Management of Ischaemic Heart Disease Flashcards

(50 cards)

1
Q

What is the recommended daily intake of salt?

A

<6g (1tsp)

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2
Q

What is the recommended daily intake of added sugar?

A

<30g (includes sugar in fruit juices)

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3
Q

What is the weekly recommended amount of exercise?

A

150 mins moderate aerobic (e.g. brisk walking) + 2 strength training sessions

75mins vigorous aerobic (e.g. jogging) + 2 strength training sessions

30mins 5 days a week

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4
Q

What smoking cessation services are available?

A
Smoking cessation clinics 
Pharmacy 1:1 support
Support groups (on- and off-line)
Nicotine-replacement therapy (e.g. lozenges, patches, gum)
Champix
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5
Q

What are the recommendations regarding alcohol consumption?

A

No more than 14 units per week (roughly 6 pints of beer or 7 glasses of wine)
Spread over at least 3 days
With several alcohol-free days per week

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6
Q

How much of our overall daily energy intake should come from saturated fat?

A

<10%

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7
Q

How do you calculate BMI? What is a healthy BMI range? Over what BMI is classified obese?

A

Weight (kg) / height (meters squared)
18.5 - 24.9
>30 is obese

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8
Q

What score is used to grade the severity of stable angina?

A

Canadian Cardiovascular Society Angina Score
Class 1 - no limitation, pain only on very strenuous activity
Class 2 - slight limitation, pain on vigorous activity
Class 3 - moderate limitation, pain on normal activity
Class 4 - severe limitation, inability to conduct everyday activities without pain

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9
Q

What are the first investigations that should be conducted in a patient presenting with a history suspicious of stable angina?

A
ECG
Bloods:
- FBC (anaemia)
- TFT (thyrotoxicosis)
- Troponin (MI)
- Lipids (RF)
- HbA1c (RF)
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10
Q

In what 2 situations is a CT coronary angiogram indicated in patients presenting with a clinical features of stable angina?

A

1) If there is no established coronary artery disease/IHD

2) If PCI/CABG is being considered

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11
Q

Give 3 indications for exercise ECG

A

To confirm diagnosis of stable angina in cases of diagnostic uncertainty
Assessing extent/burden of disease in patients with known IHD
Pre-operative assessment in patients with known IHD

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12
Q

What is considered a positive result on exercise ECG?

A

> 2mm ST depression

with or without symptoms/T wave inversion

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13
Q

What two medications would you prescribe for an uncomplicated patient with a new diagnosis of stable angina?

A

Nitrates (usually GTN spray) +

Beta-blocker (bisoprolol/metoprolol)

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14
Q

If initial beta-blocker therapy fails to control symptoms, what 2 steps should be taken next?

A

1) Increase dose to max tolerate

2) Add Amlodipine or nifedipine

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15
Q

If beta-blockers are contra-indicated or not tolerated, what anti-anginal drug is given 2nd line?

A

Verapamil/diltiazem

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16
Q

What are the 3 third-line anti-anginal drugs that may be considered if patient cannot tolerate BB/CCB

A

Ivabradine
Nicorandil
Ranolazine

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17
Q

What is a common problem with nitrates and how is this overcome?

A

Pharmacological tolerance with prolonged use –> increased effective dose

Have 6-8hr ‘drug holidays’, best overnight

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18
Q

What are the 2 main indications for PCI in stable angina?

A
  • 2 vessel disease

- inadequate symptom control on maximum medical therapy

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19
Q

Does PCI improve survival in stable angina?

A

No

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20
Q

What medication should be given after PCI?

A

6m Clopidogrel/Ticagrelor + lifelong Aspirin

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21
Q

When is CABG indicated in stable angina? (3 indications)

A
  • 2 vessel disease
  • L main stem disease
  • Diabetes
22
Q

Does CABG improve survival in stable angina?

23
Q

What secondary prevention should be given to patients with established cardiovascular disease?

A
  • Aspirin 75mg
  • 80mg Atorvastatin
  • Lifestyle modification
  • Manage HTN and Diabetes
24
Q

Arrange these STEMI ECG features in order of appearance over time:
A) ST elevation + Q waves + inverted t waves
B) ST elevation, no q waves, normal t waves
C) Q waves + inverted t waves, no ST elevation,
D) Q waves, normal t waves, no ST elevation

A

1) B
2) A
3) C
4) D

25
What leads are involved in ANTERIOR STEMI? Which vessel is implicated?
V1-V4 | LAD
26
What leads are involved in INFERIOR STEMI? Which vessel is implicated?
II, III, aVF | RCA
27
What leads are involved in LATERAL STEMI? Which vessel is implicated?
I, aVL, V5, V6 | LCX
28
How long after symptom onset should hsTroponin be measured?
3hrs
29
How do you differentiate between unstable angina, NSTEMI and STEMI?
Unstable angina - no ST elevation + no rise in hsTroponin 3hrs after symptom onset NSTEMI - no ST elevation + rise in hsTroponin 3hrs after symptom onset STEMI - ST elevation + rise in hsTroponin 3hrs after symptom onset
30
What is the immediate management of ACS?
``` Morphine + anti-emetic Oxygen if sats <92% Aspirin 300mg Clopidogrel/Ticagrelor 75mg GTN spray Beta-blocker (metoprolol) ```
31
What is the acute medical management of NSTEMI/unstable angina?
Subcutaneous Fondaparinux or LMWH (e.g. enoxaparin) for 8 days or until angiography + GTN (or IV nitrate if LV failure)
32
What score is used to assess mortality risk in patients with NSTEMI/UA? How is it interpreted and acted upon?
GRACE score Moderate/high risk patients (>5% 30 day mortality) should have early (within 12hrs) angiography+/- angioplasty (+/- consider GPIIb/IIIa receptor antagonist e.g. Tirofiban)
33
What is the best management of a STEMI patient presenting >12hrs after symptom onset?
As for NSTEMI/UA SC Fondaparinux/LMWH + GTN Calculate GRACE score - angiography +/- angioplasty if moderate/high risk
34
What is the best management of a STEMI patient presenting within 12hrs of symptom onset, where PCI is available within 2hrs?
Immediate PCI | Consider GPIIb/IIIa receptor antagonist (e.g. Tirofiban)
35
What is the best management of a STEMI patient presenting within 12hrs of symptom onset, where PCI is not available within 2hrs?
Thrombolysis (if eligible) with IV Alteplase + Fondaparinux/LMWH PCI as soon as possible
36
What medication should a patient be discharged on after ACS
``` Beta-blocker ACEi Clopidogrel (for 6m) Aspirin Statin ```
37
After how long may a patient generally return to work after ACS?
2 months
38
Which medications improve survival after ACS?
Beta-blocker | ACEi
39
What are the 3 most common causes of LVF?
1) IHD 2) HTN 3) Mitral regurigtation/aortic stenosis
40
What are the 2 most common causes of RVF?
1) LVF | 2) Lung disease (cor pulmonale)
41
What are the most appropriate investigations for a patient presenting in acute heart failure?
Bloods ECG CXR Echo
42
What Criteria is used to diagnose CCF?
Framlington | 2 or more major criteria or 1 major + 2 minor criteria diagnoses CCF
43
What score is used to assess functional limitation in CCF?
New York Heart Association Class I - mild, no limitation of activity Class II - mild, ordinary activity --> symptoms, slight limitation of activity Class III - moderate, comfortable at rest, marked limitation of activity, mild activity --> symptoms Class IV - severe, symptoms at rest, unable to carry out any activity
44
What is the first-line medical management of CCF?
Loop diuretic (e.g. Furosemide) + ACEi (e.g. Ramipril) + Beta-blocker (e.g. Atenolol)
45
Which drugs improve survival in heart failure?
ACEi and beta-blockers
46
In what 2 scenarios is digoxin used to treat heart failure?
1) Failure of other medical management | 2) uncontrolled AF
47
What is the indication for CRT in heart failure?
HF + conduction delay (2nd or 3rd degree heart block
48
A patient on best medical therapy for heart failure has U&Es taken. Describe 3 abnormalities shown and the medications are most likely to be responsible Na+ 130 mmol/L (135 - 145) K+ 6.3 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0) Creatinine 153 mmol/L(55 - 120) Urea 7.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Hyponatraemia Hyperkalaemia AKI ACEi Furosemide Spironolactone
49
How would you manage hyperkalaemia, both acutely and then in longer term?
ACUTE - IV calcium gluconate + dextrose + insulin | LONG TERM = low K+ diet, reduce ACEi dose
50
How would you manage hyponatraemia?
Fluid restriction (1.5L)