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MATERNAL Flashcards

1
Q

When describing to a client how pregnancy test works, the nurse understands that which of the following hormones is being evaluated?

a. Follicle Stimulating Hormones
b. Progesterone
c. Estrogen
d. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin

A

d. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin

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2
Q

The uterine layer responsible in implantation of the fertilized ovum is the :

a. Myometrium
b. Decidua
c. Endometrium
d. Parametrium

A

c. Endometrium

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3
Q

Which of the following factors affecting labor associated with passageway?

a. Size of the fetal head and its ability to mold to the maternal pelvis
b. Structure of the maternal pelvis
c. Presentation of the fetus in relation to the maternal pelvis

A

b. Structure of the maternal pelvis

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4
Q

A client is in labor, during the vaginal examination, the presenting part is at station plus two. Nurse, correctly interprets it as:

a. Presenting part is 2 cm below the plane of the ischial spines.
b. Presenting part in 2 cm above the plane of the ischial spines.
c. Biparietal diameter is at the level of the ischial spines.
d. Biparietal diameter is 2 cm above the ischial spines.

A

b. Presenting part in 2 cm above the plane of the ischial spines.

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5
Q

When assessing the adequacy of sperm for conception to occur, which of the following is the most useful criterion?

a. Sperm maturity
b. Sperm count
c. Semen volume
d. Sperm motility

A

d. Sperm motility

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6
Q

The male hormone testosterone, which maintains spermatogenesis is synthesized and released by:

a. Sertolis cell b. Seminal vesicle c. spermatogenic cells d. Leydigs cells

A

d. Leydig`s cells

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7
Q

In male ,a primary reason for the scrotal sac to be distended is to:

a. Maintain a temperature lower than that of the body to ensure spermatogenesis
b. Promotes sexual arousal during intercourse
c. Release an alkaline fluid that helps provide an environment favorable for sperm motility and metabolism
d. Rapidly squeeze the sperm from their storage site into the urethra

A

d. Rapidly squeeze the sperm from their storage site into the urethra

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8
Q

In male ,a primary reason for the scrotal sac to be distended is to:

a. Maintain a temperature lower than that of the body to ensure spermatogenesis
b. Promotes sexual arousal during intercourse
c. Release an alkaline fluid that helps provide an environment favorable for sperm motility and metabolism
d. Rapidly squeeze the sperm from their storage site into the urethra

A

d. Rapidly squeeze the sperm from their storage site into the urethra

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9
Q

Bartholin`s glands in female are homologous to what structure in male?

a. Cowper’s Glands
b. Prostate Gland
c. Bulbourethral gland
d. Vas Deferens

A

c. Bulbourethral gland

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10
Q

The prepuce of the clitoris are formed by the:
a. Labia minora
b. Labia majora
c. Mons veneris
d. Fossa navicularis

A

a. Labia minora

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11
Q

Sebaceous glands that contributes the rough appearance of the areola.

a. lacteriferous ducts
b. Montgomery`s tubercles
c. alveoli
d. lobules

A

b. Montgomery`s tubercles

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12
Q

Which portion of the fallopian tube is the site of sterilization?
a. Isthmus
b. Ampulla
c. Interstitial segment
d. Infundibulum

A

a. Isthmus

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13
Q

The layer of the nonpregnant uterus that sloughs off during menstruation

a. Decidua
b. Myometrium
c. Endometrium
d. Perimetrium

A

c. Endometrium

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14
Q

During which phase of the menstrual cycle that causes irregularities of menstruation?
a. Proliferative phase
b. Ischemic phase
c. Menstrual phase
d. Secretory phase

A

c. Menstrual phase

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15
Q

Chorionic villi is developed at:
a. 8- 9 days of pregnancy
b. 10-11 days of pregnancy
c. 11-12 days of pregnancy
d. 13-14 days of pregnancy

A

d. 13-14 days of pregnancy

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16
Q

Which of the following classifications applies to monozygotic twins for whom the cleavage of the fertilized ovum occurs 3 to 8 days after fertilization?
a. diamniotic dichorionic twins
b. diamniotic monochorionic twin
c. conjoined twins
d. monoamniotic monochorionic twins

A

c. conjoined twins

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17
Q

Which of the following urinary symptoms does the pregnant woman most frequently experience during the first trimester?
a. Incontinence
b. Dysuria
c. Frequency
d. Burning

A

c. Frequency

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18
Q

Which of the following common emotional reactions to pregnancy would the nurse expect to occur during the first trimester?
a. Introversion, egocentrism, narcissism
b. Awkwardness, clumsiness, and unattractiveness
c. Anxiety, passivity, extroversion
d. Ambivalence, fear, fantasies

A

d. Ambivalence, fear, fantasies

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19
Q

Orgasm in female results mainly from:
a. penile penetration
b. clitoral stimulation
c. uterine stimulation
d. sensory arousa

A

b. clitoral stimulation

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20
Q

During which of the following would the focus of classes be mainly on physiologic changes, fetal development, sexuality, during pregnancy, and nutrition?
a. Pre-pregnant period
b. First trimester
c. Second trimester
d. Third trimester

A

b. First trimester

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21
Q

Fetal Heart Rate can be auscultated with a fetoscope as early as which of the following?
a. 5 weeks gestation
b. 10 weeks gestation
c. 15 weeks gestation
d. 20 weeks gestation

A

d. 20 weeks gestation

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22
Q

Which of the following represents the average amount of weight gained during pregnancy?
a. 12 to 22 lb
b. 15 to 25 lb
c. 24 to 30 lb
d. 25 to 40 lb

A

c. 24 to 30 lb

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23
Q

The following are ways of determining expected date of delivery (EDD) when the LMP is unknown EXCEPT:
a. Naegele’s rule
b. Quickening
c. McDonald’s rule
d. Batholomew’s rule of 4

A

a. Naegele’s rule

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24
Q

Which of the following fundal heights indicates less than 12 weeks’ gestation when the date of the LMP is unknown?
a. Uterus at the xiphoid
b. Uterus in the pelvis
c. Uterus at the umbilicus
d. Uterus in the abdomen

A

b. Uterus in the pelvis

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25
Q

Which of the following is described as premature separation of a normally implanted placenta during the second half of pregnancy, usually with severe hemorrhage?
a. Ectopic pregnancy
b. Placenta previa
c. Abruptio placentae
d. Incompetent cervix

A

c. Abruptio placentae

26
Q

Kegel’s exercise is done in pregnancy in order to:
a. Strengthen perineal muscles
b. Relieve backache
c. Strengthen abdominal muscles
d. Prevent leg varicosities and edema

A

a. Strengthen perineal muscles

27
Q

The uterus returns to the pelvic cavity in which of the following time frames?
a. 7th to 9th day postpartum.
b. 2 weeks postpartum.
c. End of 6th week postpartum.
d. When the lochia changes to alba

A

b. 2 weeks postpartum.

28
Q

Heartburn and flatulence, common in the second trimester, are most likely the result of which of the following?
a. Decreased gastric acidity
b. Increased plasma HCG levels
c. Decreased intestinal motility
d. Elevated estrogen levels

A

a. Decreased gastric acidity

29
Q

A 31 year old client is having her menstrual period every 2 weeks that last for 1 week. This type of menstrual pattern is bets defined by:
a. Amenorrhea
b. Menorrhagia
c. Metrorrhagia
d. Dyspareunia

A

b. Menorrhagia

30
Q

On which of the following areas would the nurse expect to observe chloasma?
a. Cheeks, forehead, and nose
b. Breast, areola, and nipples
c. Chest, neck, arms, and legs
d. Abdomen, breast, and thighs

A

a. Cheeks, forehead, and nose

31
Q

In which of the following types of spontaneous abortions would the nurse assess dark brown vaginal discharge and negative pregnancy tests?
a. Threatened Abortion
b. Imminent Abortion
c. Incomplete Abortion
d. Missed Abortion

A

d. Missed Abortion

32
Q

When talking with a pregnant client who is experiencing aching swollen, leg veins, the nurse would explain that this is most probably the result of which of the following?
a. Pressure on blood vessels from the enlarging uterus
b. Thrombophlebitis
c. Pregnancy-induced hypertension
d. The force of gravity pulling down on the uterus

A

d. The force of gravity pulling down on the uterus

33
Q

Which of the following danger signs should be reported promptly during the antepartum period?
a. Constipation
b. Leaking amniotic fluid
c. Breast tenderness
d. Nasal stuffiness

A

a. Constipation

34
Q

During which of the following stages of labor would the nurse assess “crowning”?
a. First stage
b. Second stage
c. Third stage
d. Fourth stage

A

b. Second stage

35
Q

Which of the following would be disadvantage of breast feeding?
a. Involution occurs more rapidly
b. The incidence of allergies increases due to maternal antibodies
c. The father may resent the infant’s demands on the mother’s body
d. There is a greater chance for error during preparation

A

b. The incidence of allergies increases due to maternal antibodies

36
Q

Immediately before expulsion, which of the following cardinal movements occur?
a. Descent
b. Flexion
c. Extension
d. External rotation

A

d. External rotation

37
Q

What event occurring in the second trimester helps the expectant mother to accept the pregnancy?
a. Lightening
b. Ballotment
c. Pseudocyesis
d. Quickening

A

d. Quickening

38
Q

Which of the following statements best describes hyperemesis gravidarum?
a. Severe anemia leading to electrolyte, metabolic, and nutritional imbalances in the absence of other medical problems.
b. Severe nausea and vomiting leading to electrolyte, metabolic, and nutritional imbalances in the absence of other medical problems.
c. Loss of appetite and continuous vomiting that commonly results in dehydration and ultimately decreasing maternal nutrients
d. Severe nausea and diarrhea that can cause gastrointestinal irritation and possibly internal bleeding

A

b. Severe nausea and vomiting leading to electrolyte, metabolic, and nutritional imbalances in the absence of other medical problems.

39
Q

Shoes with low, broad heels, plus a good posture will prevent which prenatal discomfort?
a. Backache
b. Vertigo
c. Leg cramps
d. Nausea

A

a. Backache

40
Q

In Leopold’s maneuver step # 1 you palpated a hard round movable mass at the supra pubic area. The correct interpretation is that the mass palpated is:
a. The mass is the fetal back.
b. The mass palpated is the fetal small part
c. The buttocks because the presentation is breech.
d. The mass palpated is the head.

A

c. The buttocks because the presentation is breech.

41
Q

When a pregnant woman experiences leg cramps, the correct nursing intervention to relieve the muscle cramps is:
a. Allow the woman to exercise
b. Let the woman walk for a while
c. Let the woman lie down and dorsiflex the foot towards the knees
d. Ask the woman to raise her legs

A

c. Let the woman lie down and dorsiflex the foot towards the knees

42
Q

To promote comfort during labor, the nurse John advises a client to assume certain positions and avoid others. Which position may cause maternal hypotension and fetal hypoxia?
a. Squatting position
b. Lateral position
c. Standing position
d. Supine position

A

c. Standing position

43
Q

In the later part of the 3rd trimester, the mother may experience shortness of breath. This complaint maybe explained as
a. The woman is having allergic reaction to the pregnancy and its hormones
b. A normal occurrence in pregnancy because the fetus is using more oxygen
c. The fundus of the uterus is high pushing the diaphragm upwards
d. The woman maybe experiencing complication of pregnancy

A

c. The fundus of the uterus is high pushing the diaphragm upwards

44
Q

A nursing instructor is conducting lecture and is reviewing the functions of the female reproductive system. She asks Mark to describe the follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and the luteinizing hormone (LH). Mark accurately responds by stating that:
a. FSH and LH are secreted by the adrenal glands
b. FSH and LH stimulate the formation of milk during pregnancy
c. FSH and LH are released from the anterior pituitary gland.
d. FSH and LH are secreted by the corpus luteum of the ovary

A

c. FSH and LH are released from the anterior pituitary gland.

45
Q

Cervical softening and uterine souffle are classified as which of the following?
a. Diagnostic signs
b. Positive signs
c. Presumptive signs
d. Probable signs

A

d. Probable signs

46
Q

You want to perform a pelvic examination on one of your pregnant clients. You prepare your client for the procedure by:
a. Asking her to void
b. Taking her vital signs and recording the readings
c. Giving the client a perineal care
d. Doing a vaginal prep

A

a. Asking her to void

47
Q

It is occurs when the presenting part of the fetus has settled into the pelvis at the level of the ischial spines is termed as:
a. Descent
b. Engagement
c. Floating
d. Crowning

A

b. Engagement

48
Q

On the second stage of labor, it is observes that there is a spontaneous rupture of membrane, the nurses priority action would be?
a. Have the patient turn her left side
b. Assess the fetal heart rate
c. Coach the patient to bear down with the next contraction
d. Clean the perineal area with warm wash cloth

A

b. Assess the fetal heart rate

49
Q

The irregular silvery scar lines as a result of stretching of the skin. This refers to;
a. Linea negra
b. Choalsma
c. Striae gravidarum
d. Melasma

A

c. Striae gravidarum

50
Q

A client who was admitted in active labor has only progressed from 2 cm to 3 cm in 8 hours. She is diagnosed as having hypotonic dystocia and is given oxytocin (pitocin) to augment her contractions. The most important aspect of nursing at this time is:
a. Monitoring the FHR
b. Timing and recording length of contractions
c. Checking perineum for bulging
d. preparing for an emergency cesarean delivery

A

b. Timing and recording length of contractions

51
Q

When the fetal head is delivered, the nurse should;
a. Prepare to clamp the cord
b. Use bulb syringe to clear the mouth and nose of secretions
c. Apply abdominal pressure
d. Apply Ritgen maneuver

A

d. Apply Ritgen maneuver

52
Q

Which of the following factors would the nurse suspect as predisposing a client to placenta previa?
a. Multiple gestation
b. Uterine anomalies
c. Abdominal trauma
d. Renal or vascular disease

A

a. Multiple gestation

53
Q

When preparing a teaching plan about self-care during postpartum period, the nurse understands that on the fourth postpartum day the lochia is known as:
a. Rubra
b. Alba
c. Serosa
d. Purpura

A

c. Serosa

54
Q

Mrs. Te is already in labor, she is hypersensitive to touch, with uterine contraction every 2-3 minutes, strong intensity. The nurse identifies Mrs. Te is already at the first stage of labor particularly in what phase?
a. Active
b. Latent
c. Transitional
d. none of the above

A

a. Active

55
Q

Sexual urges and fantasies and exposing one`s genitalia to strangers.
a. Transexualism
b. Exhibitionism
c. Fetishism
d. Froutteurism

A

b. Exhibitionism

56
Q

A normal 1 minute APGAR score is:
a. 1-2
b. 5-9
c. 7-10
d. 12-15

A

c. 7-10

57
Q

It is the white pinpoint papules on the nose, chin and cheeks
a. lanugo
b. vernix caseosa
c. milia
d. Mongolian spot

A

c. milia

58
Q

It is the Fine downy hair on the skin
a. lanugo
b. vernix caseosa
c. milia
d. Mongolian spot

A

a. lanugo

59
Q

What if the normal heart rate within 3 minutes of birth?
a. 100-130 beats per minute
b. 120-160 beats per minute
c. 110-180 beats per minute
d. 130-170 beats per minute

A

b. 120-160 beats per minute

60
Q

What stool has the following characteristics, blackish-gray, sticky, tar-like, odorless :
a. transitional stool
b. bottlefed stool
c. breastfed stool
d. meconium

A

d. meconium

MATERNAL (1 decks)

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