Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Oral Surgery IV > Management of Dentofacial Deformities > Flashcards

Management of Dentofacial Deformities Flashcards

(75 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

orthognathic surgery refers to the:

A

alignment of the jaws

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is orthognathic surgery

A

corrective jaw surgery and is used to correct both jaw and face deformities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the goal of orthognathic surgery

A
  • to normalize the relationship of the jaws to each other and to the rest of the craniofacial complex
  • correct dental malocclusion
  • improve overall facial harmony
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

why is it important to know about dentofacial deformities

A
  • DDS -> orthodontist -> oral and maxillofacial surgeon
  • early recognition of dental crowding, skeletal abnormalities and prompt referral
  • early referral is useful but it is critical that facial growth is complete prior to performing orthagnathic surgery
  • facilitates effective communication with patient and other specialists
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

skeletal surgery alone until:

A

1960s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

when was introduction of orthodontics

A

1960s-1970s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what was brought about in early 1980s

A
  • soft tissue considerations
  • soft tissue predictions
  • long term results
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the common indications for orthognathc surgery

A
  • dentofacial deformities
  • growth disturbances
  • malocclusion from skeletal disharmonies
  • orthodontic problems not amenable to orthodontic treatment alone (transverse maxillary deficiency)
  • obstructive sleep apnea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are the terms for dentofacial deformities of the maxilla

A
  • hypoplasia
  • hyperplasia
  • vertical maxillary excess
  • vertical maxillary deficiency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the terms for dentofacial deformities of the mandible

A
  • hypolasia: retrognathia
  • hyperplasia: prognathia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the terms for dentofacial deformities of the genial (chin)

A
  • hypoplasia
  • hyperplasia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is retrognathia

A

jaw retrusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is prognathia

A

jaw protrusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is apertognathia

A

anterior open bite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is micro/macrogenia

A

chin deformities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

describe prognathia

A
  • a skeletal protrusion
  • maxillary prognathism is present when the maxilla protrudes forward of the normal limits of the face
  • mandibular prognathism is present when the mandible protrudes forward of the normal limits of the face
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

describe retrognathia

A
  • a skeletal retrusion
  • maxillary retrognathia is present when the maxilla retrudes backward of the normal limits of the face
  • mandibular retrognathia is present when the mandible retrudes backwards of the normal limits of the face
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

maxillary retrognathism is commonly seen in patients with:

A

cleft lip and palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

anterior open bite is characterized by :

A

the premature occlusion of posterior teeth and the absence of anterior occlusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

vertical maxillary excess is also known as

A

gummy smile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

describe transverse maxillary deficiency

A
  • orthodontics alone cannot correct maxillary transverse discrepancies more than 5mm
  • more than 10mm trasnverse discrepancy - surgically assisted rapid palatal expansion (SARPE) prior to ortho
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is obstructive sleep apnea

A
  • during sleep gravity and muscle relaxation allows the tongue and surrounding soft tissues to fall back into the throat area obstructing air flow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

main goal of orthognathic surgery is:

A

to restore form and function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

correction of dento -facial deformities using combined ortho and surgical treatment can provide:

A

dramatic changes in both cosmetic and functional aspects of the face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
the key to a successful outcome is:
correct diagnosis of both dental and skeletal abnormalities
26
________ can often mask an underlying skeletal deformity
dental compensation
27
the ___________ to achieve the desired outcome if preferable
least surgery
28
who are the team members in orthognathic surgery
- general dentist - orthodontic - oral and maxillofacial surgeon
29
what is a part of treatment planning
- history - clincial exam - intra and extra oral - radiographic exam - orthodontic exam - malalignmentm teeth retroclined/proclined - photos: face and intraoral - cephalometric analysis - dental models and facebow - model surgery - pre surgical growth assessment
30
what is a part of the pre surgical growth assessment
- history - shoe size changes, secondary sex characteristics - hand/wrist films - serial lateral cephalograms - technetium bone scans to assess condylar activity
31
what is done in the extra oral exam
- TMJ: muscle tenderness, clicking, deviation - skeletal analysis: transverse (midlines, occlusal plane, arch widths, vertical (facial thirds, incisor show at rest and smile), anteroposterior (profile, overjet, chin evaluation
32
transverse analysis divided into _____ and used to _____-
1/5ths and used to evaluate horizontal balance
33
what do you determine in midline analysis
if maxillary midline and mandibular midline coincide
34
what do you evalaute in the incisal plane/occlusal plane
- parallel to interpupillary line - evaluate at sagittal perspective relative to frankfort horizontal plane
35
how much of the face should each 1/3rd be
- upper: 30% - middle: 35% - lower: 35%
36
what is in the antero posterior analysis
- divided into 1/3rds - evaluate the facial structures and cervical region - chin position - lip support - nasolabial angle
37
what is done in the dental exam
- oral hygiene - periodontal status - status of teeth - caries - compensation of teeth, alignment of teeth, rotation of tooth/teeth - overjet and overbite - assessment of occlusion- angle classification (canine and molar) - curves of spee and wilson - third molar
38
what is examined in orthodontic status
- mal alignment of teeth and dental compensation and angles classification
39
what is class I canine
mesial slope of upper canine coincides with the distal slope of lower canine
40
what is class II canine
- distal slope of upper canine coincides with the mesial slope of the lower canine
41
what is in the radiographic exam
- pano - ceph - PA cephalogram (facial assymetries) - CT scan (asymmetries, re- operation)
42
cephalometric analyses reveals:
the skeletal component of the patients malocclusion
43
what are the standard measurements of the lateral ceph
- cranial base (S-N) - frankfurt horizontal - SNA/SNB - mandibular plane angle - long axis of upper and lower incisors
44
what is the dental model analysis for
- must be mounted with a face bow transfer and bite in CR - provides valuable information regarding maxillary and mandibular relationships, occlusal steps, segmental osteotomies
45
after a detailed clinical, radiographic and study model assessment is performed then:
the appropriate orthodontic and surgical plan is finalized
46
it is important to understand the fact that __________ dictate the type of orthognathic surgery
soft tissue and skeletal relations along with the type of occlusion
47
what is the sequence of treatment for orthognathic surgery
- 12-18 month pre surgical orthodontic treatment - surgery (1-3 days in hospital) - 6 month postoperative orthodontic tx
48
what is the presurgical orthodontic treatment
- orthodontic component 12 to 18 months - level and align dental arches - orthodontic decompensationw
49
what is orthodontic decompensation for
- maximizes skeletal movements - this allows correction of not only occlusion but the entire facial profile
50
skeletal position dictates:
soft tissue position
51
treatment plan dictated by:
skeletal position primarily
52
treatment plan should predict _____ for best esthetic outcome
soft tissue position
53
describe virtual surgical planning
- planning steps include performing accurate osteotomies - after these are performed, accurate movements and cephalometric analyses can be performed to ensure that the movements are in line with normative data - soft tissue simulations can be done to show soft tissue changes - accurately fitting surgical splints are generated with high resolution occlusal data
54
what are the important considerations in surgery
- stability/relapse - blood supply
55
what is the most stable to least stable surgical ortho treatment
- maxilla up, mandible forward, chin any direction - maxilla forward, maxilla, asymmetry - max up and mand forward, max forward and mand back, mandible assymetry - mandible back, maxilla down, maxilla wider
56
what is one of the most common maxillary orthognathic surgical procedure
leFort I maxillary osteotomy
57
in lefort I maxilla can be segmentallized in how many pieces
2,3 or 4
58
what is le Fort I osteotomy for
to cut and separate the maxilla at the Le Fort I fracture lines
59
Le Fort I oseotomy can be used to:
- advance maxilla (maxillary retrognathia) - set back maxilla (maxillary prognathia) - correct maxillary occlusal canting or tilt - superiorly reposition maxilla (vertical maxillary excess) - inferiorly reposition maxilla (vertical maxillary deficiency)
60
what are the maxillary moves in Le Fort I
- up, down, left, right, back, forward - 2 piece - 3 piece - 4 piece
61
procedures of the mandible are classified according to:
the design of the osteotomy and the region where the surgery is undertaken
62
what are the mandibular procedures
- mandibular ramus osteotomy procedures - mandibular chin osteotomy procedures
63
what are the ramus procedures
- bilateral sagittal split ramus osteotomy - internal vertical ramus osteotomy
64
the most commonly performed mandibular osteotomy is: and why
the sagittal split osteotomy due primary to its simplicity and versatility
65
what are the indications for bilateral sagittal split ostetomy
- mandibular advancement - mandibular set back - mandibular rotation
66
what are the complications of bilateral sagittal split osteotomy
- IAN injury - 20-85% transient - undesirable split - condyle repositioning- can lead to condyle resoprtion
67
what are the rigid fixation alternatives after BSSRO
- positioning screw technique - straight or curved plate
68
what was the intra oral vertical ramus osteotomy made for
setback procedures and correction of mandibular asymmetries (rotation)
69
the intra oral vertical ramus osteotomy is performed by :
intra oral approach
70
what is a genioplasty
procedure used to alter the size and morphology of the bony chin with concomitant changes in the surrounding soft tissue
71
what are the types of genioplasty
- advancement genioplasty - reduction genioplasty - alloplastic augmentation (chin implant)
72
genioplasty can be with without:
orthodontics
73
a sliding osteotomy of the chin is used in cases of:
micro or macrogenia
74
what are the complications of genioplasty
- bleeding - nasal hemorrhage - neurosensory disturbance (V2 or V3) - infection - relapse - non/mal-union - hardware failure
75

Oral Surgery IV (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions