Maternal medicine Flashcards

1
Q

In beta thalassaemia, what is used for monitoring of sugar control?

A

HbA1C - under reads due to defective global chains and transfusions

Serum Fructosamine used instead
Should be <300 for 3 months prior to conceiving (equivocal to HbA1c 43)

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2
Q

What are the cardiac requirements in pregnancy for women with beta thalassaemia?

A

Ideally no cardiac iron but this can take years to achieve in prenatal planning

Otherwise, aim for cardiac T2* > 20 ms (on cardiac MRI) wherever possible as this reflects minimal iron in the heart.

A T2* < 10 ms is associated with an increased risk of cardiac failure.

Note that reduced ejection fraction is a relative contraindication to pregnancy
Cardiac failure accounts for 50% of deaths in patients with B-thal

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3
Q

What is target dry weight of iron for the liver in b-thal?

A

7mg/g

If exceeds 15 , then need to start iron chelation therapy in second to third trimester to reduce risk of cardiac overload of iron
(desferrioxamine)

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4
Q

What iron chelators are safe in pregnancy?

A

Limited safety data
Use of desferrioxamine between 20-28 weeks where necessary
deferasirox and deferiprone should be stopped 3 months before pregnancy
OK post-natally

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5
Q

What special precautions should be taken for splenectomy patients?

A

Daily penicillin or erythromycin to protect against encapsulated organisms Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae type b.

Haem IB and Menc C vaccines if not already had

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6
Q

What is recommended schedule of scans in pregnancy for b-thal?

A

Early scan 7-9 weeks
Growth scans from 24 weeks (4 weekly)

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7
Q

What is the management of transfusions for patients with b-thal in pregnancy?

A

Continue transfusions with target of Hb >100

Transfused 2-3 units, 2 weekly as required - will fall at different rates depending on patient

If Hb >80 at 36 weeks then can avoid further transfusion until after delivery

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7
Q

What are VTE requirements of b-thal in pregnancy?

A

Splenectomy AND platelets > 600 - LMWH and Aspirin

Splenectomy OR platelets >600 - Aspirin

When IP - LMWH

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8
Q

What are the recommendations for intrapartum care of b-thal?

A

Continuous CTG
Not an indication for C/S
Iron chelation (stress response of labour) 2g over 24 hours
Active 3rd stage

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9
Q

Riks of transmission of Parvovirus

A

Risk of vertical transmission
<15 weeks gestation - 15%
15 - 20 weeks - 25%
Term - 70%

Risk of fetal infection is negligible after 20 weeks

7 days incubation on average

Risk of fetal death 5-10% of infected fetuses

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10
Q

What time of virus is varicella?
What is incubation time and infectivity?

A

Varicella (chickenpox) is a DNA virus

Incubation 1-3 weeks
Infections from 48 hours before rash appears to after the vesicles crust over - typically about 5 days

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11
Q

Should you be vaccinated against varicella in pregnancy?

A

Not during but safe prepregnancy or postpartum
Safe whilst breastfeeding

Live attenuated vaccine

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12
Q

What are the criteria for receiving VZIG?

A

Made from donated blood products - limited resource

If significant exposure in pregnant woman offer as soon as possible for up to 10 days after contact

Significant exposure: contact in the same room for 15 minutes or more, face-to-face contact or contact in the setting of a large open ward.

Non-immune pregnant women who have been exposed should be treated as infective between days 8-28 following exposure or days 8-21 if had VZIG

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13
Q

What are maternal risks of varicella in pregnancy?

What is treatment?

A

Affects 0.3% of pregnancies in UK (most women immune)

Pneumonia - around 5%
Hepatitis
Encephalitis

If presents within 24 hours of rash - oral aciclovir 800mg 5 times/day for 7 days

IV aciclovir if severely unwell

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14
Q

Discuss timing of delivery in varicella

A

Ideally at least 7 days after onset of rash

Risks: disseminated disease, thrombo/coagulopathy, neonatal transmission

Sometimes indicated if severely unwell

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15
Q

What are the fetal implications of varicella in pregnancy?

A

No known increased risk of miscarriage
If before 28 week then increased risk of fetal varicella syndrome

FVS: skin scarring in a dermatomal distribution; eye defects (microphthalmia, chorioretinitis or cataracts); hypoplasia of the limbs; and neurological abnormalities (microcephaly, cortical atrophy, mental retardation or dysfunction of bowel and bladder sphincters).

It does not occur at the time of initial fetal infection but results from a subsequent herpes zoster reactivation in utero and only occurs in a minority of infected fetuses.

See FMU at 16-20 weeks or 5 weeks after initial infection

If infection in last 4-5 weeks of pregnancy then risk of neonatal varicella - 50% affected, 25% clinical varicella (chickenpox)

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16
Q

What is the method of inheritance for haemophilia ?

A

Haemophilia A (Factor VIII) and B (Factor IX) are both X-linked

If mother is a carrier then son has 50% chance of being affected and daughter 50% of being carrier

40-50% of haemophilia is de novo mutation

Therefore, new cases of severe haemophilia usually arise from mutation during spermatogenesis in the maternal grandfather, conferring obligate carrier status on the mother. This theory is correct in 90% of cases and thus, the risk to the next male baby after a spontaneously affected sibling is 45%.

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17
Q

How is severity of haemophilia assessed?

A

Severity is categorised according to the plasma concentration of factor VIII or IX.

Severe <0.01 iu/ml
Moderate haemophilia 0.01–0.05 iu/ml
Mild haemophilia, 0.06–0.40 iu/ml.

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18
Q

What is the cut off of factor VIII/IX for obstetric procedures in haemophilia?

A

0.5iu/ml is needed for

Amnio/CVS
Any surgical procedure
Epidural/spinal

Aim for factor VIII/IX levels of at least 0.5 iu/ml to cover surgical or invasive procedures, or spontaneous miscarriage. If treatment is required, factor levels of 1.0 iu/ml should be aimed for and not allowed to fall below 0.5 iu/ml until haemostasis is secure

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19
Q

What are treatment options in the antenatal period for haemophilia?

A

Tranexamic Acid
DDAVP (Desmopressin - diuretic effect) only for Haemophilia A, not in PET
Recombinant factors

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20
Q

How do levels of factor XIII and IX change during pregnancy?

A

Synthesis of factor VIII is increased in pregnancy with plasma levels rising from 6 weeks of gestation to two to three times the baseline by term.

Factor IX levels are relatively unaltered

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21
Q

What considerations need to be taken into account during labour for babies predicted to have haemophilia?

A

Avoid:

ECV
FSE/FBS
Midcavity forceps or ventouse

From GTG: Low-cavity forceps may be used and are likely to be preferable to caesarean section in the second stage of labour.

Active management of 3rd stage
Give TXA in labour

Levels of factor VIII/IX should be maintained above 0.5 iu/ml for at least 3 days following an uncomplicated vaginal delivery or 5 days following instrumental delivery or caesarean section.

TXA should be continued postpartum until lochia is minimal.

LMWH should generally be avoided where the factor level is 0.6 iu/ml or less, but will need to be considered in women with thrombotic risk factors, with careful balance of risks.

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22
Q

What are neonatal considerations with haemophilia?

A

Offer all male born foetuses cord blood testing if born to known female carriers
- may need retesting at 3/6 months
Administer Vitamin K orally if low factor levels
Consider cranial US/MRI

Factor VIII - same as adult level
Factor IX - 1/2 of adult level

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23
Q

What is mechanism of inheritance for von willebrand disease?

A

Dependent on type
Type 1 - partial reduction in amount of vWF
Type 2 - Dysfunctional vWF, dominant inheritance
Can have thrombocytopenia with DDAVP treatment, generally avoided

Type 3- large reduction in amount of vWF, recessive inheritance

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24
Q

What are the risks of von willebrand disease in pregnancy?

A

Increased risk of:
APH x 10 risk
Primary PPH occurs in 15–30% of women
Secondary PPH occurs in approximately 25%.
Need for blood transfusion is increased x5
Mortality rate is increased x10

Avoid IM injections and NSAIDs

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25
Q

What is the incidence of Factor XI deficiency?

A

The incidence in the non-Jewish population is 1/1 000 000

it is common in Ashkenazi Jews with heterozygosity in 8% and homozygosity in 0.2–0.5%.

Autosomal inheritance, worse symptoms of homozygous/compound heterozygous - not always know by patient

Spontaneous bleeding is rare - but risk with surgery/procedures
There is poor correlation between factor level and bleeding tendency

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26
Q

What is the role of Factor XI in the clotting pathway?

A

Factor XI is a glycoprotein that plays a role in the amplification of the coagulation process after the initial production of thrombin.

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27
Q

What are treatment options for Factor XI deficiency?

A

Treatment options include tranexamic acid, factor XI concentrate and FFP

Don’t give TXA and Factor XI together
Avoid neuroaxial analgesia

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28
Q

What is Bernard Soulier Syndrome?

A

BSS is caused by quantitative or qualitative deficiency of the membrane GP Ib-IX-V complex, leading to abnormal adhesion of platelets

Autosomal recessive

Thrombocytopenia and large platelets

Risks: PPH, wound haematoma,

Management: TXA, Platelet transfusion
Avoid neuraxial anaesthesia

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29
Q

What is Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia (GT)?

A

GT is caused by lack of or nonfunctioning GP IIb/IIIa due to missense mutations in ITGA2B and ITGB3. Platelet–platelet aggregation is impaired

Risks

MATERNAL
Intrapartum bleeding/PPH

FETAL
Risk of alloimmunisation from platelet transfusions or paternal derived complexes
May cause fetal thrombocytopenia/ICH

If present, manage through MU - consider steroids or IVIG

Avoid vit k following delivery until status known

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30
Q

What is the incidence of postpartum psychosis?

A

1-2 in 1000
1 in 4 if Bipolar
<1 in 2 if bipolar and family history/personal history

Typically presents day 1-3

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31
Q

What are the implications for rubella in pregnancy?

A

Rubella: single stranded RNA toga virus
Live attenuated vaccine (contraindicated in pregnancy)
If caught in first trimester 90% chance of transmission to fetus
Incubation around 2 weeks

20% of miscarriage
Congenital rubella syndrome: teratogenic with poor prognosis and significant complications (sensorineural deafness, cataracts and cardiac abnormalities most common)
No specific treatment in pregnancy

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32
Q

What is the incubation period for Parvovirus?

A

Parvovirus B19 - slapped cheek
Upto 50% adults asymptomatic and do not require treatment

Incubation 7 days before rash onset and 1 day after

Arrange urgent referral to a specialist in fetal medicine for serial fetal ultrasound scans and Doppler assessment to detect fetal anaemia, heart failure, and hydrops

Risk of vertical transmission
<15 weeks gestation - 15%
15 - 20 weeks - 25%
Term - 70%

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33
Q

What are the implications of uncontrolled hyperthyroid in pregnancy?

A

High miscarriage rate
Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)
Low birth-weight baby
Stillbirth
Neonatal thyroid dysfunction

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34
Q

What is the management of potential exposure to Zika virus in pregnancy?

A

If pregnant woman’s partner travelled to Zika area - barrier methods rest of pregnancy

If symptomatic within 2 weeks of exposure, or after sexual contact with someone who has been exposed within 2 weeks:

-Refer for baseline USS assessment
-If feeling unwell or has felt unwell, test for ZIKA antibodies by sending serum (and urine if within 21 days of symptoms) to RIPL
-If positive Zika or abnormal USS refer to FMU

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35
Q

What type of Virus is Zika?

A

Flavivirus
Single stranded RNA virus

Transmitted primarily by Aedes mosquitos (daytime)

Can be transmitted sexually but risk is low
Incubation period 3-12 days
Typical symptoms: fever, maculopapular rash, arthralgia or conjunctivitis
Rash usually resolves within 2 days but may persist up to 1 week
Many asymptomatic

Zika associations:
Guillan Barre syndrome
Congenital microcephaly* (<2.5th centile)
Other congenital abnormalities

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36
Q

What is the impact of pregnancy on seizure frequency, for women with epilepsy?

A

2/3 No deterioration in seizure frequency
Generalised epilepsy more like to remain seizure free than focal

Most important factor in predicting deterioration is seizure-free duration pre pregnancy

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37
Q

What considerations should be made for women with epilepsy in antenatal and intrapartum periods?

A

Antenatal -
Consultant led care, ANC, serial growth, high dose folic acid

Intrapartum -
If high risk of seizure in Labour consider Clobazam prophylactically
No pethidine/carbetocin
Terminate seizures ASAP to reduce risk fetal acidosis
Delivery on CDS

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38
Q

What is the risk of a tonic-clonic seizure during the labour and the 24 hours after birth?

A

1-4%

Higher in post-natal period

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39
Q

What is the impact of pregnancy on myasthenia gravis?

A

Myasthenia Gravis (MG) is an autoimmune disease caused by antibodies against the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor or other postsynaptic antigens

Female:Male ratio 2:1
Typically presents age 20-30

Effect of Pregnancy on Maternal MG
Symptoms worsened for 40%*
Symptoms unchanged in 30%
30% had remission
No evidence that MG adversely affects pregnancy outcomes

Effect of Pregnancy on Neonate
Transient neonatal MG (TNMG) effects approx 20% of infants born to MG mothers
Transient neonatal MG is due to transfer of maternal antibodies (IgG anti‐AChR antibodies)

*Exacerbations typically occur in the first trimester and in the first 3 months postpartum

Management considerations
Starting glucocorticoid therapy or withdrawing immunosuppressant therapy may exacerbate MG
Infections require prompt treatment as may cause exacerbation
Pregnant patients with MG should be assessed for baseline motor strength, pulmonary function and ECG
Thyroid function tests advised. Thyroid dysfunction in 10-15%
Approx 15% of persons with MG have thymoma
Patients with thymoma who have not undergone thymectomy present with a higher incidence of exacerbation during pregnancy and higher risk neonatal MG
Thymectomy should be considered before conception or after delivery (not during pregnancy)
MG most commonly caused by IgG anti‐AChR antibodies. Patients with anti‐MuSK antibodies generally have worse clinical symptoms and TNMG

TNMG
Affects 20% of babies
Infants with TNMG typically develop symptoms within 12 h to 4 days of delivery
Symptoms resolve spontaneously after 3-4 weeks due to antibody degradation

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40
Q

What is the incidence of Diabetes Insipidus in pregnancy?

A

2-4 in 100,000
Normalyl arises in 3rd trimester and resolves 4-6 weeks post-natal

PET/HELLP can cause DI to develop

Avoid spinal as can cause rapid shift in BP - epidural OK

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41
Q

Discuss management of malaria in pregnancy

A

Classify as complicated or uncomplicated

Uncomplicated is defined as <2% parasitised red blood cells in a woman with no signs of severity and no complicating features

Complicated/severe >2% parasitised red blood cells or complicating features e.g. respiratory distress, pulmonary oedema, hypoglycaemia, secondary gram negative sepsis

Diagnosis confirmed with blood films

Management
-Admit to hospital
-If uncomplicated,
P. falciparum/mixed Quinine and Clindamycin
P. vivax Chloroquine
P. ovale Chloroquine
P. malariae Chloroquine
-If complicated - admit to ITU
IV artenusate or Quinine
-Monitor signs of hypoglycaemia with quinine

Primaquine should not be used in pregnancy.

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42
Q

What is the incubation period of rubella?

A

14 days

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43
Q

What is the sensitivity of amniocentesis in detecting CMV?

A

Between 70-80%

44
Q

What type of virus is Herpes?

A

Double stranded DNA

Herpes 1 - Oral
Herpes 2 - Genital

In reality, mixed, and 50/50 cause of neonatal herpes

45
Q

What categories of neonatal Herpes exist?

A

3 types
1. Restricted to skin/superficial infection (eye/mouth) which is the least severe form
2. CNS infection (mortality with antiviral treatment 6% neurological sequelae 70%)
3. Disseminated infection (mortality with antiviral treatment 30% neurological sequelae 17%)

70% of cases are disseminated or CNS involvement

46
Q

What considerations need to be made in regards to biologic agents in pregnancy?

A

Biologics AKA Anti-TNF or cytokine modulators
Used for control of auto immune disease

Growing evidence of safety in pregnancy
Uncontrolled autoimmune disease poses higher risk of FGR/PTB

Before starting: screen for latent TB
Live vaccines contraindicated (also contraindicated in pregnancy)

Risk of placental accumulation and neonatal immune suppression therefore stopped in late pregnancy

Infliximab - stop at 16 weeks
Certolizumab - safe throughout
All others - stop at 28 weeks

All safe in breastfeeding.

If surgical delivery or sutured, wait 2-3 days before restarting for optimal wound healing

47
Q

What are the recommendations for management of HIV in pregnancy?

A

All pregnant women should be on combined ART
If not on, start in second trimester

All women should have 2 x CD4 count in pregnancy: baseline or initiation of CART and at delivery

If starting cART then need HIV viral load bloods at baseline, 2-4 weeks later, each trimester, and at delivery
If ongoing then at baseline and at 36 weeks

48
Q

In what exceptions would you commence cART in the first trimester (if not already taking)?

A

Indications for starting ART in the first trimester:
Presenting with opportunistic infection
VL >100,000 HIV RNA copies/mL
CD4 cell count is less than 200 cells/mm³

49
Q

What antiretroviral treatment should be commenced, for management of HIV in pregnancy?

A

Women are recommended to start tenofovir disoproxil fumarate or abacavir
with
emtricitabine or lamivudine as a nucleoside backbone

This Doesn’t Follow Any Easy Logic
Tenovir
Disoproxil
Fumarate

Abacavir
Emtricitabine
Lamivudine

No dose changes in pregnancy

50
Q

How do you calculate if further anti-D is required following a sensitising event?

A

After 20 weeks gestation, a minimum dose of 500 IU anti-D Ig within 72h of the event.

A dose of 500 IU, IM is considered sufficient to treat a FMH of up to 4mL fetal red cells.

Additional anti-D Ig doses calculated as 125 IU anti-D Ig/mL fetal red cells (IM)

51
Q

What at the biochemical findings in diabetes insipidus?

A

Low production of or resistance to ADH (cranial or nephrogenic)

Typically:
HYPERNATREMIA
Blood osmolality >285 mOsmol/kg with urinary osmolality <300 mOsmol/kg

52
Q

What are transmission rates by gestation for rubella?

A

Congenital rubella syndrome
- poor prognosis
-siginificant complications: sensorineural deafness, cataracts, cardiac malformations

Before 11 weeks - 90% chance
11 -16 weeks - 20% chance
After 20 weeks - no documented cases

Rubella is TOGA VIRUS, SINGLE STRANDED RNA

53
Q

What should preconception counselling for women with pre-exisiting diabetes include?

A

HbA1C target of 48mmol (above 86 increased risk of congenital malformation)

Folic Acid 5mg
Exercise
Review meds
Glycaemic control targets
Retinal screening -

54
Q

What are stillbirth and neonatal death rates in women with preexisting diabetes?

A

x3 national average

55
Q

What does time in target mean when discussing continuous glucose monitoring?

A

3.5 - 7.8 range
Aiming 70%

56
Q

What recommendations exist for birth in women with

HIV
Hep B
Hep C

A

HIV: dependent on viral load
Hep B: do not routinely offer C/S as transmission reduced with fetal immunoglobulin and vaccine
Hep C: Only offer C/S if confection with HIV

57
Q

What are the risks to haemophilia carriers in pregnancy?

A

Carriers are at increased risk of bleeding with invasive procedures, termination, spontaneous miscarriage and at the time of delivery

58
Q

What congenital anomalies are more likely in patients with diabetes?

A

2-5x increased risk

Neural tube defects, cardiac anomalies (transposition of the great vessels), renal anomalies and sacral agenesis (caudal regression syndrome).

Detailed cardiac scan recommended. Diabetes should be considered during serum screening for chromosomal anomalies: associated with lower MSAFP, beta HCG and uE3.

The risk of aneuploidy is not increased

The prevalence of major congenital anomaly is 46 per 1000 births in women with diabetes (48 per 1000 births for type 1 diabetes, 43 per 1000 births for type 2 diabetes), more than twice the expected rate

59
Q

What are the neonatal risks of diabetes?

A

Neonatal hypoglycaemia - fetal beta cell hyperplasia and neonatal hyperinsulinaemia and elimination of maternal glucose supply following clamping of the cord

Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) - increased risk though mechanism unknown

Hypocalcaemia and hypomagnesaemia

Polycythaemia

Neonatal jaundice

60
Q

What is the risk of neonatal lupus in those with SLE?

A

Neonatal lupus - occurs in up to 3% of babies born to women with SLE

Highly associated with maternal anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies

Typically presents as congenital heart block or as lupus rash. May also present with hepatic or hematologic abnormalities

61
Q

What are the biochemical findings of DKA?

A

Low pH
Low Bicarb
Increased anion gap
Normal K

62
Q

What antenatal monitoring is required for patients with SLE and anti-Ro antibodies?

A

Monthly FBC

Offer the following at the end of every trimester:
GFR and urine PCR
Anti-phospholipid antibody
Complement (C3 and C4)
Anti-dsDNAantibody

Serial fetal growth scans and echo to detect heart block at an early stage

More frequent antenatal visits every 2-4 weeks until 28 weeks then every 1-2 weeks until 36 weeks and then weekly until delivery to screen for hypertensive disorders and IUGR

Timing of delivery would depend on fetal growth and the development of maternal / fetal complications. Aim for vaginal delivery with CS for obstetric indications

During labour, women who have been taking glucocorticoids will need iv hydrocortisone

63
Q

What blood test is helpful in distinguishing active SLE from evolving obstetric disease?

A

Complement C3 and C4 - levels are low in flare of SLE as used up

Cellular casts in urine can be helpful in distinguishing lupus nephritis from PET (not present in PET)

64
Q

What antenatal medications should be recommended in SLE?

A

APL but no previous VTE: LMWH and Aspririn
Women with SLE + antiphospholipid antibodies but no past morbidity: Aspirin +/- hydroxychloroquine

65
Q

Which women with epilepsy can be managed as low risk?

A

Seizure free for 10 years
Off AED medication for 5 years

History of childhood epilepsy syndrome that is now resolved

Must be discharged from Neurology

66
Q

What is the risk of congenital malformation….

Background risk
Sodium valproate
Polypharmacy

A

Women not exposed to AEDs, the incidence of major congenital malformations is not increased
Lamotrigine, and carbamazepine monotherapy at lower doses have the least risk of major congenital malformation.

Background 2.3%
Sodium Valproate 10.7%
Poly 16.8%

67
Q

In the management of haemophilia, which medications should not be given together?

A

TXA and recombinant factor IX - increases clot risk

68
Q

What is the management of refractory ITP?

A

IVIG

69
Q

What is the incidence of neonatal thrombocytopenia in ITP?
What considerations should be taken?

A

Difficult to predict fetal impact - not necessarily related to severity of maternal disease

The incidence neonatal thrombocytopenia is 14–37%, with 5% having platelet counts <20.

Neonatal thrombocytopenia more likely if there has been a sibling with thrombocytopenia, mother has had a splenectomy or her platelet count has been below 50 during the pregnancy

FSE / FBS should be avoided
Avoid high / mid-cavity operative vaginal deliveries but CS not routinely recommended

70
Q

What percentage of women who screen positive for syphilis in pregnancy require treatment?

A

40%

71
Q

What is a chancre?
When does it occur?

A

Solitary ulcer - non painful, diagnostic of Syphilis

Occurs 3 weeks after exposure (9-90 days)

Chancres typically heal spontaneously over 3–8 weeks.

Approximately 25% of patients will go on to develop secondary syphilis if they do not receive treatment.

72
Q

What are the consequence of untreated syphilis in pregnancy?

A

If a woman is infected during pregnancy, or becomes pregnant when she already has syphilis and is not treated, the results can be catastrophic for the baby.

Transmission from 14 weels
Increased risk of miscarriage, PTL, FGR, stillbirth (30-40%).

Of the fetuses that survive, around one-third will be born with signs of congenital syphilis.

TRANSMISSION
Primary up to 100%
Early latent 40%
Late latent 10%

73
Q

How is syphilis diagnosed?

A

Must be confirmed on 2 x types of testing due to risk of false positives
Blood tests can be divided into treponemal or non-treponemal

NON-TREPONEMAL (VDRL and rapid plasma reagin) - can be false positive in endemic treponemal conditions, such as yaws,or in other systemic inflammatory conditions (endocarditis) or pregnancy

TREPONEMAL - reported as reactive/non-reative
Can be false positive if other immune disease such as SLE

Before treatment must have VDRL/rapid plasma reagin test to confirm baseline titres

Test 3 monthly in high risk groups
If high suspicion but negative screen then repeat 6-12 weeks after last sexual contact

74
Q

What is the treatment of syphilis in pregnancy?

A

IM Benzathine Penicillin G (2.4 mill units)
2nd dose if in 3rd trimester 1 week later
Late disease - 3 doses, weekly intervals

Pen allergy: Ceftriaxone 500mg STAT
Discuss with micro if true Pen allergy - Erythromycin/Azith no longer recommended by BASHH

The oral alternative is amoxicillin 500 mg and probenecid 500 mg, both orally, four times per day for 14 days.

75
Q

What is the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction?

A

Complicates upto 45% of treatment of Syphilis

Associated with large numbers of T. pallidum being killed, which in turn releases excessive cytokines, initiating an acute inflammatory reaction.

Symptoms within 24 hours of treatment
Fever, rigours, rash, uterine contractions
Supportive Mx

PRIMARY 50%
SECONDARY 90%
LATENT 25%

76
Q

What is the presentation of congenital syphilis?

A

Multisystem infection can result in NND and long term disability
10x more likely to die in first year of life

Divided into early and late disease
Early = first 2 years of life

2/3 born asymptomatic, of which 2/3 have symptoms by 8 weeks and most by 12 weeks

Early disease: skin rashes, stigmata of meningitis and jaundice.
Hepatosplenomegaly, deranged LFTS (raised ALP)
Blood tests may also show severe anaemia, monocytosis and thrombocytopenia.
X-rays may demonstrate periostitis, which leads to the development of bone deformity.
‘Bloody snuffles’, caused by syphilitic rhinitis, create a pink coloured nasal discharge

Late disease: Bony deformatites
‘Hutchinson’s Triad’: eighth cranial nerve deafness, interstitial keratitis and ‘Hutchinson’s Teeth’ (notched incisors).
Syphilitic rhinitis leads to the characteristic saddle nose and anterior bowing of the mid-tibia creates the classic ‘sabre shins’.
1/3 to 14 have asymptomatic neurosyphilis at presentation

77
Q

What percentage of women with GDM requiring insulin will go on to have GDM in future pregnancies?

A

75%

78
Q

When should bloods be checked when transfusing clotting factors?

A

Before, after and 4 hours after treatment

79
Q

What is the risk of seizures in labour for women with epilepsy?

A

1% in labour
1-2% within 24 hours of delivery

80
Q

What is the risk of recurrence of gestational diabetes?

A

30 - 84% after the index pregnancy
If previous Insulin requiring GDM then 75%

81
Q

What albumin:creatinine ratio is present in…

Microalbuminaemia
Macroalbuminaemia

A

Microalbuminuria (incipient nephropathy) – albumin : creatinine ratio 3.5 mg/mmol or more.
Macroalbuminuria or proteinuria (overt nephropathy) – widespread glomerular sclerosis ACR ratio 30 mg/mmol or more

Pregnancy is not been associated with the development of nephropathy or with accelerated progression of pre-existing nephropathy.

In women with moderate to advanced renal disease, pregnancy may accelerate progression to end-stage renal disease.

82
Q

Which drugs are not associated with post-transplant diabetes?

A

Mycophenalate and Azathioprine

83
Q

What considerations should be made in planning labour and delivery in Marfan’s syndrome?

A

Avoid hypertension - epidural
Avoid prolonged active second stage
Aortic root must be <40mm for vaginal birth otherwise recommend C/S. Also recommend if history of previous dissection or evidence of dilatation in pregnancy.

84
Q

What mode of delivery is recommended in Von Willebrand disease?

A

Should be obstetric indication for recommending birth
In type 2 or 3 then recommend avoidance of mid-cavity forceps, ventouse, FBS, FSE or ECV

85
Q

What is mode of transmission of Zika + how do you test for it?

A

Transmitted through blood, urine, semen, saliva

Test by PCR (blood or other bodily fluid)
IgM develops by end of first week

Cross-reaction with related flaviviruses (e.g., dengue and yellow fever viruses) is common

86
Q

What is the neonatal management of malaria when placental malaria parasitises is confirmed?

A

Cord blood film and then weekly blood films for 28 days
High risk of neonatal infection

87
Q

What is recommendation for pre-labour SROM in HIV?

A

At term - treat same as non HIV - delivery within 24 hours

If low viral load (<50) offer immediate IoL
If >50 then recommend C/S (cat 3)
This is strong recommendation >400

Same guidance for late preterm 34-37 weeks

88
Q

What is the recommended neonatal care for HIV positive women?

A

Women graded by risk depending on viral load + length of time this had been achieved pre-delivery

VERY LOW RISK
The woman has been on cART for longer than 10 weeks AND
Two documented maternal HIV viral loads less than 50 HIV RNA copies/mL during pregnancy at least 4 weeks apart AND
Maternal HIV viral load less than 50 HIV RNA copies/mL at or after 36 weeks.

Then 2 weeks of ZIDOVUDINE MONOTHERAPY

LOW RISK

If the criteria for VERY LOW RISK are not all fulfilled but maternal HIV viral load is less than 50 HIV RNA copies/mL at or after 36 weeks
If the infant is born prematurely (<34 weeks) but most recent maternal HIV viral load is less than 50 HIV RNA copies/mL.
Recommend 4 weeks of zidovudine monotherapy:

HIGH RISK
Use combination PEP if maternal birth HIV viral load is known to be or likely to be over 50 HIV RNA copies/mL on day of birth, if uncertainty about recent maternal adherence or if viral load is not known.

Neonatal PEP should be commenced as soon as possible after birth, and at least within 4 hours

Infant PEP should not be given beyond 2 weeks for VERY LOW-RISK or 4 weeks for LOW-RISK infants even if the infant is breastfed

PEP should not be restarted unless significant subsequent exposure (e.g. maternal viral load detectable during breastfeeding).

89
Q

What is the guidance about HIV positive women and breast feeding in the UK?

A

In the UK and other high-income settings, the safest way to feed infants born to women with HIV is with formula milk.

Women advised not to breastfeed for their baby’s health should be provided with free formula feed to minimise vertical transmission of HIV.

Women not breastfeeding their infant by choice, or because of viral load over 50 HIV RNA copies/mL, should be offered cabergoline to suppress lactation.

Women who are virologically suppressed on cART with good adherence and who choose to breastfeed should be supported to do so, but should be informed about the low risk of transmission of HIV through breastfeeding in this situation and the requirement for extra maternal and infant clinical monitoring…

Reviewed monthly in clinic for maternal and infant HIV RNA viral load testing during and for 2 months after stopping breastfeeding

Maternal cART (rather than infant pre-exposure prophylaxis [PrEP]) is advised to minimise HIV transmission through breastfeeding and safeguard the woman’s health.

90
Q

What is recommended mode of delivery in Herpes?

A

If primary Herpes after 28 weeks - recommend C/S, particularly if delivery within 6 weeks of diagnosis
Risk of neonatal transmission very high (41%)

If uncertainty if primary/secondary can send Herpes IgG to help determine (if matches Herpes on swab)
Up to 15% of cases where a woman presents with a first episode of clinical HSV infection will be a recurrent infection.

If conservative Mx (declines C/S or PPROM) - TDS Aciclovir, should be IV when in labour 5mg/kg and 20mg/kg for neonate

91
Q

When performing C/S to reduce HIV transmission risk, when should it be performed?

A

38-39 weeks
If has well controlled HIV (<50 copies) then 39 weeks as usual

92
Q

What is toxoplasmosis?
How long is the incubation period?

A

Toxoplasma gondii - obligate intracellular protozoan

Incubation period = 5-23 days

Becomes sexually mature in cat intestines, producing oocysts which are excreted in stool. Infection occurs through ingestion of contaminated food including vegetable or infected meat.

Human infection usually asymptomatic / produces glandular fever - like illness. Lymphadenopathy involving the posterior cervical chain is commonest clinical manifestaton.

93
Q

What number of women are affected by toxoplasmosis in pregnancy?

A

1 in 500

About 14% of women of reproductive age are immune to toxoplasmosis
About 30% of 30 year olds are immune.

Immunity is life-long unless the individual becomes immuno-compromised

94
Q

What are the fetal risks of toxoplasmosis?

A

Spontaneous first trimester miscarriage - Chorioretinitis - IUGR

Microcephaly, Hydrocephalus, Intra-cranial calcification

Learning disability, Hepatosplenomegaly

Risk of fetal infection increases while the severity of affection decreases with increasing gestation age.

Primary infection
First trimester ~17% of fetuses affected
Second 25%
Third 65%

Overall
60% of fetuses are born without obvious damage
10% have chorioretinitis only and 20- 30% have multiple anomalies typical of the TORCH syndrome - hydrocephalus, chorioretinitis, intra-cranial calcification, jaundice, microcephaly, anaemia.

Chorioretinitis most common

95
Q

What is the rate of vertical transmission of Hepatitis C?

A

1:20

Detected in 1-2% of pregnant women
Most become persistently infected meaning risk of vertical transmission 80% of carriers are asymptomatic
Not recommended to screen for it since 2018
HCV is transmitted at birth
No evidence of impact of infection on pregnancy in terms of congenital
abnormalities, preterm birth etc. which is indicative that vertical transmission occurs perinatally rather than in utero
Detection of infant infection is only reliable at 3 months of age
No maternal treatment to reduce viral load or vaccine to protect the neonate exists
Women may present with gallstones, cholestasis or acute fatty liver of pregnancy

96
Q

What is the management of mechanical heart valves in planning birth?

A

Offer all women planned birth (IoL or C/S)
Change from Warfarin at 36/40 or 2 weeks before planned birth

Stop Warfarin - start twice daily regimen LMWH 24 hours later
Titrate levels by checking Factor Xa
Peak levels (3-4 hours after dose) between 1 and 1.2
Trough levels 0.6 (before next dose due)
Check levels weekly once in range

For planned C/S
Stop LMWH 24 hours before
Aim to perform C/S 24-30 hours after stopping, or start infusion of unfractionated heparin and stop 4-6 hours before

If IoL
Try aiming birth 12 hours after LMWH or starting infusion and stopping 4-6 hours before

If on Warfarin and present in labour
-Check INR
-Consider reversal
-Senior review

Restart LMWH 4-6 hours after birth
Consider delaying switch to Warfarin upto 7 days

97
Q

Which women with heart disease should be offered C/S?

A

Consider planned caesarean section for women with:

-any disease of the aorta assessed as high risk
-pulmonary arterial hypertension
-NYHA class III or IV heart disease.

98
Q

In which women with heart disease is strict fluid balance monitoring critical to function?

A

Severe left-sided stenotic lesions (for example, aortic stenosis and mitral stenosis)

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

Cardiomyopathy with systolic ventricular dysfunction

Pulmonary arterial hypertension

Fontan circulation and other univentricular circulations

NYHA class IV heart disease.

99
Q

Which women qualify for steroid supplementation in labour?

A

Anyone taking equivalent to 5 mg or more prednisolone daily for more than 3 weeks

In labour:
Continue their regular oral steroids
Add intravenous or intramuscular hydrocortisone and consider a minimum dose of 50 mg every 6 hours until 6 hours after the baby is born

In C/S:
Continue their regular oral steroids and

Give intravenous hydrocortisone when starting anaesthesia; the dose will depend on whether the woman has received hydrocortisone in labour, for example:

consider giving 50 mg if she has had hydrocortisone in labour

consider giving 100 mg if she has not had hydrocortisone in labour

give a further dose of hydrocortisone 6 hours after the baby is born (for example, 50 mg intravenously or intramuscularly)

100
Q

What considerations should be made for women with ITP in labour?

A

Antenatally:
-Weekly FBC from 36/40
-If less than 50 consider steroids or IVIG

Labour:
Measure platelet count at admission

For the baby:
-Inform neonates of potential bleeding risk
-No FBS/FSE
-No ventouse
-Mid-cavity instrumental with caution
-Bear in mind that a caesarean section may not protect the baby from bleeding
-Measure the platelet count in the umbilical cord blood at birth.

101
Q

How should the 3rd stage be managed in women with bleeding disorders?

A

Active 3rd stage recommended
Avoid IM injections

102
Q

Which women are high risk of intracranial intrapartum bleeding?

A

Those with…

an untreated or partially treated cerebrovascular malformation that has bled previously

a large aneurysm (7 mm or more) or an aneurysm with other high-risk features as defined by a neuroradiologist

a complex arteriovenous malformation

cavernoma with high-risk features

intracranial bleeding within the past 2 years.

Management:
Offer C/S
Offer PCEA + assisted second stage (reduced pushing time)

103
Q

What is the recommended timing of birth for women with chronic kidney disease?

A

For women with chronic kidney disease stage 1, stable renal function and non-nephrotic-range proteinuria (urine protein:creatinine ratio less than 300 mg/mmol), base decisions on timing and mode of birth on the woman’s preference and obstetric indications.

Aim delivery at 40/40 in CKD stage 1 and nephrotic-range proteinuria (urine protein:creatinine ratio greater than 300 mg/mmol) or CKD stage 2 to 4 with stable renal function.

If deteriorating Stage 3b, 4 or 5 after 34 weeks, aim for 38/40 birth
If deteriorating before 34/40 try and prolong pregnancy to 34/40 if possible

104
Q

What is the prozone phenomenon in syphilis testing?

A

The prozone phenomenon

False negative response (especially with the rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test) resulting from overwhelming antibody titers which interfere with the proper formation of the antigen-antibody lattice network necessary to visualize a positive flocculation test
Can occur in cases of disproportionately high antibody titers, such as secondary syphilis (though may happen in any phase), or HIV coinfection

105
Q

In women with SLE, what is the risk of developing pre-eclampsia

A

15%

106
Q

What are normal ECG findings in pregnancy?

A

■Atrial and ventricular ectopics
■ Q-wave (small) and inverted T-wave in lead III
■ ST segment depression and T-wave inversion inferior and lateral leads
■ QRS axis leftward shift

107
Q

What is the risk of fetal haemorrhage in ITP?

A

IgG can cross the placenta and cause fetal haemmorhage.

Risk is about 1%

Risk of fetal thrombocytopenia 14-37%
Platelet count beneath 20 5%

108
Q

What is the advice about pregnancy following renal transplant?

A

Advice to wait at least 1 year after living related donor and 2 years after cadaver transplantation.