malignancies Flashcards

1
Q

acute leukemia

Onset
Cell Type
Survival
Treatment

A

Rapid
Immature
Fatal if untreated
Aggressive chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

chronic leukemia

Onset
Cell Type
Survival
Treatment

A

Gradual
More mature
Long survival
Observation, chemotherapy or targeted agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

CM and PE of AML

A

67 yo

week history of fatigue as well as shortness of breath with exertion, low grade fever.

Physical exam shows gingival hyperplasia, petechiae over her arms.

splenomegaly

CNS-HA confusion TIA
PULM: respiratory distress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

MC Acute form of leukemia in adults (80% of cases].

A

AML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

AML labs

A

Profound anemia, thrombocytopenia
neutropenia
WBC>100,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

DX of AML

A

BONE MARROW
&>20% blasts.*

favorable or unfavorable dx for determination of need of stem cell transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Two types of AML

A

iv. Primary AML: arises de novo (new)
v. Secondary AML: Leukemia that develop from previous hematologic disorders or from previous chemotherapy for other cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

tx of AML

A

Supportive care w/ transfusions

Chemotherapy - induction chemotherapy followed by consolidation chemotherapy

ATRA/Arsenic for AML-M3 subtype (causes DIC, bleeding complications)

Stem cell transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

MC form of acute leukemia in children

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

representing 80% of acute leukemia in children and 20% in adults

Highest incidence is 3-7 years

second rise around 40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

CM of acute lymphoblastic leukemia seen as a result of bone marrow failure

A

Profound anemia (pallor, lethargy, dyspnea)

Neutropenia (FEVER MC SX, malaise, infxns of mouth, throat)

Thrombocytopenia (bruising, bleeding gums)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

other than sxs of bone marrow failure what else do we see associated with CM of acute lymphoblastic leukemia

A

organi filtration
o Tender bones, LAD, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly in 20% of pts

o CNS involvement in 6%
headache, stiff neck, visual changes, vomiting. CNS & testes MC site for METS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Work up for acute lymphoblastic anemia

A

Work up
Decreased or increased WBC

Peripheral blast

Elevated LDH, uric acid

Bone marrow blast present

Lumbar puncture

CXR may have enlarged mediastinal mass

CXR may have enlarged mediastinal mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is acute lymphocytic leukemia

A

Malignancy of lymphoid stem cells/BLASTS in bone marrow <=>lymph nodes, spleen, liver, other organs.

can be B cells T cells or non B/T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Pancytopenia seen with leukemia is the result of

A

crowding out from hyperproliferation of blasts

loss of RBC= anemia
loss of platelets= thombocytopenia and purpura
neutropenia= infx and fever

spilling of blasts = increase in WBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

differentiating blasts on a smear

A

they are huge and have low cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How do you differentiate ALL from AML

A

How do you differentiate ALL from AML

TDT

Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase = ALL
“ ↑ LDH & uric acid
“ Peripheral blast
“ CXR – may have mediastinal mass

myeloperxidase or aeur rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

most common subtype of ALL

A

BALL

C10
C19
C20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

would you see CNS directed tx for ALL or AML

A

ALL

this is to prevent and treat CNS dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

genetically modified T cells

A

Allogeneic transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Allogeneic transplant Imatinib

indicated for

A

philadephia chromosome positive ALL, primary refractory or early relapsed dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

with this chronic leukemia you have cells dividing too quickly

A

cml

both result in cytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

With this chronic leukemia you have cells not dying when they should be

A

CLL

both result in cytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

CML most common cause

A

translocation of philadelphia
T 9;22

BCR-ABL Oncogene

  1. Stem cell disorder
  2. Characterized bymyeloproliferation
  3. Well-described clinical course

22 is philadelphia

forces continual divisions or premature leukocytes

causes spill over into the blood
splenomegaly

can progress and accelerate in blast crisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Dx hallmark of CML

A

= leukocytosis w/ WBC 50K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

CM

A

Male to female ratio 1.4 to 1

Most frequently b/w ages 40 to 60, but may occur at any age

Symptoms related to hypermetabolism: (weight loss, anorexia, night sweats)

Splenomegaly is often present
Anemia
Bruising, epistaxis from platelet dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

BCR-ABL causes CML how

A

turns on tyrosine kinases and leads to build up of premature leukocytes

more to liver and spleen causing swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

lab dxs for CML

A

Lab work up

Increased WBC: usually >50K, usually see a complete spectrum of myeloid cells
Increased basophils
Normocytic anemia
Platelet may be increased, normal or decreased

Bone marrow is hypercellular
PH chromosome positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

tx of CML

A

” Tyrosine kinase inhibitors
“ Chemotherapy
“ Interferon
“ Stem cell transplant -

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

when would we use stem cell transplant for CML

A

in imatinib failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

how do you monitor for pt undergoing tx for CL

A

check CBC reguarly
6mo Bone marrow biopsy

then monitor every three moneths with peripheral blood PCR for BCR-Abl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

MC type of CLL and when do we see it

A

B cell Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

iv. Peak incidence age 60 to 80

MC in western world

32
Q

tx for CLL

A

Indolent disease, many patients never need chemotherapy

Treat if symptomatic: organomegaly, hemolysis, bone marrow suppression’
“ Chemotherapy (FCR Therapy - best frontline regimen

33
Q

specific dx for CLL

A

isolated lymphocytosis w/ leukocytosis > 20K

Smudge cells
34
Q

Uncommon B cell lymphoproliferative disorder With a higher prevalence in males

A

hairy cell leukemia

35
Q

CM of hairy cell leukemia

A

Peak incidence 40-60 years

Clinical presentation: infections, anemia or splenomegaly

Lymphadenopathy is very UNCOMMON

Pancytopenia is usual

36
Q

tx for Hairy cell

A

2 CDA or pentostatin

achieve response in >80% patients.

37
Q

tx for non-hodkins

A

R-CHOP therapy = MC regimen

38
Q

standard dx for lymphoma

A

biopsy of lymp nodes

39
Q

non-hodkin’s lym,phoma dx

A

Excisional Lymph node biopsy

CBC, CMP, LDH, Uric acid, Serum protein electrophoresis

CT, CXR for staging

Bone marrow biopsy

40
Q

most common non-hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

B cell lymphoma (lymph tumor) comprises 85% of cases

T cell and NK cell together comprises 15% of cases.

41
Q

sxs of non-hodgkin’s

A

Lymphadenopathy: Asymmetric painless enlargement of lymph nodes

Constitutional symptoms: fever, night sweats, weight loss. Oropharyngeal involvement in 5-10%

Infections

with extra-nodal involvement:

BO, anemia, weakness (spinal cord)

42
Q

reed-sternberg cell is associated with

A

non-hodgkin

43
Q

describe non-hodkin lymphoma

A

genetic mutation leads to lymphomas

can be nodal or extra-nodal

if extranodal can cause GI (MC) BO
cause pancytopenia in the bone marrow

or spinal cord compression

44
Q

MC form of NHL

A

indolent follicular lymphoma

mean survival is 10 years

45
Q

NHL associated with elevated IgM

A

Lymphoplasmacytoid lymphoma

46
Q

Second MC type of NHL

A

Diffuse large B cell lymphoma

this one is aggressive

47
Q
  1. R-EPOCH
A

high risk NHL treatment that requires hospitalization

48
Q

types of t cell NHL

A

Peripheral T cell lymphoma

Angiioimmunoblastic

lymphadenopathy

Mycosis fungoides- causes patches on the skin

Sezary syndrome

49
Q

when would you use radiation tx for NHL

A

consider for stage DLBCL

50
Q

sxs of HL

A

” Can present at any age: peak incidence in young adults
“ Mediastinal involvement in 6-11%
“ Constitutional symptoms can be prominent

51
Q

types of HL

A

nodular sclerosis
mixed cellularity
lymphocyte depleted, lymphocyte rich
Nodular lymphocyte predominant

52
Q

tx of HL

A

Treatment
“ Chemotherapy
“ Radiation
“ Both

Late effects of Hodgkin’s disease and treatment can include secondary lung cancer, myelodysplasia, cardiac disease.

53
Q

Multiple myeloma

A

Neoplastic proliferation characterized by plasma cell accumulation in the bone marrow, the presence of monoclonal protein in the serum and or urine and related tissue damage.

54
Q

B sxs with HL indicate

A

Systemic “B” symptoms (advanced disease)

(cytokines => Pel-Ebstein fever (cyclical fever
that increase & decrease over a period of 1-2 weeks, night sweats), weight loss, anemia, pruritus

55
Q

CM on early HL

A

firm, non-tender, freely mobile(especially supra clavicular, cervical
&mediastinal)
.Alcohol may induce lymph node pain.*
Hepatosplenomegaly.

56
Q

CD15+, CD30+.
“owl-eye appearance”

both characteristic of

A

HL

57
Q

Cancer associated with proliferation of a single clone of plasma cells*

A

multiple myeloma

increase in monoclonal Ab Especially IgG or IgA

58
Q

CM of multiple myeloma

A
Bone pain
Recurrent infx
Elevated Ca
Anemia
Kidney failure
59
Q

only heme malignancy associated with bone destruction

A

multiple myeloma

60
Q

dx of multiple myeloma

A
o	CBC → anemia and reouleaux formation 
o	Creatinine
o	↑ Calcium
o	****SPEP: monoclonal M protein spike
 UPEP
--> 	24 hr urine - Bence Jones Protein; Bone marrow biopsy
61
Q

what bone changes might we see in a pt with multiple myeloma

A

Skull Radiographs: “punched-out”Ivtic lesions. * Bone scans NOT helpful!

62
Q

tx of multiple myeloma

A

supportive
Autologous stem cell transplant definitive treatment.

tPreceded by chemotherapy ex.
Thalidomide or alkylating agents ex. Melphalan).

Bisphosphonates for bony destruction.

63
Q

Myeloproliferative disorder

A

Bone marrow disorder characterized by clonal proliferation of one or more hematopoietic components in the bone marrow.

64
Q

three types of myeloproliferative disorder

A
  1. Polycythemia Vera
  2. Essential thrombocynthemia
  3. myelofibrosis
65
Q

Polycythemia Vera

A

primarily seen as the increase in RBC

but also seen as increase in WBC and platelets

66
Q

Polycythemia sxs

A

Headache, pruritus, facial plethora, splenomegaly, HTN. Gout can be a result of elevated uric acid.

pruritus associated with hot bath

67
Q

tx of polycythemia

A

Phlebotomy to maintain hct <45

Hydrea can be used for patients who cannot tolerate phlebotomy, or has progressive splenomegaly, thrombocytosis.

Interferon is another option. It is less convenient than oral hydrea.

Median survival 10-16 years. Transition to myelofibrosis occurs in 30% pts, about 5% progresses to leukemia.

68
Q

hallmark of essential Thrombocynthemia

A

Sustained increase in platelet count

69
Q

what labs do we see with Thrombocynthemia

A

ii. Hematocrit is normal
iii. Half of patient has JAK-2 mutation

o JAK-2 mutation
o ↑ Megakaryocytes

70
Q

complications of Thrombocynthemia

A

iv. Clinical complications: thrombosis and hemorrhage

71
Q

erythormelagia, up to 40% has splenomegaly

A

polycythemia

72
Q

Polycythemia

A

o JAK2 mutation
o ↓ EPO

increased Hct in the absence of hypoxia

73
Q

sustained increase in platelet count is characteristic of this myeloproliferative disorder

A

essential thrombocytopenia

74
Q

what would you expect to see in the bone marrow of a pt with essential thrombocytopenia

A

bone marrow shows increase megakaryocytes

75
Q

excess production of RBCs is characteristics of which myeloproliferative

what age gorup do we normally see hthis in

A

polycythemia

50-60yr

median survival 10 years

76
Q

clinical sxs of polycythemia

A

HA, pruritis
faical plethora
HTN
gout as a result of elevated uric acird

77
Q

what would be the tx for a pt with myeloproliferative d/o

A

phlebotomoy to maintain <45 PO hdyrea can be used

thombocytosis indterferon alternative to hydrea