Marino - Otter-AOC flash cards
(500 cards)
1
Q
Prop De-IceHow long until the entire cycle is complete
A
2 minutes and 16 seconds (34 * 4)
2
Q
Prop-DeIceCycling the deice switch will…
A
Switch to the next element in the sequence(Left Outter, left inner, right outter, right inner)
3
Q
Prop De-Icedeice will stop when the switch is turned off or…
A
When the oil pressure is below 40psi (prevents overheating when the prop is not turning)
4
Q
Prop De-IceAfter engine failure, will the prop de-ice system still allocate time to the failed side
A
Yes, although the failed side is not receiving power, the timer will still allocate time to it.
5
Q
BootsHow are the boots of the horizontal stab different than the wings (structurally)
A
There is a nylon cap between the horizontal stabilizer and the stabilizer boot as reinforcement from ice from the wing colliding with the stab.
6
Q
Dual Pressure SwitchWhat will happen with cabin heat in AUTO and pressure below 25psi
A
The dual pressure switch will stop further opening of the hot air valve.
7
Q
Dual Pressure SwitchWhat will happen with cabin heat in AUTO and the pressure falls below 20psi
A
Hot air valve will close
8
Q
What is the function of the ejector near the horiz stab?
A
The ejector uses bleed air to create a vacuum, holding the boots tight to the leading edge of the wing and hoz stab.
9
Q
What is the function of the distribution valve?
A
The three valves (one for each wing plus for the stab) takes signal from the timer to switch each boot between pressure from the bleed air (inflate) and suction from the ejector (deflate).
10
Q
What is the boot timing for FAST and SLOW
A
One minute cycles (each boot) and Three minutes cycles.
11
Q
What is the purpose of the valve heater
A
To prevent freezing of bleed air condensation in the distribution valve. Remember the air condenses through a heat exchanger before it gets to the boots.
12
Q
What are inflation times for the wing and stab boots
A
5 seconds and 3 seconds
13
Q
What is the dwell time in FAST and SLOW
A
44 and 164 seconds
14
Q
What is the nulling function of the boots
A
When turned off, then on the boots will start the cycle of the next boot in the sequence
15
Q
What does the stab boot lights indicate
A
The pressure is being supplied to the boots, it does not insure operation
16
Q
Stab boot activation with flapsHow many times will the stab boots inflate with flaps 5-12 degrees
A
Twice, only with bleeds on and boots are off
17
Q
Stab boot activation with flapsHow many times will the stab boots inflate with >17 degrees
A
An additional two, only with bleeds on and boots are off
18
Q
What will happend when using the wipers >100 kts
A
They may not park and possibly pop the circuit breaker
19
Q
What are the limitations on windshield heat
A
Never run it on the ground unless taxi before takeoff into icing conditions.Must be left on in icing conditions
20
Q
Why should you avoid anti-collision lights on with the boots on auto
A
the strobe can interfere with the boot’s timer
21
Q
What are the 6 operating limitations of the de-ice system
A
- All de-ice systems must be fully operative2. Boots must be operated prior to flap extension3. Ng MUST be above 75% Ng4. Do not extend flaps >10 degrees5. Extend intake deflectors in icing6. Intentional flight into Severe icing is prohibited
22
Q
What is an qualified non-crewmember?
A
Has completed ditching training and all applicable training specified in 209-124Scientists comply as long as the PI vouches that they have ditching training and is familiar with 209-124.
23
Q
What is an Air Crewmember?
A
Able to perform emergency duties in flight, FDIFT
24
Q
What are the limitations with flight observers (media, VIP)?
A
Can only be on 1 flight within a 4 month period limited to 3 flights per year. Must complete online training specified in 209-124.
25
How can you determine if the flight is exclusively for official purposes?
There will always be appropriate task code for all official flights.
26
How can you determine if a flight is nonessential?
2.2Can a commercially obtained transportation be more economical?Is the flight to for the performance of official duties?Is the flight on the flights schedule?
27
What must be done before media reps fly on the aircraft?
Must obtain permission from Chief of OPS with cc to XO and CO.
28
What must be done before a VIP embarks?
Notify the Chief of OPS. (2.3.a)Include "VIP ONBOARD" on crew manifest hotline plus email Chief of OPS. Include VIP Full name, Title, Rank/Grade. (4.8.c)Note above on release and acknowledge form
29
Participation in an air show must be approved by...
the CO (2.4)
30
A heavy aircraft is defined as...
Zero fuel weight greater than 20,000 lbs.
31
Who determines if a FD or NAV is required on a P-3 flight?
Chief of OPS (2.6)
32
What is minimum crew in an Otter?
Pilot and Copilot
33
A mechanic is required on the otter...
in remote locations determined by Chief of Ops
34
Technically when is only time you can fly single-pilot?
Only for VFR ferry flights if has been approved by CO. (2.6)
35
When is crew limited to min crew?
Training flight.Post-mx check flightOperations operating with reduced aircraft engines or systems. (2.7)
36
What are the exceptions to the min crew limit?
When non-crewmembers are required for the testing evolution.On non-syllabus training flights permitted by AC. (2.7)
37
AOC Personnel must be familiar with what documents (8)
1. AFM2. FARs3. Safety Manual4. Mx operating instructions5. Alternation and Instrumentation program6. ORM process7. Admin Orders8. 216-104 & 209-124
38
What events require a mx inspection (AFM)? (6)
1. Hard Landing2. Gear Strike3. Severe Turbulence4. Rejected TO5. Tail Strike6. Overweight Landing
39
Who designates the AC, when more than one AC is onboard?
Chief of Ops (3.1)
40
What the overall duty of the Aircraft Commander?
Command authority over all crew members and observers aboard the aircraft, and has command responsibility for ensuring the safe conduct of the mission. (3.1)
41
What is the first of the 16 responsibilities of the AC?
Go/no-go decisions
42
What is second of the 16 responsibilities of the AC?
Aircraft and personnel safety during flight ops
43
What is the third of the 16 responsibilities of the AC?
Safe and efficient mission accomplishment
44
What is the fourth of the 16 responsibilities of the AC?
Preflight and post-flight duties to include checking wx and NOTAMS
45
What is the fifth of the 16 responsibilities of the AC?
Adherence to Project Instructions and the ORM
46
What is the sixth of the 16 responsibilities of the AC?
Adherence to FAA guidelines
47
What is the seventh of the 16 responsibilities of the AC?
Notification and coordination of maintenance requirements
48
What is the eighth of the 16 responsibilities of the AC?
Compliance with AOC Tool Control and Accountability
49
What is the nineth of the 16 responsibilities of the AC?
Ensuring aircraft Airworthiness, serviced and required documentation to include AFM, SOP and ORM are onboard
50
What is the tenth of the 16 responsibilities of the AC?
Notifying appropriate authority of any accident or substantial damage to aircraft or property
51
What is the eleventh of the 16 responsibilities of the AC?
Delegating duties to SIC
52
What is the twelfth of the 16 responsibilities of the AC?
Records, logs and communications to include personnel status
53
What is the thirteenth of the 16 responsibilities of the AC?
Billable flight hours tracking
54
What is the fourteenth of the 16 responsibilities of the AC?
Cleanliness of aircraft
55
What is the fifteenth of the 16 responsibilities of the AC?
HAZMAT and dangerous goods aboard
56
What is the sixteenth of the 16 responsibilities of the AC?
Positive perception of NOAA through conduct and interactions
57
What is the first of the 13 documents that must be aboard the aircraft at all times?
Airworthiness Cert
58
What is the second of the 13 documents that must be aboard the aircraft at all times?
Registration
59
What is the third of the 13 documents that must be aboard the aircraft at all times?
Weight and Balance on file
60
What is the fourth of the 13 documents that must be aboard the aircraft at all times?
Pilot's Cert
61
What is the fifth of the 13 documents that must be aboard the aircraft at all times?
FAA Medical
62
What is the sixth of the 13 documents that must be aboard the aircraft at all times?
Passport (if applic) (4.9)
63
What is the seventh of the 13 documents that must be aboard the aircraft at all times?
Govt Credit Cards (4.9)
64
What is the eighth of the 13 documents that must be aboard the aircraft at all times?
Travel Orders (4.9)
65
What is the ninth of the 13 documents that must be aboard the aircraft at all times?
Flashlight (for night) (4.9)
66
What is the tenth of the 13 documents that must be aboard the aircraft at all times?
AFM (3.1)
67
What is the eleventh of the 13 documents that must be aboard the aircraft at all times?
SOP (3.1)
68
What is the twelfth of the 13 documents that must be aboard the aircraft at all times?
ORM (3.1)
69
What is the thirteenth of the 13 documents that must be aboard the aircraft at all times?
MEL (5.2)
70
What are the duties of the PM?
1. Liasion with the PI2. Manages all field services3. Set work schedules4. Resolve budgetary issues5. Pre-deployment logistics6. Arrange diplomatic clearances7. Ensure scientific needs and mission obj are met8. Coordinate airspace issues with FAA9. Act as VIP representative10. NOAA Customer Satisfaction Survey
71
What are the 6 responsibilities of the Mission Commander?
1. Mission Planning2. Coordinating with the AC and PI3. Data collection and transmission4. Data quality assurance5. Install and remove sci equipment6. Comms with the project sponsor and AOC
72
When shall the AC conduct a mission briefing?
Before all flights, particularly before first flight of a series. Shall occur no later than one hour prior to block out time.
73
What is required for preflight prep?
Wx forecastFuel requirementsAlternatesATC delaysTO and landing distancesRwyway lengthsFile/ BriefCall manifestCoordination with controlling agency
74
What is the duty of the AC, if weather conditions could threaten completion of the flight?
Develop an alternate flight plan to execute if wx dictates
75
What is the prefered weather source?
FSS briefer
76
Flights in NOAA aircraft shall be conducted under IFR...
to the maximum extent possible
77
What is the priority order of the aviation rules and regulations?
1. AOC Policies2. FAA regulations3. FAA/Military Docs4. DoD publications5. Approach plates
78
An AC with an ATP, can take off below mins if and only if...
1. Departure alternate within 15 minutes at normal cruising speed with one engine inop2. Wx conditions at dep alt must be: 600-2 for precision approach 800-2 for non-precision approach if no approach, wx reports must allow for descent from MEA, approach and land under VFR wx minimums
79
An AC without an ATP, can NOT depart if...
Wx is less than published approach minimums and in no case less than 200-1/2 (for emergencies only) (use lowest minimums available for any runway)
80
For any departure below approach mins, what must be completed?
A time-critical ORM, i.e. a though takeoff brief
81
What must you do if the info on the crew manifest changes?
Place a second amended call to the manifest
82
What documents must be provided to non-AOC crewmembers?
Crewmember Guidelines and Information Disclosure for Persons flying aboard Federal Goverment Aircraft ANDAcknowledgement and Release formemail forms to flight ops
83
What if you can not email or fax the acknowedgement form?
Crewmember identification and emergency information must be voiced over the manifest line
84
The words "VIP ONBOARD" must be written/communicated on what documents when applicable?
Acknowledge and Release FormCrew Manifest Calla separate email to flight ops
85
What 7 personal items must be kept with each crewmember?
1. Airmen's Certificate2. FAA Medical Certificate3. Official Passport4. Government Credit Card5. Travel Orders6. Eyeglasses (if app)7. Flashlight for night ops
86
What is the minimum climb gradient for airports which have no published DP?
200 feet per NM
87
Particularly on high elevation runways, multi-engine aircraft must maintains maintain single engine performance...
positive rate of climb above Min Obstacle Clearance at any point of flight
88
Review of runway lengths and takeoff/landing distances must be calculated...
prior to every flight
89
How early shall the fuel order at MacDill be requested?
Day prior or no later than 1.5 hours prior to scheduled block-out time
90
How should in-flight fuel calc be conducted?
Always calculate reserve plus fuel to airport, compare calcs with co-pilot
91
What is AFF and how should it be identified on the flight plan?
Automatic Flight Following which enables flight following through aff.gov. Be sure to include "AFF equipt" within the remarks section of flight plan.
92
What are the pre-flight responsibilities of the AC?
1. Confirm resolve of all discrepancies within ACLogs2. Ensure MEL requirements are met3. Ensure mech discrepancies are resolved4. Ensure properly fueled5. Compute proper Weight and Balance6. Ensure all delegated pre-flight duties are complete7. Inspect surfaces for ice/snow/frost8. Deliver Safety Briefing of emergency procedures9. Ensure each crewmember outfitted with flight/survival gear10. Complete last change walk around
93
What if an inop component is not in the MEL?
Considered part of aircraft, downing item
94
What must be done after an inop item is placarded or removed?
MEL item must be addressed in Aircraftlogs. Also ensure that the MEL is always onboard
95
Within what radius is smoking prohibited around the aircraft?
50 feet unless fueling then 200 feet
96
Crewmember are departing the aircraft on the left side, can you simply feather the left engine?
No, 6.2 states the engine must be shutdown
97
Who is responsible that fueling is in accordance with the MOI when at an FBO?
The AC
98
What should be regarded in regards to fire extinguishing equipment during fueling?
Fire extinguishing equipment must always be present
99
Fuel should occur how many feet away from energized aircraft radar and ground radar?
200/300
100
What should be regarded with respect to Non-essential crewmembers during fueling?
shall not embark, be on board or disembark aircraft during fueling
101
What should the AC do in the event of a spill?
1. Contact local airfield authorities2. Remain on site3. Report spill to Chief of Ops
102
When are seatbelts required?
1. Takeoff2. Approach3. Landing4. Prior to turbulence5. Other times deemed by AC
103
If a crewmember is physically or psychologically impaired...
They can not perform as crew members
104
What are the critical phases of flight?
1. Engine Starts2. Taxi3. Takeoff4. Departure5. Approach6. Landing7. Operations below 500'8. Operations around severe wx
105
Pilots in training must not be at either seat during ops below... (without an IP)
200' AGL
106
When can a non-flight crewmember occupy a pilot seat?
...if a qualified AC is at the controls and a co-pilot has direct oversight at all times. They may not occupy during critical phases of flight.
107
Emergency checklists are to be accomplished in what format?
Challenge, Reply, Reply
108
Sterile cockpit operations, what type of conversations are allowed
Only conversations relating to training or check flights specifics.
109
The AC shall occupy either seat during what stages of flight?
Critical stages of flight
110
When are intersection takeoffs permitted?
Only after the AC has ensured the aircraft performance, rwnway length remaining and runway conditions meet takeoff requirements.
111
When should the climb checklist and any turns be conducted during the climbout?
Only above 500' AGL unless directed by ATC
112
Are crewmembers allowed to externally communicate with regards to aircraft condition, malfunctions or emergencies?
Only if approved by the AC.
113
When is the co-pilot required to monitor flight path and MEA figures during IFR or night transit?
Required when terrain is less than 3000' within 25 miles of flight path
114
What is the obstacle clearance requirement?
Must be able to climb single-engine to avoid all obstacles by at least 300' from flight path.
115
What is the policy with regard to autopilot?
Autopilot use is encouraged to decrease workload, but shall not be used during takeoff, landing, ops below 200 when landing and 500' when not intending to land.
116
When shall the crew familiarize themselves with terrain and obstruction clearance requirements?
When mission calls for flights at or below 1000'.
117
What is required for flights below 200' AGL?
CO approval and no turns planned
118
What is required for flights below 500'AGL
Working Radar Altimeter
119
What is limited below 500 AGL?
Standard rate turns in VMC and no turns at night
120
When shall a SWITLIK be worn?
At or below 500' AGL
121
When shall an anti-exposure suit be PROVIDED?
When water temp is 59 degrees or below and/or air tem is 32 or below. Decision to don suits shall be made by the AC based on the type and duration of the flight.
122
Who may fly during an FCF?
On personnel essential to the safe and proper conduct of the flight. Mech if requested.
123
Under what conditions shall the FCF be conducted?
Day VFR with min fuel and mission equipment off
124
When shall a FCF be conducted?
When the repair or alternation can appreciably change the flight characteristics of substantially affect the flight operation of the aircraft.
125
Where will the request for FCF be listed?
In the squawk section by the mech.
126
What is the limitations of the otter with regard to T-storms?
shall not be operated into areas of known or forecast thunderstorms unless the aircraft has operative weather radar, or the wx forecast indicates that the flight can be conducted through the area visually with adequate separation from the activity.
127
When can T-storms be penetrated?
NEVER, even with op radar
128
What should be considered during training maneuvers?
1. Min 3000'2. Clearing turns3. Seat belts(7.22)
129
What is the on-going wx mins in regard to continuation of flight?
If conditions at the destination airfield and the listed alternate will not be at or above IAP mins at the ETA, the flight should not be continued. (7.23)
130
Does Foreflight replace the need for paper charts?
No, paper charts shall remain on board and be readily accessible by the flight crew at all times.
131
What shall be included in the approach breif other than what is listed on the IAP?
1. Wx conditions2. Aircraft config3. Status of relevant equipment (de-ice, autopilot)(7.25)
132
What is the min chocking requirement?
Chock both main landing wheels, fore and aft
133
What shall be included in the post-flight debrief?
1. Performance of equipment and personnel2. Completion of mission objectives3. Safety of flight issues(8.2)
134
When can you log instrument time?
Only when you are flying solely by reference to instruments and are the sole manipulator of the controls. The AC may not log inst time when performing role of PNF. (8.5)
135
What docs must be forwarded to AOC?
1. Travel vouchers for travel exceeding 30 days2. Fuel receipts (8.7)
136
In the event of a disaster in the vicinity of the aircraft or flight crew, what must be the first action of the AC?
Make positive contact with a supervisor as soon as practical (phone call is the only method) (9.1)
137
The forecast winds at the field will be gusting to 25 knots, who should the aircraft be prepared?
Aircraft must AT LEAST be tied down facing into the wind
138
What is the forecast wind threshold requiring hangering the otter?
Forecast winds 36 to 70 knots
139
If aircraft security is questionable, what actions should be used as a security precaution?
Use of security tape on crew doors, baggage bays, access panels and mx compartments.
140
What should the AC do, it it is believed aircraft security has been compromised?
Immediately contact law enforcement officials and the CO.
141
What should the AC do in the event of a hijacking?
Immediately squawk 7500 and broadcast to ATC "NOAA56 squawking 7500".Attempt to verbally dissuade hijackerPropose alternative, neutral landing sitesConfigure ICS to broadcast from remote stations other than flight compartment
142
What actions shall be accomplished prior to ADIZ crossings?
1. Inform controlling agency (SEALORD, HUNTRESS)2. File DVFR with SEARCH AND RESCUE3. Monitor 121.5 and 243.04. Know your intercept procedures
143
What shall the AC ensure prior to international flights?
All crewmembers have official passports in hand even if the possibility of an emergency landing over the border is possible. (10.2)
144
When should international charts be ordered through Flight Ops?
60 days prior to leaving the US
145
Prior to international departure, what the AC's role in regard to health?
The AC shall inform the AOC Medical Officer about scheduled international operations in sufficient time to complete immunizations prior to departure.
146
Who handles diplomatic clearances for international flights?
Programs
147
If a language barrier exists at an international location, what is recommended?
The use of an agent
148
What is important in regards to Foreign Nationals on board?
DoC and OMAO security must clear the national before they may board. Each national must have a sponsor who is responsible for meeting the Deemed Export Technology Control Program requirements
149
What shall the AC do when landing at a Airport of Entry?
Ensure all necessary customs and clearance forms are prepared and that everyone has appropriate passports and related docs.One crewmember must maintain control over individuals disembarking the Aircraft.
150
What is special about using MacDill as a Airport of Entry.
The AC must contact the Command Post prior to departure from international airport to request Customs.
151
What in regard to food should be minded when border crossing?
Avoid carrying food across the border when able.
152
According to the ops manual, if a crewmember refuses to fly because of fatigue what is the duty of the AC?
AC shall report this to the Chief of Ops. However, the AC should recognize this and call a down day if fatigue is an issue. (11.1)
153
What is to be done, if a waiver is required to extend flight duty limitations?
Request the extension through Appx D of 220-1-1 and submit through Chief of Ops to CO. (11.2)
154
When does crew duty start?
When a crewmember reports to designated place to begin preparations. However, this shall be no later than one hour before scheduled TO time. (must be => 1 hr) (11.3)
155
When does crew duty end?
One hour after block time in or upon completion of post-flight duties, whichever is later.
156
What is the crew duty limiation on a ComAir travel day?
ComAir travel day is considered duty day but requires only eight hours of crew after travel.
157
What is the max crew duty time with op autopilot?
16 hours
158
What is the max crew duty time with inop autopilot?
12 hours
159
What is the crew rest time requirement (except for comair travel days)?
12 hours rest
160
What is the exception in regards to working during a crew rest day?
Only preparations for the next ops day is allowed as long as the meeting is no longer than one hour and only includes essential personnel.
161
When shall a down day occur during deployment?
After six consecutive work or standby days
162
When shall a down day occur while not deployed?
After six consecutive flight days.
163
When shall a down day occur when not deployed (mix of work and flight days)?
After 11 work and flight days, however if consecutive flight days it is limited to six. (11.6b3)
164
When shall notification of a down day be given to the crew?
12 hours prior to the scheduled pre-flight meeting time
165
What the exception to the crew rest period in regard to non-mission flights less than 4 hours in duration?
The AC may recommend a crew rest period less than 12 hours and submit to Chief of Ops for approval
166
What is the max block/flight time per day?
12 hours
167
What is the max block/flight time per week?
60 hours
168
What is the max block/flight time per month?
120 hours
169
What is the max block/flight time per quarter?
320 hours
170
What is the max block/flight time per year?
1200 hours
171
When crossing multiple time zones what can be considered regarding crew rest?
AC may determine if a crew rest day is appropriate as a time zone reset.
172
What does the FAA altitude waiver entail?
SS may fly 500'AGL in congested areas and 500' above obstacles in congested areas
173
What are the dangers of tall towers
Invisible guy wires that can spread half the hieght of the tower
174
What are the hazards of windfarms
Windsheer down wind of the farm because of the reduction of wind in the wash, and wing tip vortices.
175
What are the conditions required for a Mountain Wave to form?
1. Winds >25kts (AIM says 15)2. Unstable low altitude air mass3. Winds must increase with altitude with constant direction4. Mountain range must be near perpendicular (less than 30 degrees) to the prevailing wind5. Overlying air must be stable
176
What is a Trapped Lee Wave?
When the stable layer is close to the mountain tops, it puts a lid on the wave which then continues to oscillate for hundreds of miles.
177
Where is the rotary turbulence?
Below each wave crest
178
What is a vertically propagating wave?
When the stable layer is much high, thereby the wave is more local as it does not reflect off the stable layer.
179
Where is the air most turbulent in a Trapped Lee Wave and a Vertically Propagating Wave?
Trapped Lee: Low AltitudesVertically Propagating: High Altitudes
180
What is the difference between a Standing Lenticular Cloud and a Rotor cloud.
Lenticular's are at high altitude and indicate a wave below.Rotor clouds are round and are within the rotor itself.
181
What are capping clouds?
Clouds along the windward edge of the peak, where moisture has condensed.
182
What actions should be taken when caught in a downdraft?
Apply max power and establish Vy. If still descending, turn towards the downhill slope as down drafts are less severe below.
183
When flying through a valley, what is the safest direction of flight?
Always fly toward the lower end of the valley so you can always make the escape.
184
How should you approach a ridgeline?
45 degrees from the windward side
185
What is a visual cue that you are too low to cross a ridge?
The ridge in the background descends out of view.
186
What is the demarcation line and how should you approach?
The boundary between updrafts and downdrafts on the leeward side of the range. Always approach from above the demarcation line. Try to mentally picture where the line is based on terrain and wind direction and speed.
187
How can you tell if you are above the demaration line.
Use the rifle sight method. Pic a object on the far range and keep it visible above the closer pinnacle.
188
When flying in a canyon, what in regard to speed is most important.
Fly slow to better reaction time, tighter radius turns. Know what power settings give you your target airspeed so you don't have to fumble.
189
What is the target airspeed in a tight canyon?
Vfe provides a good lift to drag ratio at a fairly slow but safe speed.
190
Why avoid windy days in the mountains and canyons?
Since you are already flying slow at Vfe plus the downdrafts around mountains and canyons is a bad combo.
191
Where should you fly within a canyon?
Always fly downstream (towards lower terrain) and keep to one side to give yourself an out (lower) and provides passing room for a meeting situation.
192
Only when can you depart from the DPs?
In clearly VMC conditions
193
What do you do if you loose situational awareness in mountainous terrain?
180 and climb Vx
194
What type of TO should be executed even on long runways at high elevations?
Max performance static takeoffs
195
Always know your MSA (min safe altitude)
1
196
Why is the TO roll longer at higher DAs?
At the same indicated airspeed, your TAS and GS will be higher thus you will cover more distance prior to Vr.
197
What altitude should you never climb higher than in mountainous terrain?
No more than 50% of your single service ceiling unless you are sure of your capabilities.
198
When should be concerned with cold wx altimeter corrections?
199
Should you automatically fly with the cold wx altitude correction?
No, you must fly the altitude assigned by ATC.
200
Cooler nights make the winds fall down the valley causing...
turbulence
201
How do you avoid mountain waves?
1. Flying 3-5000 feet above the peaks2. Climb to altitude 100 miles from the range3. Approach range at 45 degrees4. Avoid if winds aloft are greater than 25 knots
202
What are the wind conditions for go/no-go mountain flying decision per snow survey and the AIM?
25kts per snow survey because of ops.AIM says 35kts winds aloft.
203
What is a quick preflight tool for determining density altitude along stop overs?
FSS will calculate the density altitude of fields on request.
204
At what Ng do the secondary fuel nozzles engage?
38% Ng
205
What is indicated by the 400 cycle light?
Loss of 26VAC, not necessarily a loss of an inverter.
206
If all AC components are working and the 400 cycle light is on, what could it indicate?
Popped 400~ circuit breaker (fuse)
207
The 400 cycle light itself is powered by what bus?
DC bus of the opposite side
208
When the inverter is switched to EMER, what is happening?
The EMER bus side is now powered by the side switched to NORMAL.
209
How is are the AC avionics powered?
The Avionics transformer uses system 115 VAC and converts it to 26VAC. This also powers the AHRS in the G600.See the avionics fuses.
210
Where are the current limiters on the otter?
Three above the third aisle seat and 3 in the battery box.
211
What are the current limiters?
Slow burning fuses that melt if during battery overcharging for prolonged periods.
212
How will a melted current limiter after operations?
Loss of a current limiter will reduce the amperage to and from the battery.
213
How can you detect a melted current limiter?
Either on the next start or if power loss after generators are turned off.
214
What is the purpose of the distribution breakers?
Prevents total failure of the entire bus by isolating the fault.
215
Where is are the distribution breakers?
Next to their associated fuse panel.
216
What happens when a distribution breaker pops?
Power will still be available to the bus but current is limited.
217
What do you do when the distribution break pops?
NEVER reset it.
218
Where is the voltage regulator?
On the forward starboard side of the baggage compartment.
219
What are you testing when you check the load and volts?
The equalizing circuit of the voltage regulator.
220
What does the Generator Light indicate?
An open Reverse Current Relay or generator failure.
221
Where is the reverse current relays?
Above the right side of aisle 3.
222
What is above the right seat in aisle 3?
Reverse Current Relay, Bus Tie Relay and 3 Current Limiters
223
What prevents ground power from charging the batteries?
The External Power RelayLocated under the baggage floor.
224
You have two generator lights on...how much electrical power do you have remaining?
20 minutes
225
What will happen if you have a dual generator failure and you open the bus tie?
Only the right generator light will now remain on.The battery is powering the light on the left bus only.
226
Where is the generator reset breaker?
In the nacelleContinuing to reset the generator will not do anything.
227
How long will the backup Attitude indicator last with a loss of power?
10 hoursRemember, you can still fly with it on 56 and 46 (has airspeed and altimeter).
228
When turning off the left bus to isolate a fire, what important step should you remember?
Turn off the Battery switch too.
229
What you should stop and think about first with an electrical fire?
What systems are no longer working?
230
What does the scientific power override switch do?
Prevents automatic load shedding if a generator is lost.
231
Vmc
64 (with flaps 10)
232
Vx
87
233
Vy
100
234
Vyse
80 (flaps10)
235
Vfe (flaps 10)
103
236
Vfe (flaps >10)
93
237
Vmo
166 (to 6700)156 (to 10000)
238
Va
132
239
Vb (gust)
132
240
Why does the Otter not have a Vne?
Because control surfaces will start to flutter beyond Vmo.
241
Max torque
50psi
242
Max torque for no more than 2 seconds
68.7psi
243
How long is reverse power limited to?
1 minute
244
Max T5 on start (max max)
1090 as long as decreases below 980 within 2 seconds1090-980-2
245
Max T5 on start
925 as long as decreases within 10 seconds925-10
246
At what starting T5 should you report the incident to a mechanic?
>850
247
Max T5 on Take off (labeled)
725
248
Max T5 during cruise (labeled)
695
249
Max T5 at idle
660
250
Max emergency T5
825 ( for 2 seconds)
251
MAx T5 in reverse
725
252
Max Ng
101.6 (2 seconds)
253
Max emergency Ng
102.6
254
Max Np
96%
255
Max emergency Np
110
256
Max Np in reverse
91 +/-1
257
Normal operating Oil Press
80-100
258
Ground Min oil pressure
40
259
Min starting oil temp
-40
260
Min operating oil temp
Oct-99
261
How is the reverse Np governed?
By the Np governor, limited to 91% to prevent the constant speed gov from engaging.
262
What are the limitations for using AVGAS in the otter?
1. Ambient temperature must be less than 25 degrees C2. Max ceiling is 15,000 feet3. All four boost pumps must be operational.4. Must record amount of AVGAS in tanks5. No more than 150 hours throughout overhaul cycle.
263
Loadmeter reads >0.5 on the ground, what should you do?
Increase Ng to Idle+15
264
What is the maximum Loadmeter reading on the ground for proper cooling above 7 C?
0.8
265
What are the starter time limitations?
40 seconds...one minute cooling40 seconds...one minute cooling40 seconds....30 minutes cooling
266
Maximum operating altitude...
25,000 feet
267
Service ceiling
24,380 feet
268
What is the max landing weight of the otter?
12,300 lbs
269
What is the load limit in nose baggage?
300 lbs
270
What is the load limit in aft baggage and the shelf?
500/150 which is included as part of the 500
271
Why does the POH specify 10 flap landings are abnormal and only for icing conditions?
Land speeds may exceed the design speed of the nose wheel
272
What is the correction factor for the performance charts for flap 20 landings
130% of that charted
273
Is the otter approved for lazy eights and chandelles?
No, because it is in the normal category
274
Do we comply with FAR 36 noise limitations?
Yes, although we do not operate at Np 91 we do bring Np to 75 after 400 feet.
275
What are the required placards to be posted in the cockpit?
1. Category and speed limits2. Kinds of operation aircraft is certified for3. Airspeed limitations4. Generator load limits5. Engine fire instructions6. Autopilot limitations7. Use of flaps during and after icing
276
The autopilot is certified for what type of coupled approaches
Cat 1 ILS
277
Min altitude for autopilot operation
500 feet AGL, 200 AGL on coupled approach
278
Before engaging autopilot, ensure the aircraft is....
trimmed
279
Maximum airspeed for autopilot use
Vmo
280
Minimum airspeed for autopilot use
85kts with flaps 10
281
Min airspeed for autopilot use during single engine ops
105kts
282
Only override autopilot on
ground checks or to overcome a malfunction
283
Max flaps for autopilot use
Flaps 10
284
In severe icing you must ..... the autopilot
disengage
285
Inop autofx Vmc
68 with flaps 10
286
Only when can you refuel the tip tanks
Ground operations only
287
Always use tip tank fuel...
prior to the point of no return
288
Tip tanks can only be used at what stage of flight
Enroute only
289
What type of oxygen is only to be useed
Aviator's Breathing Oxygen MIL-O-27210
290
What is the first operating condition of the deice system?
De-iceing system must be completely operative
291
What is the second operating condition of the deice system?
De-ice boots must be used prior to flap extension
292
What is the third operating condition of the deice system?
Ng > 75% (unless you have the tail plane deice boot lights installed)
293
What is the fourth operating condition of the deice system?
Flap angle must not exceed 10
294
What is the fifth operating condition of the deice system?
Intake deflectors must be extended during flight in snow or icing conditions
295
What is the sixth operating condition of the deice system?
Intentional flight in severe icing is prohibited
296
What is the Otter's Wingspan?
65 feet
297
What is the Otter's total height?
18'7"
298
What is the Otter's fuselage height?
9'1"
299
What is the turning radius of the wingtip?
48 feet
300
Whatt is the turning radius of the nose wheels?
22 feet
301
What is the turning radius of the outer wheels?
20 feet
302
Min width of surface for 180 degree turn?
42 feet (think of 50' wide runway is the min)
303
What is the min wingtip clearance for 180 turn?
96 feet
304
Engine Model?
PT6A-27
305
Propeller model?
Hartzell HC B3TN-3D
306
Prop Diameter?
8'6"
307
Max TO weight?
12,500lbs
308
Max landing weight?
12,300lbs
309
Max cabin floor loading?
200lbs/ft^2
310
Baggage compartments loading?
100lbs/ft^2
311
Nose bag weight limit?
300 lbs
312
Rear bag limit?
500lbs 150 of which in shelf
313
Main door opening size?
56"X50"
314
Load factors?
+3.17g to -1.5g
315
Gust load factors?
+3.19g to -1.63g
316
Max ceiling?
25,000
317
Max alt for air start?
20,000
318
Max alt for using AVGAS?
15,000
319
How much does Yvse decrease per 1000 lbs less than max?
4kts down to 71kts
320
What is the max demo crosswind?
20kts
321
What fuel can the Otter accept?
Jet A, A1, B, JP-4/5/8 AVGAS
322
What is the capacity of the FWD tanks?
1235lbs
323
What is the capacity of the AFT tanks?
1341lbs
324
What is the capacity of each wing tank?
287lbs
325
What is the engine oil requirement?
ESSO 2380
326
What is the hydraulic requirements?
MIL-H-5606
327
What is the nose tire pressure?
32psi
328
What is the main tire pressure?
38psi
329
Max T5 for Take-off?
725
330
MAx T5 for Max Cruise?
695
331
Max T5 for Idle?
660
332
Max T5 for Starting?
1090-980-2 or 925-10
333
Max T5 for Accelerations?
825
334
Max T5 for Reverse
725
335
Max Ng?
101.5
336
Max Accel Ng?
102.6
337
Max Acceration Np?
110
338
Oil Pressure other than idle?
80-100
339
Oil Pressure at idle?
Min 40
340
Oil Temp for take-off
Oct-99
341
Oil Temp for Starting and Idle
-139
342
Oil Temp for other than Starting, Idle and TO
0-99
343
Vs
73
344
Vso
66
345
Vs flaps 20
61
346
Vs flaps 37 (Vs1)
56
347
Should you chip ice from the airframe?
No, use Type 1 deice fluid
348
What is a "cold-soaking" tip tank?
When descending from high altitudes, ice can develop on the tip tank skin as fuel remains cold.
349
What are symptoms of TAIL STALL?
1. Lightening of the controls2. Difficulty trimming3. Pitch excursionsUsually noticed after flap extension as tail AOA has increased
350
What are SLDs?
Supercooled Liquid Droplets:Larger droplets than aircraft certified for.Accumulates beyond de-ice systems.
351
Under what conditions can icing occur?
+2C - -20C plus visible moisture
352
When departing in
crew must review and/or brief cold weather engine ops, taxi, TO, landing procedures, icing and deicing procedures
353
What additional 3 pre-flight checks must be done in cold weather ops?
1. Check airframe for ice or frost, deice if present2. Check tire pressure3. Visually check deice boots
354
What are the 6 de-ice systems that must be checked on the ground?
1. Pitot heat2. Valve heat3. Prop de-ice4. Windshield heat5. De-ice botts (NG >70%)6. Intake Deflectors (Ng >80%)
355
Do not spray de-ice fluid...
1. Into flight control hinges2. Directly on windows3. In pitot/static ports4. Directly on stall warning tabs5. With engines on (if must bleeds off)
356
What type of ANTI-ice fluid is only to be used and why?
Type III, because it sheds below Vr at 30kts
357
How do you apply de/anti-ice fluid
Parallel to surfaces identical to the slipstream. Try to avoid the bleed air heat exchanger vent on the top of aircraft.
358
Why do you push props forward during start if OAT
This engages the FCU to properly meter fuel at low Ng. Feathering engages an idler jet which can lead to a lean mixture in cold air.
359
What is a concern during cold weather?
Possible temperature inversion at altitude which can fog up the windshield. Turn on windshield heat if suspected.
360
What is hazardous about approaches after icing conditions?
De-ice system can only assist on the leading edges. Assume every post-icing approach is one with heavy airframe icing.
361
When should intake deflectors be used?
In snow or icing conditions.
362
What to the tailplane boot lights indicate?
Only that sufficient pressure is being supplied to the boots.
363
Taking off in cold fog you should...
Turn on pitot and valve heat during takeoff
364
De-ice systems to turn on before entering icing conditions...(3)
1. Prop Deice2. Windshield heat3. Intake Deflectors
365
De-ice systems to turn on after ice accumulation...(3)
1. Bleeds ON2. De-ice boots AUTO3. Rate FAST
366
What shall you do if airspeed reduces by 20kts in icing? (3)
1. Climb or Descend immediately2. Notify ATC (declare emergency if necessary)3. Avoid flaps until approach (10 flaps only)
367
What 6 items need to be completed for flight into severe icing?
1. Autopilot OFF2. IGNITERS Manual3. Intake Deflectors EXTEND4. Props MAX rpm5. Max power > 125 kts6. All de-icing equiptment ON
368
What is the definition of Severe icing conditions? (4)
1. Accretion aft of de-ice surfaces2. Accretion on aft part of spinner3. Accretion on side windows4. Airspeed loss of 10kts or more
369
Concerning Ng, what should be done in icing conditions?
Ng as high as possible to supply ample bleed air pressure.
370
After icing conditions, what must be completed before flap extension?
Cycle de-ice boots three times before flap extension
371
What types of icing is the Otter certified for?
Trace - Light - Moderate Icing only
372
De-ice systems to turn on with
1. Pitot heat2. Intake Deflectors3. Valve heat4. Bleed air switches
373
During an instrument approach in icing conditions, what modifications to the approach should you consider? (2)
1. Stay on top until GS intercept2. Do not accept intermediate step downs
374
What are the conditions associated with Wing Stall? (2)
1. High AOA2. Low Airspeed
375
What are the conditions associated with Tailplane Stall? (2)
1. Low AOA2. Flaps are down
376
What is the recovery procedure for Tailplane Stall? (3)
1. Pull BACK on the yoke2. Raise the FLAPS3. Reduce power (especially on high wing aircraft)
377
What will the boots do when Bleed air is ON and flaps are extended between 5-12 degrees?
Horizontal stab boots will pulse twice
378
What will the boots do when Bleed air is ON and flaps are extended more than 17 degrees?
Horizontal stab boots will pulse and additional two times
379
How should the approach speed be altered after icing?
Increase approach speeds by 5kts but no more else TAIL STALL!!
380
Additional preflight checks in cold weather... (3)
1. Surface clear of ice/frost2. Tire pressure adequate3. Inspect condition of Boots
381
In cold wx conditions what should be included in takeoff brief?
Icing procedures
382
What is the remedy for fogged windows on ground?
Use the fans to defrost rather than windshield heat
383
How should you exit severe icing?
1. Climb or Descend2. Make a 180 degree turn
384
What part of the cloud has the worst icing?
The tops, that is why always better to descend
385
You hear ice hitting airframe from props, what intensity of icing?
Moderate
386
What are the Icing Safety outlets? (5)
1. Climb (if you can outclimb cloud)2. Descend (if you can get warmer than Frz lvl)3. Continue (if exiting cloud soon)4. Divert (if worsening)5. Return (if worse than briefed)
387
What type of precip should exit IMMEDIATELY?
FREEZING RAIN/DRIZZLE
388
What is important to remember about planning to use the de-icing equipment through known icing?
De-icing systems are a defense to buy more time.Never intentionally plan a route through icingAlways plan an out
389
What 5 things should you ask a briefer prior to flying a route into icing conditions?
1. Ceilings2. Cloud tops3. Freezing level4. PIREPS5. Frontal Activity
390
What safety documents must be presented and/or signed by each non-crewmember?
209-124: NOAA Aviation Safety Policy Handbook220-1-1 Appendix A: Crewmember guidelines and information (with Release and Waiver)
391
Whom does the policy apply?
All NOAA personnel flying on any aircraft in the performance of their official duties.
392
Because NOAA operates Public Use aircraft not under the jurisdiction of the FARs, what does 41 CFR 102-33 require of our agency?
To develop agency-specific flight program standards that meet or exceed applicable civil or military rules.
393
Section 4 of 209-124 specifies that all qualified non-crewmembers must be (2 items)...
1. Appropriately trained in aviation safety specified in 209-124 Section 82. Provided with Aviation Life Support Equipment
394
What is the NTSB definition of an "accident?"
Occurrence ... between the time any persons boards the aircraft with the intention of flight and all such persons have disembarked in which any person suffers DEATH or SERIOUS INJURY or in which the aircraft receives SUBSTANTIAL DAMAGE.
395
What is the definition of a Crewmember?
Person performing duties directly related to or assisting the operation of the aircraft (anyone listed on the schedule from AOC...PIC,SIC,FE,NAV,FD,IFT,MECH)
396
What is the definition of an incident?
Other than accident which affects the safety of operations.
397
What is the definition of an observer?
Non-qualified non-crewmember who monitors performance of flight.Shall not be granted more than once every four months or more than 3 times per year.Must complete online training specified in 209-124i.e. VIPS
398
What is the definition of a Qualified Non-Crewmember? Do the requirements change for non-NOAA crewmembers?
Qualified (trained per 209-124 section 8) to perform skills associated with performing governmental function for which the aircraft is being operated.Has received a pre-flight safety briefingPossesses Aviation Life Support Equipment per 209-124 section 8NO
399
Who comprises the NOAA Aviation Safety Board?
Members fromAOCNOAA Safety and Environmental ComplianceRepresentatives from all of the line officesGeneral Counsel RepAcquisitions RepWorkforce Management Rep
400
What is the only designation given to non-crewmembers who do not possess Aviation Safety Training?
ObserversOnly good for once every 4 months and no more than 3 times per year
401
Who is responsible for ensuring all non-crewmembers have the required safety training?
Principle Investigator
402
When should incidents be reported?
Within 24 hours
403
When should serious incidents ($1M / Death / Hospitalize 3 or more / Disabled) and accidents be reported?
No later than 8 hours
404
Who must approve an OBSERVER aboard a NOAA aircraft?
Ops Boss and CO
405
Can a PI claim one of his aerial observers as an "observer" according to the regs?
Up to the discretion of the Ops boss and CO
406
What is the NOAA-WIDE aviation safety policy?
209-124
407
What is the AOC specific safety policy?
220-1-4
408
If a VIP flys aboard a NOAA aircraft, when is the next time they can fly?
After four months have passed, this rule can not be abused by flying two consecutive days and claiming the four month clock has restarted
409
Does an "observer" require a safety brief?
Yes, the only thing the "observer" does not have is aviation safety training.
410
Although the PI is responsible for the safety training of his team, what is the AC responsibility?
Question the PI as to if they have received the traning.
411
What does NOHRSC stand for?
National Operational Hydrologic Remote Sensing Center
412
What are the typical dimensions of the flight lines?
10 nm long 1000ft wide area 2-3 sq miles
413
What is the product of the aerial survey?
Mean aerial soil moisture equivalent measurements which provide a representative sample of the survey area
414
What happens with the data?
Raw data is checked for accuracy by NOHRSC entered into SHEF and set to the NCRFC (River forecasting center)
415
Approximately how many flight lines are there?
2475 lines in 25 of the northern most states plus 7 Canadian Provinces
416
How are the lines determined?
Areas in the northern areas of the country and mountainous regions where significant snow is expected
417
What time of year is the snow survey/soil moisture conducted?
Year round
418
What becomes of the survey data?
The data is used to generate River and flood forecasts water supply forecasts and spring flow outlooks
419
What are sources of gamma radiation?
Gamma decay of naturally occurring radioisotopes and atmospheric interactions with cosmic ray particles
420
What are the principle contributors to the Terrestrial Gamma Radiation?
Potassium Uranium and Thorium
421
What other sources are detected by Rad Assist?
Airbourne Radon daughters cosmic rays and the radioactivity within the aircraft structure.
422
How are other gamma emittors flitered out?
The calibration process removes these additional contributors to isolate gamma associated with the Snow Water Equivalent
423
Where in the soil is the gamma radiation emitted from?
The upper 8 inches of the soil containing the Pot Ur and Thor
424
What is a gamma ray?
High energy high frequency electromagnetic emmision between x-ray and cosmic ray frequencies
425
How is the gamma radiation effected by the soil moisture?
Water attenuates the terrestrial radiation signal. The SWE is determined by comparing the snow covered data with the radiation attenuation over bare ground. Therefore SWE is measured from the attenuationi of the radiation signal solely from water mass.
426
What are cosmic rays?
Energetically charged subatomic particles(protons, helium and electrons (1%)) originating in outer space.
427
What is the purpose of the cosmic flight lines?
To isolate purely the aircraft and cosmic contributions to the gamma spectrum and remove them from the SWE equation
428
How are cosmic flights flown?
At high altitudes (to reduce terrestrial interferance) lines separated by at least 3000ft flown over lakes where radon concentrations are low
429
How does radon affect the system?
Radon alters the Uranium readings causing errors in the data
430
Why would crystal attenuation be lost at high altitudes?
The low concentration of particles is so low that the crystals stop working
431
What exactly is the crystal?
Sodium Iodine salt
432
How does the NaI detect gamma?
When activated with thallium and subjected to ionized radiation emits photons which is detected by scientillation (light to voltage) material
433
Why must be crystals be contained in a hermetically sealed assembly?
NaI is hydroscopic
434
What is the name of the Gamma detector onboard?
Radiation Solutions RSX-5
435
How many crystals are in the RSX-5?
4 downward facing and 1 upward facing
436
What are the temperature limitations of the crystals?
"-30C to +45C" however avoid rapid temperature shocks
437
What is the first sequence of events for gamma detection?
1. Crystals convert gamma to light
438
What is the second sequence of events for gamma detection?
2. photomultiplier converts to electrical signal
439
What is the third sequence of events for gamma detection?
3. digitally analyzied by Advanced Digital Spectrometer (ADS)
440
What is the fourth sequence of events for gamma detection?
4. Rad-Assist monitors data real-time
441
What is the fifth sequence of events for gamma detection?
5. Counts are then fed to the Airboarne Gamma Data Acquisition Software (AGDAS) to determine SWE/Soil Moisture/background data
442
What atmospheric conditions must be factored into the SWE equation?
Distance from the ground (source) Temperature Pressure
443
Why must the atmospheric conditions be used in the SWE equation?
Density of the air mass can cause an error of 0.95cm
444
What three atmospheric sensors must be operational for snow survey?
Radar altimeter Temperature sensor Pressure sensor
445
Where does the RSX-5 obtain temperature and pressure?
Through hard connections with the aircrafts Air Data Computer (ADC)
446
What does one inch of mercury equate to in altitude?
1000ft
447
What is the BG.dat file?
Contains the estimated back ground correction data for each line determined from previous surveys
448
What is an important fall data check with regards to the BG.dat file?
The background data must contain expected conditions for every line at the time of future airbourne SWE for the coming winter
449
What is required for each line to a successful survey?
A correct Mean Soil Moisture estimate for each line
450
What is the first primary set contained in the BG.dat file?
Values for K Th and Gross Counts representing counts needed to calculate a normalized 25% SM value
451
What is the second primary set contained in the BG.dat file?
List of values which reporesent and estimate of the soil moisture values for each line or an actual SM value if line has been flown (Date flown Rounded SM value Background data)
452
Who requests the surveys?
River Forecasting Center and the Weather Forecasting Office requests surveys of river basins for hydrologic and forecast models
453
How are is the data disemilated?
SWE values are provided to NWS in SHEF format and distributed via AWIPS to NOHRSC data assimilation program and incorporated into the NSA
454
What is the first of the four general aspects of the Aerial Survey?
Radiation sensed from low flying aircraft
455
What is the second of the four general aspects of the Aerial Survey?
Water mass attenuates the radiation signal
456
What is the third of the four general aspects of the Aerial Survey?
The difference between the raw gamma values and the MSM equals the SWE
457
What is the forth of the four general aspects of the Aerial Survey?
Measures attenuation of radiation signal due solely to the intervening water mass
458
What is the first of the five limitations of the system?
Can determine up to 39 inches of water
459
What is the second of the five limitations of the system?
Does not measure snow depth
460
What is the third of the five limitations of the system?
Not sensitive to phase of water
461
What is the fourth of the five limitations of the system?
Accounts for moisture in the atmosphere
462
What is the fifth of the five limitations of the system?
Vegetation does not affect the readings
463
What are the dimensions of the flight line coverage?
10 mi long, 100ft wide covering 2-3 sq mi
464
What is the soil moisture estimate usually set at?
35%, which is the typical field holding capacity
465
After both the soil moisture and SWE flights have been flown, how can inaccuracies be accounted for?
If the hydrologists believe the soil contains more moisture than orginal estimates (due to drought) then the amount of SWE calculated during the second flight would be reduced.
466
What are three inaccuracies of the aerial survey?
1. Systematically underestimate SWE values 2. Not representative of the overall area 3. 1000 ground samples are needed to get a good comparison with the aerial data.
467
What is the weight of the cage assembly?
320lbs
468
What does the DPU (Data Processing Unit) do?
Collects the raw data from the RSX-5 crystals, stores and processes the data for use by RadAssist.
469
What is the purpose of RadAssist?
Displays currect status of the gamma spectrum, GPS health and tuning data from the DPU.
470
What are the 3 DPU inputs?
1. 28VDC 2. GPS (built-in but utilizes aircraft antenna 3. Pressure Altitude (air mass density) 4. Absolute Altitude (RadAlt for depth of air mass calculations) 5. Temperature (manually inputted through AGDAS)
471
What does AGDAS stand for?
Airborne Gamma Data Acquisition System
472
What is the purpose of the AGDAS?
Uses the data to calculte Snow Water Equivalent values.
473
What is the purpose of the network switch?
Connects the DPU, AGDAS and the RadAssist Laptop.
474
Why does the system require DC power?
For the radar altimeter.
475
The GPS splitter provides antenna input to what devices?
the DPU and the Garmin 496.
476
What is the temperature tolerance of the RSx-5?
"-30C to +45C" however avoid rapid temperature shocks
477
What is the 1/13 of the autopilot limitations?
Pilot must be at the flight controls with seat belt fastened
478
What is the 2/13 of the autopilot limitations?
Autopilot certified for CAT 1 coupled ILS approaches
479
What is the 3/13 of the autopilot limitations?
Min altitude for AP op other than during coupled approaches is 500 feet AGL
480
What is the 4/13 of the autopilot limitations?
On a coupled ILS approach, the AP must be disengaged at or above 200ft above runway elevation
481
What is the 5/13 of the autopilot limitations?
AP must not be engaged during TO and landing
482
What is the 6/13 of the autopilot limitations?
Do not engage AP if airplane is out of trim
483
What is the 7/13 of the autopilot limitations?
Max speed for AP op is Vmo
484
What is the 8/13 of the autopilot limitations?
Min speed for AP op with flaps 10 is 85KTS
485
What is the 9/13 of the autopilot limitations?
Min speed for AP op with single engine is 105KTS
486
What is the 10/13 of the autopilot limitations?
Do not override AP except for ground checks or to overcome malfunction while simultaneously disengaging
487
What is the 11/13 of the autopilot limitations?
Max flap setting with AP is 10 degrees
488
What is the 12/13 of the autopilot limitations?
Coupled ILS approaches are only permitted with both engines operating
489
What is the 13/13 of the autopilot limitations?
AP must be disengaged in severe icing
490
If the AP is inop, what restrictions are implemented with regard to duty time?
Crew duty time is now limited to 12 hours
491
What is required >50 nm from shore?
Life Preserver
492
What is 1 of 8 items required for over water flight more than 30 mins
Life Preserver with locator light
493
What is 2 of 8 items required for over water flight more than 30 mins
Liferaft of capacity with locator light
494
What is 3 of 8 items required for over water flight more than 30 mins
Pyrotechnic per liferaft
495
What is 4 of 8 items required for over water flight more than 30 mins
Waterproof emergency radio signalling device
496
What is 5 of 8 items required for over water flight more than 30 mins
Lifeline
497
What is 6 of 8 items required for over water flight more than 30 mins
Two radios capable of comms
498
What is 7 of 8 items required for over water flight more than 30 mins
Nav radios for air space
499
What is 8 of 8 items required for over water flight more than 30 mins
One HF if required for comms
500
What additional piece of equipment must be with liferaft?
Survival kit
