MARKET FAILURE Flashcards

(45 cards)

1
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the main characteristic of monopolistic competition?

A

Imperfect competition where firms are short-run profit maximizers

Monopolistic competition features non-homogenous products and a large number of independent buyers and sellers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define non-homogenous products.

A

Products that differentiate from each other

Non-homogeneity leads to product differentiation in monopolistically competitive markets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does supernormal profit mean?

A

When a firm’s total sales revenue exceeds the total costs of production

This occurs in the short run for firms in monopolistic competition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the relationship between marginal cost and marginal revenue in the short run?

A

Firms profit maximize at marginal cost = marginal revenue

This is a key condition for profit maximization in monopolistic competition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What happens to firms in the long run in monopolistic competition?

A

Only normal profits can be made due to new firms entering the market

The entry of new firms makes the demand for existing firms’ products more price elastic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

List the advantages of monopolistically competitive markets.

A
  • Firms are allocatively efficient in the LR and SR
  • Wide variety of choice for consumers
  • More realistic model than perfect competition
  • Supernormal profits can increase dynamic efficiency through investment

These advantages contribute to a more diverse market for consumers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a disadvantage of monopolistically competitive markets?

A

Firms aren’t as efficient as perfectly competitive markets due to x-inefficiency

This inefficiency arises from the lack of strong incentives to minimize costs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the characteristics of an oligopoly?

A
  • High barriers to entry and exit
  • High concentration ratio
  • Interdependence of firms
  • Product differentiation

Oligopolies often lead to less competitive markets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does a concentration ratio indicate?

A

The combined market share of the top few firms in a market

It is used to measure the degree of market concentration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is collusive behavior in an oligopoly?

A

When firms agree to work together to set prices or control output

This can lead to higher prices and reduced consumer surplus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the difference between overt and tacit collusion?

A
  • Overt collusion: Formal agreements between firms
  • Tacit collusion: Implied collusion without formal agreement

Overt collusion is illegal in many jurisdictions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is price leadership?

A

When one firm changes its prices and others follow

This often occurs in oligopolistic markets with a dominant firm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define the kinked demand curve.

A

A model illustrating price stability in an oligopoly due to asymmetric reactions to price changes

It shows how firms face different elasticities depending on price changes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a cartel?

A

A group of firms that agree to control prices or limit output

An example is OPEC, which controls oil output.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the advantages of oligopoly?

A
  • Potential for significant supernormal profits
  • Increased investment in research and development
  • Collaboration can improve industry standards
  • Exploitation of economies of scale

These advantages can lead to innovation and efficiency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

List the disadvantages of oligopoly.

A
  • Higher prices and profits may lead to resource misallocation
  • Collusion can reduce consumer welfare
  • Reinforces monopoly power and reduces competition

These disadvantages can harm consumers and the overall market.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is price discrimination?

A

Charging different prices to different consumer groups for the same good or service

This is used by monopolists to maximize profits based on varying demand elasticities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the three types of price discrimination?

A
  • First degree: Each consumer charged a different price
  • Second degree: Prices vary according to volume purchased
  • Third degree: Different groups charged different prices

Examples include lawyers charging different clients and peak pricing for trains.

20
Q

What are the benefits of price discrimination for producers?

A
  • Better use of spare capacity
  • Higher supernormal profits
  • Ability to cross-subsidize loss-making markets

These benefits can stimulate further investment and prevent job losses.

21
Q

What does the process of creative destruction involve?

A

New firms entering the market and innovating to overcome barriers

This process is linked to technological change and competition.

22
Q

How are consumers exploited under monopoly power?

A

Charged higher prices due to limited choices, leading to a fall in consumer surplus.

23
Q

What is the process of creative destruction?

A

New firms enter the market to innovate and overcome barriers, leading to competition and market changes.

24
Q

Who is associated with the concept of creative destruction?

25
What does creative destruction lead to?
More innovation and the production of new goods and services.
26
What are the characteristics of contestable markets?
* Face actual and potential competition * Free access to production techniques and technology * No significant barriers to entry and exit * Low consumer loyalty * Number of firms varies.
27
What is hit and run competition?
New entrants enter the market to take supernormal profits and then exit, affecting existing firms.
28
What is a feature of highly contestable markets?
They behave similarly to perfectly competitive markets.
29
What types of barriers to entry exist?
* Economies of scale * Legal barriers (e.g., patents) * Branding/consumer loyalty * Predatory pricing * Limit pricing * Anti-competitive practices * Vertical integration.
30
What are sunk costs?
Costs that cannot be recovered once spent, such as advertising costs.
31
What is the difference between static efficiency and dynamic efficiency?
* Static efficiency: efficiency at one point in time * Dynamic efficiency: efficiency over time, influenced by technological advancements.
32
What is productive efficiency?
Occurs when firms minimize their total average costs.
33
Where does productive efficiency occur on the average cost curve?
At the lowest point on the average cost curve.
34
What is allocative efficiency?
Occurs when resources are distributed to maximize consumer utility, existing at price equals marginal cost (P = MC).
35
What influences dynamic efficiency?
* Research and development * Investment in human and non-human capital * Technological change.
36
What is x-inefficiency?
When a firm produces within the average cost boundary, resulting in higher costs than in competitive markets.
37
What maximizes consumer and producer surplus?
At the free market equilibrium.
38
What is consumer surplus?
The difference between the price the consumer is willing to pay and the price they actually pay.
39
How does the law of diminishing marginal utility affect consumer surplus?
Consumer surplus generally declines with extra units consumed due to decreasing utility.
40
What can increase consumer surplus?
An increase in demand.
41
What can decrease consumer surplus?
A leftward shift in supply due to higher production costs.
42
What is producer surplus?
The difference between the price the producer is willing to charge and the price they actually charge.
43
What can increase producer surplus?
A shift in the supply curve due to lower average production costs or an increase in demand.
44
What is economic welfare?
The total benefit society receives from an economic transaction, calculated as the sum of consumer and producer surplus.
45
What is deadweight loss?
Loss of economic efficiency when equilibrium price and quantity are not achieved.