional Release signature, enter "Conditional See 781A pg___ item ___
112
Who has the ability to approve a discrepancy to be downgraded for a one-time flight? (Owning)
MXG/CC
113
What GO81 screen will be used to document all mission limiting discrepancies that cannot be worked?
Screen 9146
114
What document does Aircrew utilize that lists the minimum equipment/systems to operate the aircraft?
Minimum Equipment List (MEL)
115
If a discrepancy was discovered during flight, when does maintenance status start?
At the time the aircraft returns to parking spot/engine shutdown
116
If a discrepancy was discovered during ground operations, when does maintenance status start?
At the time the discrepancy was discovered
117
If In Flight Operation Checks (IFOCs) are required, when will maintenance status stop?
At the time everything leading up to the operations check is completed
118
During a Functional Check Flight (FCF), when will maintenance status stop?
At the time the Functional Check Flight (FCF) is complete (Aircraft lands)
119
When does Supply time start? (When a lack of a part is determined and when...
A demand is placed on the Supply System
120
When does Supply time stop?
When Maintenance receives the requested part
121
What is QRC an acronym for?
Quick-Response Checklist (QRC)
122
How often must a Quick Response Checklist (QRC) be reviewed by the MXG/CC?
Annually
123
What is ETIC an acronym for?
Estimated Time In Commission (ETIC)
124
If in Transient status and the aircrew desires omission of an inspection even though the required resources are available, what must happen?
The aircrew will make an entry on the AFTO Form 781A stating the reason for their decision. The aircrew will sign the exceptional release. A duplicate of the AFTO Forms 781A and 781H will be made, and will be retained by the Transient Alert (TA) supervisor for not less than 90 days and disposed of in accordance with AFMAN 33-363.
125
How do you clear a discrepancy that was Previously Complied With (PCW)?
Print “PCW, see forms dated FROM___, TO___ (from the old forms), Page ___, Item ___,” in the CORRECTIVE ACTION block of the new set of forms. The individual will then enter their minimum signature in the CORRECTED BY block and initial over the symbol in the SYM block. A Red X PCW discrepancy does not require a Red X qualified individual since there is no maintenance action
126
When a Red symbol ( / or -) is entered in error, the individual discovering the incorrect entry will enter what statement in the CORRECTIVE ACTION block?
“Symbol entered in error, discrepancy and correct symbol reentered on page ____, item ____” or “Symbol entered in error, no discrepancy exists,” and enter their minimum signature requirements in the CORRECTED BY or INSPECTED BY blocks as applicable and initial over the symbol.
127
What is TPFDD an acronym for?
Time Phased Force Deployment Data (TPFDD)
128
What is CETS an acronym for?
Contract Engineering Technical Support (CETS)
129
What is LCOM an acronym for?
Logistics Composite Model (LCOM)
130
What are the three components of the LCOM?
- Maintenance
- Supply
- Operations
131
What is PAA an acronym for?
Primary Assigned Aircraft (PAA)
132
What are MPA (Man-Days)?
Places ANG or AFRC members on temporary duty
133
What is the minimum rest period for personnel?
Opportunity for at least 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep in a 24 hour period
134
What is the maximum length personnel can be TDY for?
180 days (consecutive) to any one location in a 12 month period
135
How much compensation time is authorized for TDY's 45 days or longer and 90 days or longer?
45 days - 7 days (3 special and 4 unscheduled)
| 90 days - 14 days (4 special and 10 unscheduled)
136
Who is responsible for managing leave?
The member
137
Aircraft Generation:
AF 2408 _____
AF 2409 _____
- Big Picture
| - Actions required for a specific line mission
138
Due to the inherit danger to life, limb, and property associated with maintenance operations, personnel are empowered to terminate an operation or situation which they perceive is unsafe or too dangerous.
What is this referred to in maintenance?
Knock It Off
139
Mishap Reporting:
- Class A _____
- Class B _____
- Class C _____
- Class D _____
- Class E _____
- $2M +
- $500K - $2M
- $50K - $500K
- $20K - $50K
- Does not meet reportable mishap classification criteria
140
When maintenance places an MC aerospace vehicle into scheduled maintenance on the printed flying schedule/maintenance plan, the status changes only if it is determined that maintenance cannot, and will not return the aerospace vehicle to a MC status within _____ hours.
2
141
Units will report the WUC/LCNs for the mission limiting condition that will take the _____ for maintenance to correct on an aerospace vehicle in PMC and NMC status.
Longest (Pacing Item)
142
Plans Scheduling and Documentation usually helps Maintenance units submit the AFTO 103 approximately how many days before Depot input?
60
143
What is the AFTO 103 used for?
Depot Input Request
144
Provides worldwide strategic global support for USTRANSCOM.
En Route
145
Acceptance/Transfer Inspection time normally ranges between how many days depending on airframe?
48 - 72 hours
146
Plans Scheduling and Documentation usually helps Maintenance units submit the AFTO Form 103 approximately how many days before Depot input?
60
147
Has primary responsibility for its unit members and retains principal responsibility for weapons system or systems.
Sponsor Organization
148
Has primary responsibility for its unit members but shares the weapon system or systems assigned to the host.
Associate Organization
149
Regular Air Force unit is the host and shares with a Reserve unit.
Classic Association
150
Reserve component is the host and shares with RegAF unit.
Active Associate
151
Satisfy short-term engineering service requirements for on-site engineering support.
Contract Engineering Technical Support (CETS)
152
Satisfy long-term requirements for on-site field engineering support.
Air Force Engineering and Technical Services (AFETS)
153
What is PIC an acronym for?
Purpose Identifier Codes
154
What possession code should not exceed 48 hours?
BT (Transfer)
155
Deal with fleet-wide maintenance issues affecting specific weapons systems.
Weapons System Managers (WSM)
156
AMC / AO4 Logistics Operations is AMC's POC for what missions?
- OPLAN exercises
- Presidential Support
- Contingency and theater mobility aircraft maintenance deployments
157
Who sources, tasks, and manages deployed personnel and equipment for "Demand Force Team" taskings?
A4O
158
What is XOCL and acronym for?
Execution Operations Control Logistics (XOCL)
159
Who provides expeditious logistics support for AMC and AMC-gained aircraft with NMC or Mission Essential (ME) discrepancies?
618 AOC (TACC) XOCL
160
CANNs from AFRC and ANG is _____ ?
Restricted
161
MRT starts work _____ upon arrival; _____ hour duty day authorized the first day for travel time. Duty day starts at the time of _____ report for duty at home-station.
- Immediately
- 16
- Initial
162
MRT normal work/rest periods are _____ hours followed by _____ hours rest. At a minimum, MRT members are provided the opportunity for _____ hours of uninterrupted sleep.
- 12
- 12
- 8
163
MRT must report work status every _____ hours or upon expiration of current ETIC.
6
164
Civilian Performance Program is normally conducted within _____ days of assignment. Appraisal periods run 1 _____ through 31 _____.
- 30
| - April / March
165
Right to union representation. (Civilians)
Weingarten Rights
166
What are the four disciplinary actions for civilian personnel?
Oral Admonishment, Written Reprimand, Suspension, and Removal
167
FMC
Full Mission Capable
168
PMCB
Partial Mission Capable Both Maintenance and Supply
169
PMCM
Partial Mission Capable Maintenance
170
PMCS
Partial Mission Capable Supply
171
NMCA
Not Mission Capable Airworthy
172
NMCB
Not Mission Capable Both Maintenance and Supply
173
NMCBA
Not Mission Capable Both Maintenance and Supply Airworthy
174
NMCBS
Not Mission Capable Both Maintenance and Supply Scheduled
175
NMCBU
Not Mission Capable Both Maintenance and Supply Unscheduled
176
NMCBSA
Not Mission Capable Both Maintenance and Supply Scheduled Airworthy
177
NMCBUA
Not Mission Capable Both Maintenance and Supply Unscheduled Airworthy
178
NMCM
Not Mission Capable Maintenance
179
NMCMA
Not Mission Capable Maintenance Airworthy
180
NMCMS
Not Mission Capable Maintenance Scheduled
181
NMCMU
Not Mission Capable Maintenance Unscheduled
182
NMCMSA
Not Mission Capable Maintenance Scheduled Airworthy
183
NMCMUA
Not Mission Capable Maintenance Unscheduled Airworthy
184
NMCS
Not Mission Capable Supply
185
NMCSA
Not Mission Capable Supply Airworthy
186
The overall responsibility for correct and timely deviation reporting rests with who?
The Unit Commander
187
The primary deviation code is the _____ event in the sequence of events that directly leads to the mission departing in delay. (Meaning an event from which unit actions cannot recover).
First
188
Red Ball maintenance normally occurs _____ hours prior to launch and until aircrew have released the aircraft back to maintenance.
2
189
Administrative actions taken to prohibit aircraft from flying because of a special condition.
Aircraft Grounding
190
Owning _____ will direct QA to develop local One Time Inspections (OTI).
MXG/CC
191
Annotate local OTI in forms on a Red _____ and grounding discrepancies on a Red _____.
- Dash
| - X
192
Who has the authority to ground all aircraft assigned to their base?
Wg/CC
193
Who will determine if the risk is significant to ground all like MDS aircraft?
AMC/A4
194
What program is required by Public Law 99-661 that a preflight safety inspection of all internationally scheduled charter missions for the transportation of members of the Armed Forces.
Ramp Inspection Program
195
MAJCOM OPR for the Ramp Inspection Program is HQ AMC/_____.
A4MP
196
Ramp Inspection Program:
| _____% of internationally scheduled charters are inspected. _____% for domestic /SAAM chartered missions.
- 100
| - 25
197
Ramp inspectors will complete AMC Form _____ after reviewing aircraft and documentation and forward up to HQ AMC.
234
198
Hangar Queen Categories:
- Category 1 - Not flown _____ to _____ days.
- Category 2 - Not flown _____ to _____ days.
- Category 3 - Not flown _____ or more days.
- 30 - 59
- 60 - 89
- 90+
199
Unit possessed aircraft are exempt from accruing Hangar Queen time for up to _____ days immediately following depot repair or maintenance.
10
200
FCC Program only applies to personnel assigned to positions on the UMD with a _____ prefix for the DAFSC.
C
201
FCCs must fly _____ missions per quarter.
3
202
Can FCCs work other en route aircraft?
No. (Exemption: FCCs left art an en route location awaiting transportation my be assigned to work other en route aircraft).
203
When does the duty day begin for an FCC?
When the FCC shows at the aircraft
204
FCCs will not be required to work longer than _____ hours; must be given _____ hours of uninterrupted rest.
- 16
| - 8
205
Who will be the primary decision authority to determine when the FCC begins a rest cycle for the next mission?
Aircraft Commander
206
Who has the overall responsibility for the Aircraft Battle Damage Repair (ABDR)?
Air Force Material Command (AFMC)
207
Who is the POC for damaged AMC aircraft?
AMC/A4MR
208
Units will document all aircraft battle damage on AFTO Form _____.
97
209
The _____ will provide local guidance to ensure an effective FOD program.
Wg/CV
210
UTMs must interview newly assigned personnel within _____ days. _____ days for ARC.
- 30
| - 60
211
UTMs must conduct a comprehensive trainee orientation within _____ days for all trainees initially entering upgrade. _____ days for ARC.
- 60
| - 90
212
SAVs are conducted every _____ months for unit training. _____ months for AFRC and _____ months for ANG.
- 18
- 24
- 36
213
What percent of records are reviewed during a SAV?
| _____% for upgrade and _____% all other records.
- 50
| - 10
214
A guide for supervisors and trainers to ensure personnel are training in an effective and efficient manner to meet mission requirements.
Master Training Plan (MTP)
215
At a minimum, MTPs must include what?
- Master Task List (MTL)
- Current CFETP
- AF Form 797 / JQS
- Milestones
216
Who must ensure that training requirements and the MTP is developed?
Flight Chief/AMU Superintendent
217
Identifies all day to day mission requirements, core tasks, in-garrison and contingency tasks, and additional duties performed by work-center personnel.
Identifies special work requirements not performed on a regular basis.
Master Task List (MTL)
218
When can an Aircraft Commander (A/C) sign an Exceptional Release (ER)?
When designated personnel are not available
219
How are missions determined?
- Designed Operational Capability (DOC)
- Mission Essential Subsystem List (MESL)
- Unit Training Syllabus (AETC)
- Test Mission Requirements
220
Numerical codes placed next to (or in place of) the X's in the FSL and BSL columns that identify additional information listed at the end of (or within the remarks block of) the aircraft specific Minimum Essential Subsystem List (MESL).
MESL Qualifying Note
221
Who develops and maintains Minimum Essential Subsystem Lists (MESL)?
Weapons System Manager (WSM)
222
Maintenance Managers and Production Superintendents are required to attend Maintenance Supervision and Production Course (MSPC) within _____ year of assignment.
One
223
Monitors flightline operations and coordinates support and priority with other squadron Pro Supers and MOC.
Maintenance Production Superintendent
224
Remains on the flightline to the fullest extent possible, when maintenance personnel are performing flightline maintenance and launch/recovery.
Expediter
225
- Saves Lives
- Minimize loss of degradation of resources
- Continue, sustain, and restore operational capability in an all-hazards physical threat environment at AF installations worldwide.
Air Force Emergency Management Program Mission
226
Approves the Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) 10-2
Installation Commander
227
What system does the Air Force use to conduct Unit Recall procedures?
Air Force Personnel Accountability and Assessment System (AFPAAS)
228
Lack of forces, equipment, personnel, material.
Shortfalls
229
Programmed Depot Maintenance (PDM) Roles:
- Emergency: ____ hour response.
- Immediate: Confirmed _____ hours and _____ days response.
- Urgent: _____ days response.
- Route: _____ days response.
- 4
- 24 / 5
- 15
- 45
230
Provides expeditious logistics support for AMC and AMC-gained aircraft with NMC or Mission Essential (ME) discrepancies.
Execution Operations Control Logistics (XOCL)
231
Who has verbal tasking authority over Active Duty?
Execution Operations Control Logistics (XOCL)
232
Provides both unit-level and headquarters-level planning, scheduling, and tracking of airlift and mobility missions.
Global Decision Support System (GDSS)
233
_____ removal of a specific assembly, subassembly or part from on e weapon system to another to satisfy and existing supply requisition and meet mission requirements.
Authorized
234
What AF Form is used to adjust Stock Levels?
AF Form 1996
235
Who is responsible for the review of the D23 daily?
Section Chief
236
Storage locations established and controlled to store parts awaiting installation and removed to FOM.
Tail Number Bin (TNB)
237
If parts in a Tail Number Bin (TNB) are not worked, Supply can pull when needed elsewhere. (True or False)
True
238
Who is the focal point for the Product Improvement Program (PIP)?
Quality Assurance (QA)
239
_____ will co-chair Intermediate Repair Enhancement Program (IREP) meetings with the _____ on a quarterly basis.
- MXG/CC
| - MSG/CC
240
Extension of the Unit Manning Document (UMD) which puts names to position numbers.
Unit Personnel Manpower Roster (UPMR)
241
Who pays for MPA (Man-Days)?
Active Duty MPA Account
242
Maintenance personnel duty hours are to be aligned to provide _____ mission support.
Optimal
243
- Week _____: (Ops gives requirements to Mx)
- Week _____: (Mx gets back with Ops)
- Week _____: (Scheduled Mx is incorporated)
- Week _____: (Plan is signed by Wg/CC)
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
244
Quarterly Planning contract must be approved by the OG/MXG/CC _____ days before the start of the quarter.
14
245
The purpose of the Post-Dock is to verify that those maintenance actions, listed on the AF Form _____ and agreed upon at the Pre-Dock meeting were completed and documented correctly.
2410
246
Plans Scheduling and Documentation will brief the MXG/CC whenever unaccomplished TCTO's are within _____ days of grounding.
60
247
The _____ is a list of required inspections that cover tasks that are complex and tasks affecting safety of flight.
Key Task List (KTL)
248
Denotes the maximum number of minors acceptable during a inspection.
Acceptable Quality Level (AQL)
249
A _____ is an inspection conducted after work has been completed.
Quality Verification Inspection (QVI)
250
A _____ is an inspection not covered by a Personnel Evaluation (PE) or Quality Verification Inspection (QVI).
Special Inspection (SI)
251
The Form _____ will be used to document safety, fire protection, and health training unless other specific documentation is specified elsewhere.
55
252
Oral Admonishments and Written Reprimands are removed from civilian records after a period of _____ years.
2
253
Any time the pilot doubts that adequate clearance exists, aircrew members , if applicable, will _____ to verify obstruction clearance.
Deplane
254
Waiver approval authority Airfield Manager will use AF Form _____ for request.
679
255
All waivers pertaining to safety of aircraft operations will be forwarded through the _____.
MAJCOM/A3
