Management of patients with oncologic disorders Flashcards

1
Q
  1. A nurse is teaching a client about the rationale for administering allopurinol with chemotherapy. Which example would be the best teaching by the nurse?
    a. It stimulates the immune system against the tumor cells.
    b. It treats drug-related anemia.
    c. It prevents alopecia.
    d. It lowers serum and uric acid levels.
A

d,

The use of allopurinol with chemotherapy is to prevent renal toxicity. tumor lysis syndrome occurrence can be reduced with allopurinol’s action of reducing the conversion of nucleic acid byproducts to uric acid, in this way preventing urate nephropathy and subsequent oliguric renal failure.

allopurinol does not stimulate the immune system, treat anemia, or prevent alopecia.

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2
Q

After cancer chemotherapy, a client experiences nausea and vomiting. the nurse should assign highest priority to which intervention?
a. serving small portions of bland food
b. encouraging rhythmic breathing exercises.
c. administering metoclopramide and dexamethasone as ordered.
d. withholding fluids for the first 4 to 6 hours after chemotherapy administration.

A

c.

the nurse should assign highest priority to administering an antiemetic, such as metoclopramide, and an anti-inflammatory agent, such as dexamethasone, because it may reduce the severity of chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. this intervention, in turn, helps prevent dehydration, a common complication of chemotherapy.

serving small portions of bland food, encouraging rhythmic breathing exercises, and withholding fluids for the first 4 to 6 hours are less likely to achieve this outcome.

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3
Q

which should a nurse thoroughly evaluate before a bone marrow transplant (BMT) procedure?
a. family history
b. drug history
c. blood studies
d. allergy history

A

c

before the BMT procedure, the nurse thoroughly evaluates the client’s physical condition; organ function; nutritional status; complete blood studies, including assessment for past exposure to antigens such as HIV, hepatitis, or cytomegalovirus; and psychosocial status.

before a BMT procedure, the nurse need not evaluate the client’s family, drug, or allergy history.

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4
Q

a nurse is caring for a client after a bone marrow transplant. what is the nurse priority in caring for the client?
a. monitor the client’s toilet patterns.
b. monitor the client to prevent sepsis.
c. monitor the client’s physical condition.
d. monitor the client’s heart rate.

A

b.

until transplanted bone marrows begins to produce blood cells, clients who have undergone a bone marrow transplant have no physiologic means to fight infection, which puts them at high risk for dying from sepsis and bleeding before engraftment. therefore, a nurse must closely monitor clients and take measures to prevent sepsis.

monitoring client’s toilet patterns, physical condition, and heart rate does not prevent the possibility of the client becoming septic.

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5
Q

the nurse is providing client teaching for a client undergoing chemotherapy. what dietary modifications should the nurse advise?
a. eat wholesome meals.
b. avoid spicy and fatty foods.
c. avoid intake of fluids.
d. eat warm or hot foods.

A

b.

the nurse advises a client undergoing chemotherapy to avoid hot and very cold liquids and spicy and fatty foods. the nurse also encourages the client to have small meals and appropriate fluid intake.

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6
Q

which oncologic emergency involves the accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space?
a. cardiac tamponade
b. disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
c. syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone release (SIADH)
d. tumor lysis syndrome

A

a.

cardiac tamponade is an accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space.

DIC is a complex disorder of coagulation and fibrinolysis that results in thrombosis and bleeding.
SIADH is a result of the failure in the negative feedback mechanism that normally regulates the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
Tumor lysis syndrome is a rapidly developing oncologic emergency that results from the rapid release of intracellular contents as a result of radiation- or chemotherapy-induced cell destruction of large or rapidly growing cancers such as leukemia.

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7
Q

A client is receiving external radiation to the left thorax to treat lung cancer. which intervention should be part of this client’s care plan?
a. avoiding using soap on the irradiated areas.
b. applying talcum powder to the irradiated areas daily after bathing.
c. wearing a lead apron during direct contact with the client.
d. removing thoracic skin markings after each radiation treatment.

A

a.

because external radiation commonly causes skin irritation, the nurse should wash the irradiated area with water only and leave the area open to air. no soaps, deodorants, lotions, or powders should be applied.

a lead apron is unnecessary because no radiation source is present in the client’s body or room. skin in the area to be irradiated is marked to position the radiation beam as precisely as possible; skin markings must not be removed.

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8
Q

the nurse is caring for an adult client who has developed a mild oral yeast infection following chemotherapy. what actions should the nurse encourage the client to perform? select all that apply.
a. use a lip lubricant.
b. scrub the tongue with a firm-bristled toothbrush.
c. use dental floss every 24 hours.
d. rinse the mouth with normal saline.
e. eat spicy food to aid in eradicating the yeast.

A

a, c, d

stomatitis is an inflammation of the oral cavity. the client should be encouraged to brush the teeth with a soft toothbrush after meals, use dental floss every 24 hours, rinse with normal saline, and use a lip lubricant.

mouthwashes and hot foods should be avoided.

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9
Q

which of the following would be inconsistent as a common side effect of chemotherapy?
a. weight gain.
b. alopecia.
c. myelosuppresion.
d. fatigue

A

a.

common side effects seen with chemotherapy include myelosuppression, alopecia, nausea and vomiting, anorexia, and fatigue.

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10
Q

the client is diagnosed with a benign brain tumor. which of the following features of a benign tumor is of most concern to the nurse?
a. random, rapid growth of the tumor.
b. cells colonizing to distant body parts.
c. tumor pressure against normal tissues.
d. emission of abnormal proteins.

A

c.

benign tumors grow more slowly than malignant tumors and do not emit tumor-specific antigens or proteins. benign tumors do not metastasize to distant sites. benign tumors can compress tissues as it grows, which can result in impaired organ functioning.

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11
Q

the nurse is invited to present a teaching program to parents of school-age children. which topic would be of greatest value for decreasing cancer risks?
a. pool and water safety.
b. breast and testicular self-exams.
c. hand washing and infection prevention.
d. sun safety and use of sunscreen.

A

d.

pool and water safety as well as infection prevention are important teaching topics but will not decrease cancer risk. while performing breast and testicular self-exams may identify cancers in the early stage, this teaching is not usually initiated in school-age children. severe sunburns that occur in young children can place the child at risk for skin cancers later in life. because children spend much time out of doors, the use of sunscreen and protective clothing/hats can protect the skin and decrease the risk.

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12
Q

a nurse has been working in hospice care for 10 years. based on her experience, she drafts her plan of care with the understanding that the most significant barrier to improving care at the end of life is the:
a. Attitude of health care professionals toward terminal illness.
b, Lack of social support systems for the dying patient.
c. Fear of over-medicating the patient when pain is severe.
d. Patient’s resistance to accepting care.

A

a.

Clinicians’ attitudes toward the terminally ill and dying remain the greatest barrier to improving care at the end of life. Clinicians’ reluctance to discuss disease and death openly with patients stems from their own anxieties about death, as well as misconceptions about what and how much patients want to know about their illnesses.

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13
Q

A hospice nurse is visiting the home of a client who was recently diagnosed with a terminal illness. The nurse is developing the client’s plan of care and is assessing beliefs and preferences about end-of-life care. The nurse would expect to complete this assessment at which time?

a. Over the course of several visits
b. During the initial visit
c, As the client’s condition begins to deteriorate
d. When the client exhibits signs of imminent death

A

a

Information about end-of-life care beliefs, preferences, and practices should be gathered in short segments over a period of time, such as over several visits. Trying to elicit the information in one visit would be overwhelming. Waiting until the client’s condition begins to deteriorate or when signs of imminent death appear would be too late. The nurse needs to integrate the client’s beliefs, preferences, and practices into the plan of care.

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14
Q

The nurse is preparing a teaching tool about hospice and palliative care. Which characteristics would the nurse highlight as being a part of both care approaches? Select all that apply.

a. Goals are to relieve pain

b. Include curative treatment

c. Actions are to increase comfort

d. Desire to improve the quality of life

e. Used for those not expected to live for 6 months

A

a, c, d

Hospice and palliative care have much in common. Both are for people with serious illnesses. Both follow treatment goals that aim to relieve pain, increase comfort, and improve quality of life for the client and family. Hospice care focuses on the same goals as palliative care except hospice excludes curative treatment and is used for those who are not expected to live longer than 6 months.

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15
Q

A hospice nurse is caring for a young adult client with a terminal diagnosis of leukemia. When updating this client’s plan of nursing care, what should the nurse prioritize?

a. Interventions aimed at maximizing quantity of life
b. Providing financial advice to pay for care
c. Providing realistic emotional preparation for death
d. Making suggestions to maximize family social interactions after the client’s death

A

c

Hospice care focuses on quality of life, but, by necessity, it usually includes realistic emotional, social, spiritual, and financial preparation for death. Financial advice and actions aimed at post-death interaction would not be appropriate priorities.

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16
Q

A client is in a hospice receiving palliative care for lung cancer which has metastasized to the client’s liver and bones. For the past several hours, the client has been experiencing dyspnea. What nursing action is most appropriate?

a. Administer a bolus of normal saline, as prescribed.
b. Initiate high-flow oxygen therapy.
c, Administer high doses of opioids.
d. Administer bronchodilators and corticosteroids, as prescribed.

A

d

Bronchodilators and corticosteroids help to improve lung function, as do low doses of opioids.

Low-flow oxygen often provides psychological comfort to the client and family. A fluid bolus is unlikely to be of benefit.

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17
Q

A nurse is providing hospice care in Portland, Oregon to a client with terminal liver cancer. The client confides to the nurse, “I’m in agony all the time. I want this to be over now—please help me.” Which interventions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

a. Control the client’s pain with prescribed medication.
b. Advise the client’s health care provider of the client’s condition.
c. Comfort the client by saying it will all be over soon.
d, Encourage the client to explain his or her wishes.
e. Recommend that the client consider physician-assisted suicide.

A

a, b, d

This client lives in Oregon, one of five states that have decriminalized physician-assisted suicide, the practice of providing a means by which a client can end his or her own life. This practice is controversial, with proponents arguing the client has a right to self-determination and a relief from suffering when there is no other means of palliation. Opponents, on the other hand, find it contrary to the Hippocratic Oath. In this scenario, the nurse should determine exactly what the client is asking and then support his or her wishes. It is not the nurse’s role to suggest physician-assisted suicide voluntarily, however.

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18
Q

A client’s rapid cancer metastases have prompted a shift from active treatment to palliative care. When planning this client’s care, the nurse should identify what primary aim?

a. To prioritize emotional needs
b. To prevent and relieve suffering
c. To bridge between curative care and hospice care
d. To provide care while there is still hope

A

b

Palliative care, which is conceptually broader than hospice care, is both an approach to care and a structured system for care delivery that aims to prevent and relieve suffering and to support the best possible quality of life for clients and their families, regardless of the stage of the disease or the need for other therapies. Palliative care goes beyond simple prioritization of emotional needs; these are always considered and addressed. Palliative care is considered a “bridge,” but it is not limited to just hospice care. Hope is something clients and families have even while the client is actively dying.

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19
Q

The spouse of a terminally ill client is confused by the new terminology being used during discussions regarding the client’s treatment. The nurse should explain that palliative care is:

a. care that will reduce the client’s physical discomfort and manage clinical symptoms.
b. care that is provided at the very end of an illness to hasten the dying process.
c. an alternative therapy that uses massage and progressive relaxation for pain relief.
d. offered to terminally ill clients instead of hospice care.

A

a

Palliative care is used in conjunction with other end-of-life treatments and has many principles. Its aim is to reduce physical discomfort and other distressing symptoms but it does not hasten or delay a disease’s progression. Palliative care is applicable early in the course of illness, in conjunction with other therapies. Palliative care of a terminally ill client not only provides relief from pain and other distressing symptoms but it integrates other facets of patient care as well, including psychological and spiritual aspects. Palliative care is part of hospice care.

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20
Q

The nurse is describing palliative care and hospice services to a client with end-stage congestive heart failure. The client and family have many questions about the differences between palliative care and hospice. Which statement should the nurse provide the family?

a. “Hospice is the application of palliative care at the end of life.”
b. “Palliative care requires hospitalization.”
c. “Hospice occurs in a facility with specially trained staff.”
d. “Curative care can continue in hospice.”

A

a

Palliative care focuses on symptom management and quality of life in clients with serious symptoms and life-limiting diseases. Hospice is a type of palliative care that focuses on comfort at the end of life. Palliative care can take place in a number of settings; it does not need to take place in the inpatient hospital setting. Hospice care may also occur in a variety of settings, or it can take place in a client’s home without the need for a special facility. The client in hospice care is no longer receiving curative treatment.

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21
Q

Which of the following is the most effective intravesical agent for recurrent bladder cancer?

a. Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG)
b. Methotrexate
c. Cisplatin
d. Vinblastine

A

a

BCG is now considered the most effective intravesical agent for recurrent bladder cancer, especially superficial transitional cell carcinoma, because it is an immunotherapeutic agent that enhances the body’s immune response to cancer.

Chemotherapy with a combination of methotrexate, 5-FU, vinblastine, doxorubicin (Adriamycin), and cisplatin has been effective in producing partial remission of transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder in some patients.

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22
Q

The nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client who was admitted to the oncology unit due to dehydration and anorexia after chemotherapy treatment. What information should the nurse provide to the client to promote improve the client’s nutritional intake at home?

a. Take prescribed pain medication prior to commencing a meal
b. Avoid any oral care prior to eating
c, Eat uninterrupted by others to eliminate distractions
d. Prepare the eating area with a pleasant room spray

A

a

The client needs to be clean, comfortable, and free of pain for meals, in an environment that is as attractive as possible. Ensuring adequate pain relief in advance of commencing a meal will make the experience more pleasant and tolerable. Pain is correlated with lack of appetite. Oral hygiene before meals helps to improve appetite. Offensive sights, sounds, and odors are eliminated. Creative strategies may be required to make food more palatable, provide enough fluids, and increase opportunities for socialization during meals.

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23
Q

A patient is receiving chemotherapy for breast cancer. Her most recent laboratory test results are as follows:

Erythrocytes 4,500,000/cu mm
Hemoglobin 12.0 gm/dL
Hematocrit 35%
Leukocytes 4,600 gm/dL
Thrombocytes 125,000/cu mm

Which results suggests some evidence of bone marrow suppression?

a. Erythrocyte count
b. Hemoglobin level
c. Leukocyte count
d. Thrombocyte count

A

d

The thrombocyte count is below 150,000/cu mm, indicating thrombocytopenia and bone marrow suppression.

The erythrocyte count, hemoglobin, hematocrit, and leukocyte count are within normal limits.

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24
Q

A client has learned of a terminal illness and impending death. The client asks the nurse to explain the concepts and care that are provided under the definition of palliative care. Which of the following would the nurse include in the explanation for this client? Select all that apply.

a. Provides pain relief
b. Includes chemotherapy
c. Integrates spirituality
d. Hastens death
e. Offers a team approach to care
f. Enhances quality of life

A

a, c, e, f

The principles of palliative care include providing relief from pain and distressing symptoms. In the early course of disease, chemotherapy and radiation may be used to define care needed, but in the later stages, chemotherapy is typically not used. Psychological support including spirituality and bereavement counseling for family members is available. The care does not hasten nor postpone death but is aimed at enhancing a quality of the life that is remaining. A team approach meets the needs of the client and family.

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25
Q

The home health nurse is performing a home visit for an oncology client discharged three days ago after completing chemotherapy treatment for non-Hodgkin lymphoma. The nurse’s priority assessment should include examination for the signs and symptoms of which complication?

a. Tumor lysis syndrome (TLS)
b, Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
c. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
d. Hypercalcemia

A

a

TLS is a potentially fatal complication that occurs spontaneously or more commonly following radiation, biotherapy, or chemotherapy-induced cell destruction of large or rapidly growing cancers such as leukemia, lymphoma, and small-cell lung cancer.

DIC, SIADH, and hypercalcemia are less likely complications following this treatment and diagnosis.

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26
Q

Which diagnostic imaging modality is more accurate than computed tomography in detecting malignancies?

a. PET
b. Gallium scan
c. MRI
d. Pulmonary angiography

A

a

PET is more accurate in detecting malignancies than CT, and it has equivalent accuracy in detecting malignant nodules when compared with invasive procedures such as thoracoscopy.

A gallium scan is used to stage bronchogenic cancer and document tumor regression after chemotherapy or radiation.
MRI is used to characterize pulmonary nodules, to help stage bronchogenic carcinoma, and to evaluate inflammatory activity in interstitial lung disease.
Pulmonary angiography is used to investigate thromboembolic disease of the lungs.

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27
Q

Resection of a client’s bladder tumor has been incomplete and the client is preparing for the administration of the first ordered instillation of topical chemotherapy. When preparing the client, the nurse should emphasize the need to do which of the following?

a. Remain NPO for 12 hours prior to the treatment.
b. Hold the solution in the bladder for 2 hours before voiding.
c. Drink the intravesical solution quickly and on an empty stomach.
d. Avoid acidic foods and beverages until the full cycle of treatment is complete.

A

b

The client is allowed to eat and drink before the instillation procedure. Once the bladder is full, the client must retain the intravesical solution for 2 hours before voiding. The solution is instilled through the meatus; it is not consumed orally. There is no need to avoid acidic foods and beverages during treatment.

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28
Q

A nurse is administering a peripheral chemotherapeutic agent. What nursing actions are used for extravasation of a chemotherapeutic agent? Select all that apply.

a. Stop the medication infusion at the first sign of extravasation
b. Aspirate any residual drug from the IV line
c. Administer an antidote, if indicated
d. Apply warm compresses to the irritated site to encourage healing
e. Schedule the client for implanted device

A

a, b, c,

All of the answers except application of a warm compress are appropriate nursing actions. The application of warmth would be contraindicated because it would cause vasodilation, which would increase the absorption of irritant into the local tissues. Short term chemotherapy can be done with peripheral catheters so the client may not need an implanted device.

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29
Q

The nurse is caring for a client on chemotherapy who is recovering from surgery for oral cancer. Which interventions will the nurse add to this client’s plan of care? Select all that apply.

a. Prevent infection

b. Maintain a patent airway

c. Ensure adequate nutritional intake

d. Provide a mechanism to communicate

e. Prevent the development of stomatitis

A

all choices are correct.

Cancers of the oral cavity and pharynx, which can occur in any part of the mouth or throat, are curable if discovered early. After surgery to excise the pathology, care should be focused on preventing the development of an infection of the surgical site. Postoperatively, the priority for the nurse is assessing for and maintaining a patent airway. Determination of nutritional intake goals requires consideration of the client’s weight, age, and level of activity. A daily calorie count may be necessary to determine the exact quantity of food and fluid ingested. It is vital to assess the client’s ability to communicate in writing before surgery. Pen and paper are provided postoperatively to clients who can use them to communicate. A communication board with commonly used words or pictures is obtained preoperatively and given after surgery to clients who cannot write so that they may point to needed items. Interventions should include actions to prevent the development of stomatitis, which can result from chemotherapy and radiation treatment.

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30
Q

A client has been receiving chemotherapy. Upon assessing the client during morning rounds, the nurse notes the client is now bleeding from intravenous and venipuncture sites. Stool is positive for occult blood. The client is requesting to sit in a chair for a meal. The nurse implements the following interventions: (Select all that apply.)

a. Monitor vital signs once a shift.
b. Assess level of consciousness.
c. Assist the client to a chair.
d, Apply pressure to the bleeding sites.
e. Check intake and output records.

A

b, d, e

The client may be experiencing disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) following the cancer experience and chemotherapy treatment. When the nurse notes the client is experiencing unexpected and abnormal bleeding, the nurse will assess level of consciousness (the client can be bleeding in the brain) and intake and output records (the client may experience decreased urinary output as a result of poor renal perfusion). The nurse applies pressure to venipuncture sites to decrease bleeding. The nurse will assess vital signs more frequently than once a shift. The nurse minimizes client activities to decrease risk for injury.

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31
Q

The client has finished the first round of chemotherapy. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further teaching by the nurse?

a. “I will eat clear liquids for the next 24 hours.”
b. “Hair loss may not occur until after the second round of therapy.”
c. “I will use birth control measures until after all treatment is completed.”
d. “I can continue taking my vitamins and herbs because they make me feel better.”

A

d

Herbal products are not regulated by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA);although some can decrease the risk of cancer, others can have serious side effects and liver toxicity. Use of vitamins and herbals should be reviewed with the oncologist.

Use of clear liquids is recommended for the client experiencing nausea and vomiting. Because hair follicles are sensitive to chemotherapy drugs, it is likely for alopecia to occur especially with consecutive treatments. Chemotherapy includes cytotoxic drugs that are harmful to rapid dividing cells such as cell development in the fetus. To prevent damage to the fetus, birth control is recommended during treatment.

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32
Q

A patient with an advanced laryngeal tumor is to have radiation therapy. The patient tells the nurse, “If I am going to have radiation, I won’t need surgery.” What is the best response by the nurse?

a. “That is correct. The radiation will eradicate the tumor and you won’t have to have further treatment.”
b. “Radiation is used to shrink the tumor size and is an adjunct to surgery.”
c. “All patients have to have radiation before they have surgery. It is protocol.”
d. “You really don’t have to have radiation but you won’t have to have such invasive surgery if you have the radiation first.”

A

b

Radiation therapy may also be used preoperatively to reduce the tumor size. Radiation therapy is combined with surgery in advanced laryngeal cancer as adjunctive therapy to surgery or chemotherapy and as a palliative measure.

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33
Q

The client is experiencing painful oral lesions following radiation for oropharyngeal cancer. Which instruction should the nurse give this client?

a. Spicy foods stimulate salivation and are soothing.
b. Eat food while it is hot to enhance flavor.
c. Avoid brushing teeth while lesions are present.
d. Eat soft or liquid foods.

A

d

Since oral lesions can be painful, a soft or liquid diet may be preferred and easier to ingest. Other strategies to reduce pain and discomfort include avoiding spicy and hot foods. The client should continue with mouth care and brushing teeth with a soft toothbrush to keep the oral cavity clean.

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33
Q

The clinic nurse is caring for an adult oncology client who reports extreme fatigue and weakness after the first week of radiation therapy. Which response by the nurse would best reassure this client?

a. “These symptoms usually result from radiation therapy; however, we will continue to monitor your laboratory studies and test results.”
b. “These symptoms are part of your disease and are an unfortunately inevitable part of living with cancer.”
c. “Try not to be concerned about these symptoms. Every client feels this way after having radiation therapy.”
d. “Even though it is uncomfortable, this is a good sign. It means that only the cancer cells are dying.”

A

a

Fatigue and weakness result from radiation treatment and usually do not represent deterioration or disease progression. The symptoms associated with radiation therapy usually decrease after therapy ends. The symptoms may concern the client and should not be belittled. Radiation destroys both cancerous and normal cells.

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34
Q

A client diagnosed with prostate cancer is to receive brachytherapy. Which of the following would the nurse include when discussing this therapy with the client?

a. Need for daily treatments over a 7- to 8-week period
b. Use of radioactive seeds implanted into the prostate
c. Surgical castration to decrease the level of circulating testosterone
d. Use of probes inserted using ultrasound to freeze the tissue

A

b

Brachytherapy involves the implantation of interstitial radioactive seeds under anesthesia.
External beam radiation therapy (teletherapy) involves the use of radiation treatments, usually 5 days/week over 7 to 8 weeks.
Surgical castration is a type of androgen-deprivation therapy.
Cryosurgery involves the insertion of transperineal probes into the prostate to freeze the tissue directly.

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35
Q

A nurse is receiving a client with a radioactive implant for the treatment of cervical cancer. What is the nurse’s best action?

a. Place the client in a private room.
b. Place a chair next to the bed to allow the spouse to sit.
c. Have visitors wear dosimeters for safety.
d. Allow visitors to telephone only.

A

a

Safety precautions are used for the client with a radioactive implant. They include assigning the client to a private room, seeing that visitors maintain a 6-foot distance from the radiation source, prohibiting visits by children, and preventing exposure to those who may be or are pregnant. Staff needs to wear dosimeters. Family may visit for up to 30 minutes per day.

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36
Q

Which treatment involves implantation of interstitial radioactive seeds under anesthesia to treat prostate cancer?

a. Hormone therapy
b. Brachytherapy
c. Teletherapy
d. Chemotherapy

A

b

Brachytherapy involves the implantation of interstitial radioactive seeds under anesthesia.

Hormone therapy for advanced prostate cancer suppresses androgenic stimuli to the prostate by decreasing the level of circulating plasma testosterone or interrupting the conversion to or binding of DHT. (Leuprolide and goserelin)
Teletherapy involves 6 to 7 weeks of daily radiation treatments.
High-dose ketoconazole (HDK) lowers testosterone through its abilities to decrease both testicular and endocrine production of androgen.

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37
Q

A client with a brain tumor is undergoing radiation and chemotherapy for treatment of cancer. The client has recently reported swelling in the gums, tongue, and lips. Which is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

a. Neutropenia
b. Extravasation
c. Nadir
d. Stomatitis

A

d

The symptoms of swelling in gums, tongue, and lips indicate stomatitis. This usually occurs 5 to 10 days after the administration of certain chemotherapeutic agents or radiation therapy to the head and neck. Chemotherapy and radiation produce chemical toxins that lead to the breakdown of cells in the mucosa of the epithelium, connective tissue, and blood vessels in the oral cavity.

38
Q

Which statement by a client undergoing external radiation therapy indicates the need for further teaching?

a. “I’ll wash my skin with mild soap and water only.”
b. “I’ll not use my heating pad during my treatment.”
c. “I’ll wear protective clothing when outside.”
d. “I’m worried I’ll expose my family members to radiation.”

A

d

The client undergoing external radiation therapy requires further teaching when he voices a concern that he might expose his family to radiation. Internal radiation, not external radiation, poses a risk to the client’s family.

The client requires no further teaching if he states that he should wash his skin with mild soap and water, wear protective clothing when outside, and avoid using a heating pad.

39
Q

When caring for an older client who is receiving external beam radiation, which is the key point for the nurse to incorporate into the plan of care?

a. Time, distance, and shielding
b. The use of disposable utensils and wash cloths
c. Avoid showering or washing over skin markings.
d. Inspect the skin frequently.

A

d

Inspecting the skin frequently will allow early identification and intervention of skin problems associated with external radiation therapy.

The external markings should not be removed, but clients may shower and lightly wash over the skin. Time, distance, and shielding are key in the management of sealed, internal radiation therapy and not external beam radiation. The use of disposable utensils and care items would be important when caring for clients following systemic, unsealed, internal radiation therapy.

40
Q

While admitting an oncology client to the unit prior to surgery, the nurse notes in the electronic health record that they have recently finished radiation therapy. With knowledge of the consequent health risks, the nurse should prioritize assessments related to what health problem?

a. Cognitive deficits
b. Impaired wound healing
c. Cardiac tamponade
d. Tumor lysis syndrome

A

b

Combining other treatment methods, such as radiation and chemotherapy, with surgery contributes to postoperative complications, such as infection, impaired wound healing, altered pulmonary or renal function, and the development of deep vein thrombosis.

41
Q

A nurse is performing a home visit for a client who received chemotherapy within the past 24 hours. The nurse observes a small child playing in the bathroom, where the toilet lid has been left up. Based on these observations, the nurse modifies the client’s teaching plan to include:

a. signs and symptoms of infection.
b. chemotherapy exposure and risk factors.
c. reinforcement of the client’s medication regimen.
d. expected chemotherapy-related adverse effects.

A

b

The raised toilet lid exposes the child playing in the bathroom to the risk of inhaling or ingesting chemotherapy agents. The nurse should modify her teaching plan to include content related to chemotherapy exposure and its associated risk factors.

Because the client has received chemotherapy, the plan should already include information about expected adverse effects, signs and symptoms of infection, and reinforcement of the medication regimen.

42
Q

A patient is taking vincristine, a plant alkaloid for the treatment of cancer. What system should the nurse be sure to assess for symptoms of toxicity?

a. Pulmonary system
b. Gastrointestinal system
c. Nervous system
d. Urinary system

A

c

neurotoxicity = loss of tendon reflex
Vincristine = antimicrotubule
ascending peripheral neuropathy, phlebitis, SIADH, constipation, hyperuricemia.

With repeated doses, the taxanes and plant alkaloids, especially vincristine, can cause cumulative peripheral nervous system damage with sensory alterations in the feet and hands.

43
Q

A nurse is administering daunorubicin through a peripheral I.V. line when the client complains of burning at the insertion site. The nurse notes no blood return from the catheter and redness at the I.V. site. The client is most likely experiencing which complication?

a. Erythema
b. Thrombosis
c. Flare
d. Extravasation

A

d

daunorubicin: cardiomyopathy, red urine, phlebitis

The client is exhibiting signs of extravasation, which occurs when the medication leaks into the surrounding tissues and causes swelling, burning, or pain at the injection site.

44
Q

After cancer chemotherapy, a client experiences nausea and vomiting. The nurse should assign highest priority to which intervention?

a. Administering metoclopramide and dexamethasone as ordered
b. Serving small portions of bland food
c. Withholding fluids for the first 4 to 6 hours after chemotherapy administration
d. Encouraging rhythmic breathing exercises

A

a

The nurse should assign highest priority to administering an antiemetic, such as metoclopramide, and an anti-inflammatory agent, such as dexamethasone, because it may reduce the severity of chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. This intervention, in turn, helps prevent dehydration, a common complication of chemotherapy.

45
Q

The client is receiving a vesicant antineoplastic for treatment of cancer. Which assessment finding would require the nurse to take immediate action?

a. Extravasation
b. Bone pain
c. Stomatitis
d. Nausea and vomiting

A

a

The nurse needs to monitor IV administration of antineoplastics (especially vesicants) to prevent tissue necrosis to blood vessels, skin, muscles, and nerves.

Stomatitis, nausea/vomiting, and bone pain can be symptoms of the disease process or treatment mode but does not require immediate action.

46
Q

A nurse is administering daunorubicin (DaunoXome) to a patient with lung cancer. Which situation requires immediate intervention?

a. The I.V. site is red and swollen.
b. The client states he is nauseous.
c. The client begins to shiver.
d. The laboratory reports a white blood cell (WBC) count of 1,000/mm3.

A

a

extravasation need immediate intervention.
nausea = antiemetic
shiver and low WBC= possible side effects of myelosuppression (infection, anemia, bleeding). for low WBC use neupogen (filgrastim)

A red, swollen I.V. site indicates possible infiltration. Daunorubicin is a vesicant chemotherapeutic agent and can be very damaging to tissue if it infiltrates. The nurse should immediately stop the medication, apply ice to the site, and notify the physician. Although nausea, WBC count of 1,000/mm3, and shivering require interventions, these findings aren’t a high priority at this time.

47
Q

An oncology nurse is caring for a client who relates that certain tastes have changed. The client states that “meat tastes bad.” What nursing intervention can be used to increase protein intake for a client with taste changes?

a. Stay away from protein beverages.
b. Suck on hard candy during treatment.
c. Encourage eating cheese, eggs, and legumes
d. Encourage maximum fluid intake.

A

c

The nurse encourages the clients with taste changes to eat cheese, eggs, and legumes.

48
Q

A patient is admitted for an excisional biopsy of a breast lesion. What intervention should the nurse provide for the care of this patient?

a. Provide aseptic care to the incision postoperatively.
b. Provide time for the patient to discuss her concerns.
c. Counsel the patient about the possibility of losing her breast.
d. Clarify information provided by the physician.

A

b

Patients who are undergoing surgery for the diagnosis or treatment of cancer may be anxious about the surgical procedure, possible findings, postoperative limitations, changes in normal body functions, and prognosis. The patient and family require time and assistance to process the possible changes and outcomes resulting from the surgery. The nurse serves as the patient advocate and liaison and encourages the patient and family to take an active role in decision making when possible. If the patient or family asks about the results of diagnostic testing and surgical procedures, the nurse’s response is guided by the information that was conveyed previously. The nurse may be asked to explain and clarify information for patients and families that was provided initially but was not grasped because of anxiety and overwhelming feelings. It is important that the nurse, as well as other members of the health care team, provide information that is consistent from one clinician to another.

49
Q

The nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for chemotherapy. Which is the best statement the nurse can make about the client experiencing chemotherapy-induced alopecia?

a. “New hair growth will return without any change to color or texture.”
b. “Wigs can be used after the chemotherapy is completed.”
c. “The hair loss is usually temporary.”
d. “Clients with alopecia will have delay in grey hair.”

A

c
Alopecia associated with chemotherapy is usually temporary and will return after the therapy is completed. New hair growth may return unchanged, but there is no guarantee and color, texture, and quality of hair may be changed. There is no correlation between chemotherapy and delay in greying of hair. Use of wigs, scarves, and head coverings can be used by clients at any time during treatment plan.

50
Q

Which type of hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) is characterized by cells from a donor other than the patient?

a. Autologous
b. Syngeneic
c. Homogenic
d. Allogeneic

A

d

If the source of donor cells is from a donor other than the patient, it is termed allogeneic.
Autologous donor cells come from the patient.
Syngeneic donor cells are from an identical twin.
Homogenic is not a type of stem cell transplant.

51
Q

Following surgery for adenocarcinoma, the client learns the tumor stage is T3,N1,M0. What treatment mode should the nurse anticipate?

a. No further treatment is indicated.
b. Repeat biopsy is needed before treatment begins.
c. Adjuvant therapy is likely.
d. Palliative care is likely.

A

c

T3 indicates a large tumor size, with N1 indicating regional lymph node involvement so treatment is needed. A T3 tumor must have its size reduced with adjuncts like chemotherapy and radiation. Although M0 suggest no metastasis, following with adjuvant (chemotherapy or radiation therapy) treatment is indicated to prevent the spread of cancer outside the lymph to other organs. The tumor stage IV wound be indicative of palliative care. A repeated biopsy is not needed until after treatment is completed.

52
Q

The root cause of cancer is damage to cellular deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) which can be caused by many factors, or carcinogens. What factors can be carcinogenic? Select all that apply.

a. age
b. environmental factors
c. viruses
d. gender
e. dietary substances

A

b. c. e

Carcinogens include chemical agents, environmental factors, dietary substances, viruses, lifestyle factors, and medically prescribed interventions.
Although age and gender may increase a person’s risk for developing certain types of cancer, they are not carcinogens in and of themselves.

53
Q

5-Fluorouracil (5FU) is classified as which type of antineoplastic agent?

a. Alkylating
b. Mitotic spindle poisons
c. Antimetabolite
d. Nitrosoureas

A

c

side effects: diarrhea, cardiotoxicity, maculopapular rash, phlebitis, photosensitivity, embolism.

5-FU is an antimetabolite. An example of an alkylating agent is nitrogen mustard. A nitrosourea is streptozocin. A mitotic spindle poison is vincristine (VCR).

54
Q

Which does a nurse thoroughly evaluate before a hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT) procedure?

a. Allergy history
b, Family history
c. Blood studies
d. Drug history

A

c

Before the HSCT procedure, the nurse thoroughly evaluates the client’s physical condition; organ function; nutritional status; complete blood studies, including assessment for past exposure to antigens such as HIV, hepatitis, or cytomegalovirus; and psychosocial status. Before an HSCT procedure, the nurse need not evaluate client’s family, drug, or allergy history.

55
Q

A client is recovering from a craniotomy with tumor debulking. Which comment by the client indicates to the nurse a correct understanding of what the surgery entailed?

a. “I will be glad to finally be done with treatments for this thing.”
b. “I guess the doctor could not remove the entire tumor.”
c. “I am so glad the doctor was able to remove the entire tumor.”
d. “Thank goodness the tumor is contained and curable.”

A

b

Debulking is a reference made when a tumor cannot be completely removed, often due to its extension far into healthy tissue. Without complete removal, this is not a cure and, the cancer cells will continue to replicate and require adjuvant therapies to prevent further invasion. The physician, not the nurse, will need to clarify the details of the surgery.

56
Q

The oncology nurse is giving chemotherapy to a client in a short stay area. The client confides that they are very depressed. The nurse recognizes depression as which of the following?

a. An aberrant psychologic reaction to the chemotherapy.
b. A psychiatric diagnosis everyone has at one time or another.
c. A normal reaction to the diagnosis of cancer.
d. A side effect of the neoplastic drugs.

A

c

Clients have many reactions, ranging from anxiety, fear, and depression to feelings of guilt related to viewing cancer as a punishment for past actions or failure to practice a healthy lifestyle. They also may express anger related to the diagnosis and their inability to be in control. While depression is understandable, it also needs to be acknowledged and treated if necessary. Depression is not a side effect of the neoplastic drugs nor is it an aberrant psychologic reaction to the chemotherapy.

57
Q

For a client newly diagnosed with radiation-induced thrombocytopenia, the nurse should include which intervention in the care plan?

a. Administering aspirin if the temperature exceeds 102° F (38.8° C)
b. Inspecting the skin for petechiae once every shift
c. Providing for frequent rest periods
d. Placing the client in strict isolation

A

b

Because thrombocytopenia impairs blood clotting, the nurse should inspect the client regularly for signs of bleeding, such as petechiae, purpura, epistaxis, and bleeding gums. The nurse should avoid administering aspirin because it may increase the risk of bleeding.

58
Q

A client with cancer is being evaluated for possible metastasis. What is one of the most common metastasis sites for cancer cells?

a. Liver
b. White blood cells (WBCs)
c. Reproductive tract
d. Colon

A

a

The liver is one of the five most common cancer metastasis sites. The others are the lymph nodes, lung, bone, and brain. The colon, reproductive tract, and WBCs are occasional metastasis sites.

59
Q

The nurse is caring for a client is scheduled for chemotherapy followed by autologous stem cell transplant. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

a. “I will receive chemotherapy until most of the cancer is gone, and then I will get my own stem cells back.”
b. “The doctor will remove cells from my bone marrow before beginning chemotherapy.”
c. “I will need to attend follow-up visits for up to 3 months after treatment.”
d. “I hope they find a bone marrow donor who matches.”

A

d

An autologous stem cell transplant comes from the client not from a donor. The doctor will remove the stem cells from the bone marrow before beginning chemotherapy and treat the client until most if not all the cancer is eliminated before reinfusing the stem cells. Clients are at risk for infection and will be closely monitored for at least 3 months, but not in protective isolation.

60
Q

A nurse is assessing a 75-year-old woman who had a total hysterectomy when she was 30 years old and normal Pap test results for the past 10 years. The client asks about continuing the Pap test. What is the best response by the nurse?

a. “You will need to continue for the rest of your life.”
b. You need to continue obtaining a Pap test for only the next 5 years.”
c. “You may choose to discontinue this test.”
d. “You could have stopped immediately after your hysterectomy.”

A

c

The American Cancer Society recommendations for women 66+ years or older who have had normal Pap tests for 10 years and who have had a total hysterectomy may choose to stop having Pap tests for cervical cancer screening.

61
Q

An oncology clinic nurse is reinforcing prevention measures for oropharyngeal infections to a client receiving chemotherapy. Which statement by the client indicates that teaching was successful?

a. “I clean my teeth gently several times per day.”
b. “I lubricate my lips with petroleum jelly.”
c. “I replace my toothbrush every month.”
d. “I use an alcohol-based mouthwash every morning.”

A

a

The client demonstrates understanding when he states that he’ll clean his teeth gently several times per day. Frequent gentle cleaning of the mouth or rinsing reduces bacteria build-up in the oral cavity, thus reducing the risk for oropharyngeal infection. Changing the toothbrush each month reduces the bacteria in the mouth for the first few uses only. Petroleum jelly moistens the lips, but doesn’t prevent breakdown of the mucous membranes or reduce the risk for oropharyngeal infection. Alcohol-based products cause drying of the mucous membrane, increasing the likelihood of oropharyngeal infection.

62
Q

A nurse caring for a client who has just received chemotherapy infusion is wearing a disposable gown, gloves, and goggles for protection. The nurse knows that accidental exposure to chemotherapy agents can occur through:

a. absorption through the gown.
b. absorption through the gloves.
c. inhalation of aerosols.
d. absorption through the goggles.

A

c

Aerosol inhalation or absorption through the skin can cause accidental chemotherapy exposure. A nurse must wear a disposable gown and gloves when preparing and administering chemotherapy. She won’t absorb chemicals through an intact gown, protective gloves, or goggles.

63
Q

The nurse performs a breast exam on a client and finds a firm, non-moveable lump in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast that the client reports was not there 3 weeks ago. What does this finding suggest?

a. Malignant tumor with metastasis to surrounding tissue
b. Malignant tumor
c. Normal finding
d. Benign fibrocystic disease

A

b

A fast-growing lump is suggestive of a malignant tumor. Metastasis can only be determined by cytology, not by palpation.

64
Q

A client diagnosed with acute myelocytic leukemia has been receiving chemotherapy. During the last 2 cycles of chemotherapy, the client developed severe thrombocytopenia requiring multiple platelet transfusions. The client is now scheduled to receive a third cycle. How can the nurse best detect early signs and symptoms of thrombocytopenia?

a. Check the client’s history for a congenital link to thrombocytopenia.
b. Monitor daily platelet counts.
c. Closely observe the client’s skin for petechiae and bruising.
d. Perform a cardiovascular assessment every 4 hours.

A

c

The nurse should closely observe the client’s skin for petechiae and bruising. Daily laboratory testing may not reflect the client’s condition as quickly as subtle changes in the client’s skin. Performing a cardiovascular assessment every 4 hours and checking the clients history for a congenital link to thrombocytopenia don’t help detect early signs and symptoms of thrombocytopenia.

65
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of a malignant tumor?

a. It grows by expansion.
b. It is usually slow growing.
c. It demonstrates cells that are well differentiated.
d. It gains access to the blood and lymphatic channels.

A

d

By this mechanism, the tumor metastasizes to other areas of the body. Cells of malignant tumors are undifferentiated. Malignant tumors demonstrate variable rate of growth; however, the more anaplastic the tumor, the faster its growth. A malignant tumor grows at the periphery and sends out processes that infiltrate and destroy surrounding tissues.

66
Q

A patient with uterine cancer is being treated with internal radiation therapy. What would the nurse’s priority responsibility be for this patient?

a. Alert family members that they should restrict their visiting to 5 minutes at any one time.
b. Explain to the patient that she will continue to emit radiation while the implant is in place.
c. Maintain as much distance as possible from the patient while in the room.
d. Wear a lead apron when providing direct patient care.

A

b

When the patient has a radioactive implant in place, the nurse and other health care providers need to protect themselves, as well as the patient, from the effects of radiation. Patients receiving internal radiation emit radiation while the implant is in place; therefore, contact with the health care team is guided by principles of time, distance, and shielding to minimize exposure of personnel to radiation. Safety precautions used in caring for a patient receiving brachytherapy include assigning the patient to a private room, posting appropriate notices about radiation safety precautions, having staff members wear dosimeter badges, making sure that pregnant staff members are not assigned to the patient’s care, prohibiting visits by children or pregnant visitors, limiting visits from others to 30 minutes daily, and seeing that visitors maintain a 6-foot distance from the radiation source.

67
Q

The nurse should teach the patient who is being radiated about protecting his skin and oral mucosa. An important teaching point would be to tell the patient to:

a. Apply a small ice compress to the treated area afterward to decrease localized redness, post-radiation.
b. Cleanse the skin with a mild soap, using his fingertips, not a rough wash cloth.
c. Use an approved emollient 2 hours before the radiation to give the skin time to absorb the medication and provide a shield for damage.
d. Use an ointment, after treatment, to decrease the feeling of burning, which may last for several hours.

A

b

The patient should cleanse himself with a mild soap using his fingertips rather than a wash cloth. All the other choices will irritate the skin and fail to protect it from additional injury.

68
Q

A client with a nagging cough makes an appointment to see the physician after reading that this symptom is one of the seven warning signs of cancer. What is another warning sign of cancer?

a. Rash
b. Persistent nausea
c. Chronic ache or pain
d. Indigestion

A

d

Indigestion is one of the seven warning signs of cancer. The other six are a change in bowel or bladder habits, a sore that does not heal, unusual bleeding or discharge, a thickening or lump in the breast or elsewhere, an obvious change in a wart or mole, and a nagging cough or hoarseness.

Persistent nausea may signal stomach cancer but isn’t one of the seven major warning signs. Rash and chronic ache or pain seldom indicate cancer.

69
Q

An oncologist advises a client with an extensive family history of breast cancer to consider a mastectomy. What type of surgery would the nurse include in teaching?

a. prophylactic
b. local excision
c, cryosurgery
d. palliative

A

a

Also called preventive surgery, prophylactic surgery may be done when there is a family history or genetic predisposition, ability to detect cancer at an early stage, and client acceptance of the postoperative outcome. Local excision is done when an existing tumor is removed along with a small margin of healthy tissue. Palliative surgery relieves symptoms. Cryosurgery uses cold to destroy cancerous cells.

70
Q

A client has received several treatments of bleomycin. It is now important for the nurse to assess

a. Lung sounds
b. Urine output
c. Skin integrity
d. Hand grasp

A

a

Bleomycin has cumulative toxic effects on lung function. Thus, it will be important to assess lung sounds.

71
Q

A serum sodium concentration lower than 115 mEq/L (115 mmol/L) is associated with

a, anorexia.
b. seizure.
c. myalgia.
d. weight gain.

A

b
A serum sodium concentration lower than 115 mEq/L (115 mmol/L) is associated with seizures, abnormal reflexes, papilledema, coma, and death. Anorexia, weight gain, and myalgia are associated with serum sodium concentrations lower than 120 mEq/L.

72
Q

A nurse is planning caring for a client who has developed erythema following radiation therapy for a lesion on the left lower leg. Which intervention would the nurse include in the client’s plan of care to best support skin recovery at the affected site?

a. Keep the area cleanly shaven
b. Wear clothing that fits snugly
c. Apply an emollient immediately before treatment Periodically apply ice
d. Cleanse with lukewarm water and pat dry

A

d
Erythema is a term used to describe redness of body tissue. Care to the affected area must focus on preventing further skin irritation, drying, and damage; the client should cleanse the area with lukewarm water and mild, nondeodorant soap, and pat dry.

73
Q

Chemotherapeutic agents have which effect associated with the renal system?

a. Hypokalemia
b. Hypercalcemia
c. Hypophosphatemia
d. Increased uric acid excretion

A

d

Chemotherapeutic agents can damage the kidneys because of their direct effects during excretion and the accumulation of end products after cell lysis. Urinary excretion of uric acid increases with the use of chemotherapeutic agents.

Hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, and hypocalcemia can occur from the use of chemotherapeutic agents.

74
Q

The nurse is caring for a thyroid cancer client following oral radioactive iodine treatment. Which teaching point is most important?

a. Use disposable utensils for the next month.
b. Flush the toilet several times after every use.
c. Shield your throat area when near others.
d. Prepare food separately from family members.

A

b
Iodine 131 is a systemic internal radiation that is excreted through body fluids, especially urine. Flushing the toilet several times after each use will avoid the exposure of others to radioactive exposure.

Shielding the throat area is not effective because this form of treatment is systemic. Preparing food separately is not necessary, but use of separate eating utensils will be necessary for the first 8 days.

75
Q

Which class of antineoplastic agents is cell cycle–specific?

a. Antimetabolites (5-FU)
b. Antitumor antibiotics (bleomycin)
c. Nitrosoureas (carmustine)
d. Alkylating agents (cisplatin)

A

a

Antimetabolites are cell cycle–specific (S phase). Antitumor antibiotics, alkylating agents, and nitrosoureas are cell cycle–nonspecific.

76
Q

The nurse is completing an admission assessment for a client receiving interstitial implants for prostate cancer. The nurse documents this as

a. systemic radiation.
b. a contact mold.
c. brachytherapy.
d. external beam radiation therapy.

A

c

Brachytherapy is the only term used to denote the use of internal radiation implants.

77
Q

A client with a diagnosis of gastric cancer has been unable to tolerate oral food and fluid intake and her tumor location rules out the use of enteral feeding. What intervention will best meet this client’s nutritional needs?

a. Maintaining NPO status and IV hydration until treatment completion
b. Parenteral nutrition given via a peripherally inserted central catheter
c. Insertion of an NG tube for administration of feeds
d. Administration of parenteral feeds via a peripheral IV

A

b

If malabsorption is severe, or the cancer involves the upper GI tract, parenteral nutrition may be necessary. TPN is given by way of a central line, not a peripheral IV. An NG would be contraindicated for this client. Long-term NPO status would result in malnutrition.

78
Q

A male client has been unable to return to work for 10 days following chemotherapy as the result of ongoing fatigue and inability to perform usual activities. Laboratory test results are WBCs 2000/mm³, RBCs 3.2 x 10¹²/L, and platelets 85,000/mm³. The nurse notes that the client is anxious. Which of the following is the priority nursing diagnosis?

a. Anxiety related to change in role function
b. Activity intolerance related to side effects of chemotherapy
c. Fatigue related to deficient blood cells
d. Risk for infection related to inadequate defenses

A

d

Physiological needs, such as risk for infection, take priority over the client’s other needs.

79
Q

The client is to receive cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) 50 mg/kg intravenously in divided doses over 5 days. The client weighs 176 pounds. How many mg of cyclophosphamide will the client receive each day? Enter the correct number ONLY.

side effects: hemorrhagic cystitis

A

800mg

176lbs/2.2lbs x 1 kg = 80kg
80kg x 50mg/1kg = 4000mg
4000mg/5 days = 800mg/1 day

The client’s weight of 176 pounds equals 80 kg. The client is to receive 50 mg of cyclophosphamide for each 1 kg of body weight. This is to be divided into 5 doses. 80 kg x 50 mg/kg = 4000 mg. 4000 mg/5 days = 800 mg.

80
Q

Which of the following would be consistent with a benign neoplasm?

a, Usually progressive and slow
b. Cells are undifferentiated
c. Gains access to the blood and lymph channels to metastasize
d. Grows by invasion

A

a

A benign neoplasm’s rate of growth is usually progressive and slow. Malignant neoplasms have undifferentiated cells, grow by invasion, and gain access to the blood and lymph channels to metastasize to other areas of the body.

81
Q

A patient is to receive Bacille Calmette-Guerin (BCG), a nonspecific biologic response modifier. Why would the patient receive this form of treatment?

a. For skin cancer
b. For cancer of the bladder
c. For cancer of the lungs
d. For cancer of the breast

A

b

Early investigations of the stimulation of the immune system involved nonspecific agents such as bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) and Corynebacterium parvum. When injected into the patient, these agents serve as antigens that stimulate an immune response. The hope is that the stimulated immune system will then eradicate malignant cells. Extensive animal and human investigations with BCG have shown promising results, especially in treating localized malignant melanoma. In addition, BCG bladder instillation is a standard form of treatment for localized bladder cancer.

82
Q

You are the nurse caring for a client with cancer. The client reports pain and nausea. When assessed, you note that the client appears fearful. What other factor must you consider when a client with cancer indicates signs of pain, nausea, and fear?

a. High cholesterol levels
b. Fatigue
c. Ulceration
d. Infection

A

b
Clients with cancer experience fatigue, which is a side effect of cancer treatments that rest fails to relieve. The nurse must assess the client for other stressors that contribute to fatigue such as pain, nausea, fear, and lack of adequate support. The nurse works with other healthcare team members to treat the client’s fatigue. The above indications do not contribute to infections, ulcerations, or high cholesterol levels.

83
Q

A client is diagnosed with metastatic adenocarcinoma of the stomach. The physician orders mitomycin and other chemotherapeutic agents for palliative treatment. How does mitomycin exert its cytotoxic effects?

a. It inhibits deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis.
b. It’s cell cycle-phase specific.
c. It inhibits ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis.
d. It inhibits protein synthesis.

A

a

Mitomycin (Mutamycin) exerts its cytotoxic effects by inhibiting DNA synthesis rather than RNA synthesis. It’s cell cycle-phase nonspecific and doesn’t inhibit protein synthesis.

84
Q

A client is receiving the cell cycle–nonspecific alkylating agent thiotepa (Thioplex), 60 mg weekly for 4 weeks by bladder instillation as part of chemotherapy regimen to treat bladder cancer. The client asks the nurse how the drug works. How does thiotepa exert its therapeutic effects?

a. It interferes with DNA replication and RNA transcription.
b. It destroys the cell membrane, causing lysis.
c. It interferes with deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) replication only.
d. It interferes with ribonucleic acid (RNA) transcription only.

A

a

Thiotepa interferes with DNA replication and RNA transcription. It doesn’t destroy the cell membrane.

85
Q

An oncology nurse is contributing to the care of a client who has failed to respond appreciably to conventional cancer treatments. As a result, the care team is considering the possible use of biologic response modifiers (BRMs). The nurse should know that these achieve a therapeutic effect by what means?

a. Promoting the synthesis and release of leukocytes
b, Potentiating the effects of chemotherapeutic agents and radiation therapy
c. Altering the immunologic relationship between the tumor and the client
d. Focusing the client’s immune system exclusively on the tumor

A

c

BRMs alter the immunologic relationship between the tumor and the cancer client (host) to provide a therapeutic benefit. They do not necessarily increase white cell production or focus the immune system solely on the tumor. BRMs do not potentiate radiotherapy and chemotherapy.

86
Q

The nurse is caring for a client with a newly discovered tumor that may be benign or malignant. The client asks, “What makes a malignant tumor different from a benign one?” What should the nurse include in the response? Select all that apply.
a. “It grows by invasion and infiltrates the surrounding tissues.”
b. “The cells of the tumor bear little resemblance to the cells in the tissue where the tumor started.”
c. “The tumor grows slowly and may stop.”
d. “The tumor may regress after its initial growth.”
e. “It does not spread to other areas of the body through blood and lymph channels.”

A

a, b

The nurse should include the statements: “The cells of the tumor bear little resemblance to the cells in the tissue where the tumor started” and “It grows by invasion and infiltrates the surrounding tissues” in the response. Undifferentiated cells and growth by invasion are both characteristics of malignant tumors. Benign tumors are characterized by slow growth, not metastasizing, and the possibility of regression, while malignant tumors are not.

87
Q

Which is a sign or symptom of septic shock?

a. Altered mental status
b. Hypertension
c. Increased urine output
d. Warm, moist skin

A

a
Signs of septic shock include altered mental status, cool and clammy skin, decreased urine output, and hypotension.

88
Q

After a bone marrow transplant (BMT), the client should be monitored for at least

a. 100 days
b. 30 days
c. 60 days
d. 14 days

A

a

After a BMT, the nurse closely monitors the client for at least 100 days or more after the procedure because complications related to the transplant can occur 100 days or more as post procedure infections are one common complication that may lead to sepsis and transplant failure.

89
Q

The client has a body surface area of 2.05 m². He is prescribed vincristine (Oncovin) 1.4 mg/m². Vincristine is available as 1 mg/1 mL. How many mL will the nurse administer? Round your answer to the nearest tenth.

A

1.4mg/m2 x 2.05m2 = 2.87mg
2.87 mg/1mg x 1 ml = 2.9ml

The dose ordered is 1.4 mg for each 1 m² of the client’s body surface area, which is 2.05. 1.4 mg/m² x 2.05 m² = 2.87 mg. The dose available is 1 mg for each 1 mL. 1 mg/1 mL x 2.87 mg = 2.87 mL. Rounding your answer to 1 decimal place would be 2.9 mL.

90
Q

A client reports a new onset of sporadic epigastric pain, yellow skin, nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and fatigue. The health care provider orders a diagnostic workup, which reveals end-stage gallbladder cancer. What nursing intervention should be used to facilitate adaptive coping?

a. Provide written education for prescribed treatments.
b. Assist with self-care activities of daily living.
c. Encourage ventilation of negative feelings.
d. Refer client for professional counseling.

A

d

Referring the client for professional counseling will facilitate adaptive coping. Encouraging ventilation of negative feelings will allow for emotional expression, but may not facilitate coping. Physical well-being will increase self-esteem, but won’t necessarily help the patient cope with the diagnosis. Providing written education is for client teaching, not to facilitate coping.

91
Q

A client asks the nurse what is causing the fatigue following radiotherapy. What is the nurse’s best response?
a. The cancer is spreading to other parts of the body.
b. Substances are released when tumor cells are destroyed.
c. Fighting off infection is an exhausting venture.
d. The cancer cells are dying in large numbers.

A

b

Fatigue results from substances being released when tumor cells are destroyed during radiotherapy. The spreading of cancer can cause many symptoms dependent on location and type of cancer, but it is not a significant factor in the development of fatigue with radiotherapy. The production of healthy cells can increase metabolic rate, but death of cancer cells does not support fatigue in this case. Fighting infection can cause fatigue, but there is no evidence provided to support the presence of infection in this client.

92
Q

The nurse is working with a client who has had an allo-hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT). The nurse notices a diffuse rash and diarrhea. The nurse contacts the physician to report that the client has symptoms of
a. acute leukopenia.
b. nadir.
c. metastasis.
d. graft-versus-host disease.

A

d

Graft-versus-host disease is a major cause of morbidity and mortality in clients who have had allogeneic transplant. Clinical manifestations of the disease include diffuse rash that progresses to blistering and desquamation, and mucosal inflammation of the eyes and the entire gastrointestinal tract with subsequent diarrhea, abdominal pain, and hepatomegaly.